1
Q
Which of these functions is regulated by the brain stem?
a. understanding spoken language
b. personality
c. putting together a puzzle
d. breathing
A
d. breathing
2
Q
Which of the following is NOT a function of astrocytes?
a. insulate neurons
b. contribute to neuronal repair
c. provide physical support to neurons
d. contribute to the blood–brain barrier
A
a. insulate neurons
3
Q
Which of the following does NOT protect the central nervous system (CNS) from injury?
a. meninges
b. an outer cushioning layer of adipose tissue
c. the blood–brain barrier
d. bones of the cranium and the vertebral column
A
b. an outer cushioning layer of adipose tissue
4
Q
Which of the following is NOT a region of the brain stem?
a. midbrain
b. pons
c. medulla
d. cauda equina
A
d. cauda equina
5
Q
Which of the following does NOT apply to the hypothalamus?
a. link between the autonomic nervous and endocrine systems
b. relay station for the cortex
c. controls thirst and output of urine
d. located inferior to the thalamus
A
b. relay station for the cortex
6
Q
Which of the following is correctly matched to its function?
a. occipital lobe — processing sensation
b. frontal lobe — vision
c. temporal lobe — sensation of sound
d. parietal lobe — voluntary motor activity
A
c. temporal lobe — sensation of sound
7
Q
Somatotopy is the mapping of various areas of the body to distinct areas of responsibility within the cerebral cortex. Which of the following describes aspects of this mapping with regard to the somatosensory cortex?
a. The somatosensory cortex is located immediately anterior to the central sulcus.
b. The degree of sensitivity of a body area is directly proportional to the volume of somatosensory cortex devoted to that body area. c. The left somatosensory cortex is responsible sensation from the left side of the body. d. The size of a body region determines the area of somatosensory cortex responsible for it.
A
b. The degree of sensitivity of a body area is directly proportional to the volume of somatosensory cortex devoted to that body area.
8
Q
Which of the following best describes the process of consolidation?
a. increasing the number of concepts that can be linked when using working memory
b. expanding the storage capacity of short-term memory c. increasing the speed with which you can recall pieces of information from short-term memory d. transferring short-term memory traces into long-term memory
A
d. transferring short-term memory traces into long-term memory
9
Q
Which of these statements best describes brain activity during sleep?
a. The rate of anabolism is decreased.
b. Oxygen consumption is decreased.
c. Overall brain activity is decreased.
d. Reaction to external stimuli is decreased.
A
d. Reaction to external stimuli is decreased.
10
Q
Which of the following is characteristic of paradoxical sleep?
a. easily aroused to wakefulness
b. frequent shifting of body position
c. dreaming
d. at least 50% of sleep time
A
c. dreaming
11
Q
Where is the thalamus located in the brain?
A
The thalamus is deep in the brain near the basal ganglia.
12
Q
What voluntary motor behavior does the thalamus reinforce?
A
It reinforces voluntary motor behaviour initiated by the motor cortex.
13
Q
What is the main function of the thalamus as a relay structure?
A
It serves as a “relay station” and synaptic integrating center for sensory input.
14
Q
What role does the thalamus play in directing attention?
A
It helps direct attention to stimuli of interest.
15
Q
What kind of sensory awareness is the thalamus capable of?
A
It is capable of crude awareness of sensations but cannot distinguish their location or intensity.
16
Q
What is the hypothalamus a collection of?
A
A collection of nuclei and associated fibres that lie beneath the thalamus.
17
Q
What is the hypothalamus the integrating centre for?
A
Homeostatic functions.
18
Q
What important link does the hypothalamus form?
A
It forms an important link between the autonomic nervous system and the endocrine system.
19
Q
Which brain area is most involved in directly regulating the internal environment?
A
The hypothalamus.
20
Q
Where does the hypothalamus lie in relation to the thalamus?
A
It lies beneath the thalamus.(hypo=below)
21
Q
What important functions does the hypothalamus control?
A
- Body temperature and food intake.
Thirst and urine output.
22
Q
What does the hypothalamus control regarding hormone secretion?
A
It controls anterior pituitary hormone secretion.
23
Q
What hormones does the hypothalamus produce that are released from the posterior pituitary?
A
ADH and oxytocin.
24
Q
What is the function of ADH?
A
ADH causes water balance (thirst/urine).
25
What is the function of oxytocin?
Oxytocin causes uterine contractions and milk ejection.
26
What major function does the hypothalamus serve as?
It serves as a major autonomic coordinating centre.
27
What role does the hypothalamus play in emotional and behavioural patterns?
It plays a role in emotional and behavioural patterns.
28
What is the limbic system known as?
The emotion and motivation center.
29
What does the hypothalamus do in relation to body needs?
It detects body needs and triggers the feeling or drive to act.
30
What is the role of the cortex in this process?
The cortex decides what to do about it (like finding food, getting warm, etc.).
31
What cycle does the hypothalamus participate in?
The sleep–wake cycle.
32
What is the cerebrum divided into?
Two halves: right and left cerebral hemispheres.
33
What connects the right and left cerebral hemispheres?
The corpus callosum.
34
What is the corpus callosum?
A thick band consisting of millions of neuronal axons travelling between the hemispheres.
35
What part of the cerebral cortex is grey matter?
The cerebral cortex itself is grey matter.
36
What part of the cerebral cortex is white matter?
The core is white matter.
37
What is grey matter composed of?
Neuronal cell bodies, dendrites, and glial cells.
38
How is grey matter organized?
Into six microscopic layers, each with different types of neurons and functions.
39
Where does integration of neural input and initiation of neural output take place?
Within grey matter.
40
What does white matter consist of?
Bundles of nerve fibres (myelinated axons) that interconnect brain areas.
41
How many layers is the cortex organized into?
Six well-defined layers (distinctive mixes of cell types).
42
How are the layers of the cortex arranged?
Into functional vertical columns that extend ~2 mm from the cortical surface down to the white matter.
43
Do all cortical areas have the same cell types?
Yes, all areas use the same basic cell types, but the thickness of each layer and the connections coming in/out differ by area.
44
What type of cells are abundant in sensory regions?
Stellate cells, which are rich in the expanded layer for initial processing of sensory input.
45
What characterizes the motor regions of the cortex?
A thickened layer with many large pyramidal cells that send fibres down the spinal cord to efferent motor neurons (skeletal muscle).
46
What are the four lobes in the cerebral hemisphere?
1. Occipital lobes
2. Temporal lobes
3. Parietal lobes
4. Frontal lobes
47
What cortex is housed in the occipital lobes?
The visual cortex.
48
What cortex is housed in the temporal lobes?
The auditory cortex.
49
What is the function of the parietal lobes? STUDY
They receive and process somatosensory input.
50
What are the main functions of the frontal lobes?
Voluntary motor activity, speaking, and elaboration of thought.
51
What is the function of the primary motor cortex?
To plan and execute movements.
52
Where is the primary motor cortex located?
Just in front of the central sulcus (precentral gyrus).
53
What type of movement does the primary motor cortex initiate?
Voluntary muscle movement.
54
What are Betz cells?
Large pyramidal neurons in the primary motor cortex that send long axons downward to transmit motor signals (via glutamate) to spinal neurons.
55
Where do most motor fibres cross over (decussate)?
In the medulla oblongata.
56
What does the motor homunculus depict?
The location and relative amount of motor cortex devoted to output to the muscles of each body part.
57
What does the somatotrophic map show?
How body parts are represented in the motor cortex.
58
Which body parts have larger cortical areas and why?
Hands, face, and tongue — because they require finer motor control.
59
What do smaller cortical areas represent?
Less precise movements (e.g., back, legs).
60
What sensations are associated with the parietal lobes? STUDY
Somaesthetic sensations.
61
Where is the somatosensory cortex located? STUDY
In the front (anterior) part of the parietal lobe, behind the central sulcus (on the postcentral gyrus).
62
Which cortex lies opposite the somatosensory cortex? STUDY
The primary motor cortex (in the frontal lobe).
63
What types of body sensations does the somatosensory cortex receive and process? STUDY
Touch, pressure, temperature (heat/cold), pain, and proprioception (awareness of body position and movement).
64
What does the sensory homunculus represent? STUDY
The size of each body part indicates the relative proportion of the somatosensory cortex devoted to that area.
65
Where do sensory receptors send signals from? STUYD
From the skin or joints via afferent neurons to the CNS.
66
Where do sensory signals cross over (decussate)? STUDY
In the medulla or spinal cord.
67
What is the function of the thalamus in this sensory pathway? STUDY
It provides basic awareness but not localization of the stimulus.
68
Where is sensory input received and interpreted?
In the somatosensory cortex (postcentral gyrus).
69
What types of sensory input does the somatosensory cortex interpret?
Touch, pain, temperature, and proprioception.
70
What is the role of the thalamus compared to the somatosensory cortex?
The thalamus detects that something is touching the body, while the somatosensory cortex identifies exactly where and how intense the sensation is.
71
Summarize the pathway of sensory information from receptors to the brain.
Sensory receptors in the skin or joints send signals via afferent neurons to the CNS. Signals cross over (decussate) in the medulla or spinal cord. The thalamus acts as a relay station, providing basic awareness (but not localization). The somatosensory cortex (postcentral gyrus) receives and interprets sensory input — including touch, pain, temperature, and proprioception. The somatosensory cortex identifies where and how intense the sensation is.
72
Which body parts are represented by larger cortical areas?
Parts of the body that are more sensitive or used more frequently, such as the lips, tongue, hands, and genitalia.
73
What does the Broca’s area do?
Speech formation.
74
What does the Wernicke’s area do?
Speech understanding.
75
When you taste a piece of chocolate, which part of the brain helps you recognize its sweetness? STUDY
Parietal Lobe
## Footnote
The parietal lobe is responsible for receiving and processing body sensations, including somesthetic input such as touch, pressure, temperature (heat/cold), pain, and proprioception — and taste perception is processed in nearby sensory regions of the parietal cortex.
76
Where is the Supplementary Motor Area (SMA) located?
Located in the top middle of the frontal lobe, just in front of the primary motor cortex (near midline).
77
What is the function of the Supplementary Motor Area (SMA)?
Plans and organizes complex movement sequences (e.g., playing piano, typing).
78
Where is the Premotor Cortex located?
Located on the side of the frontal lobe, anterior (in front) of the primary motor cortex.
79
What is the function of the Premotor Cortex?
Plans how muscles will move; assists the primary motor cortex during movement.
80
Where is the Posterior Parietal Cortex located?
Located in the parietal lobe, behind the somatosensory cortex.
81
What is the function of the Posterior Parietal Cortex? STUDY
Uses sensory information to guide movement; tells motor areas where to move.
82
What is brain plasticity?
The brain’s ability to change and reorganize its connections when learning or after injury.
83
When is brain plasticity stronger?
Stronger in early life but continues throughout adulthood with practice and experience.
84
What happens if one area of the brain is damaged?
If one area is damaged, other areas can take over its function over time.
85
What is the role of the hippocampus in neurogenesis?
The hippocampus (memory region) can form new neurons using its own stem cells; a process called neurogenesis.
86
What does neurogenesis help the brain do?
These abilities help the brain adapt, recover, and learn.
87
What does an electroencephalogram stand for?
Electroencephalogram = EEG.
88
What does an EEG represent?
Collective postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs & IPSPs) in cortical neurons not action potentials.
89
What is an EEG used for?
Used as a clinical tool in the diagnosis of cerebral dysfunction.
90
What do scientists use to measure activity in a single neuron?
Scientists use microelectrodes to measure activity in a single neuron while an animal performs a task or senses stimuli.
91
How is neural information represented?
Neural information is represented by action potential frequency: a stronger stimulus = higher firing rate.
92
How does the brain encode information?
The brain encodes information not only by how fast individual neurons fire, but also by how groups of neurons fire together in synchrony.
93
What does 'cerebellum' mean?
Means 'little brain.'
94
What is the cerebellum important for?
Important in integration of motor output and sensory perception.
95
What is the cerebellum central to?
Central to motor coordination, balance, and sensory–motor integration.
96
How many neurons does the cerebellum contain compared to the rest of the brain?
Contains more neurons than the rest of the brain combined, highlighting its importance.
97
Where are more individual neurons found?
More individual neurons are found in the cerebellum than in the rest of the brain.
98
What are the three functionally distinct parts of the cerebellum?
Spinocerebellum: Enhances muscle tone and coordinates skilled movements. Cerebrocerebellum: Plans and initiates voluntary activity and stores procedural memories. Vestibulocerebellum: Balance and control of eye movement.
99
What does Vestibulocerebellum do?
Balance and control of eye movement.
100
What does Spinocerebellum do?
Enhances muscle tone and coordinates skilled movements.
101
What does Cerebrocerebellum do?
Plans and initiates voluntary activity and stores procedural memories.
102
What are the effects of cerebellar damage?
Reduced muscle tone (but no paralysis), poor coordination, intention tremor – shaking during movement toward a target, nystagmus (involuntary eye movement), poor balance.
103
What does the basal ganglia consist of?
Consist of several masses of grey matter located deep within the cerebral white matter.
104
What are the functions associated with the basal ganglia?
Motor control, cognition, emotions, and learning.
105
What are the key functions of the basal ganglia?
Inhibit unnecessary muscle tone, maintain proper balance between excitatory and inhibitory inputs to motor neurons, select and maintain purposeful movements, filter out unwanted or competing motion patterns, coordinate slow, sustained contractions, especially important for posture and support.
106
What is the mnemonic for the functions of the basal ganglia?
BASAL Ganglia: Ba: Balance of muscle tone (inhibits excess movement), S: Selects purposeful motor actions, A: Active for a while not twitching or moving rapidly (coordinate slow, sustained contractions), L: Limits unwanted or random movements.
107
What is the primary role of the cerebellum?
Coordinates and refines movement.
108
What is the primary role of the basal ganglia?
Initiates and regulates movement.
109
What is the effect of the cerebellum on muscle tone?
Enhances muscle tone.
110
What is the effect of the basal ganglia on muscle tone?
Inhibits muscle tone.
111
What type of function does the cerebellum perform?
Corrects ongoing motion.
112
What type of function does the basal ganglia perform?
Selects and filters purposeful motion.
113
What disorder is associated with cerebellar damage?
Cerebellar damage causes intention tremor.
114
What disorder is associated with basal ganglia damage?
Parkinson’s disease causes resting tremor.
115
What are the important functions of the basal ganglia?
Inhibiting muscle tone throughout the body, selecting and maintaining purposeful motor activity while suppressing useless or unwanted patterns of movement, helping monitor and coordinate slow, sustained contractions, such as in posture and support.
116
What does the motor cortex do?
The motor cortex initiates voluntary movement.
117
What does the thalamus do in relation to movement?
The thalamus reinforces it (voluntary movement).
118
What does the basal ganglia inhibit?
The basal ganglia inhibit excess or antagonistic activity by suppressing unwanted signals to the thalamus and brainstem.
119
Where is the limbic system?
The limbic system surrounds the brain stem and is not a separate structure.
120
What kind of structure is the limbic system?
It is an interconnected ring of forebrain structures.
121
What does the limbic system include?
Includes portions of cerebral lobes, the basal nuclei, the thalamus, and the hypothalamus.
122
What does the limbic system link together?
The limbic system links thinking (cerebral lobes), motivation (basal nuclei), sensing importance (thalamus), and reacting (hypothalamus), helping emotion, memory, and behaviour work together.
123
Which neurotransmitters are utilized by the limbic system?
Norepinephrine, dopamine, and serotonin.
124
What is depression associated with?
Depression is associated with defects in limbic system neurotransmitters.
125
What are emotions as part of the Limbic System?
Emotion: Subjective feelings and moods.
126
What does the Limbic system include?
Emotions and Basic behavioral patterns.
127
What is the role of the amygdala?
The amygdala is involved in feeling emotions (like fear, anger, pleasure) and interprets emotional significance, activating other brain areas to produce the body’s reaction.
128
What are basic behavioural patterns aimed at?
Basic behavioural patterns are aimed at survival and perpetuation of the species.
129
What is the role of the hypothalamus in basic behavioural patterns?
The hypothalamus is involved in involuntary internal responses such as increase in heart rate.
130
What is the role of the higher cortex in behavioural activities?
The higher cortex is involved in executing complex behavioural activities such as the flight-or-fight response.
131
What other centres are part of the limbic system functions?
Reward and punishment centres.
132
What does the limbic system connect?
The limbic system connects emotion, instinct, and motivation, helping us feel, react, and survive.
133
What is learning?
Learning is the acquisition of knowledge or skills as a consequence of experience, instruction, or both.
134
What are believed to be integral parts of many types of learning?
Rewards and punishments are integral parts of many types of learning.
135
Which part of the brain is affected if there is slow, uncoordinated movement?
Cerebellum, because it coordinates motor control, balance, and smooth execution of movement.
136
Which part of the brain is affected if there is lack of emotion or flat affect?
Limbic system (especially the amygdala and prefrontal cortex), because it regulates emotion and mood.
137
Which part of the brain is affected if there is poor judgment or impulse control?
Frontal lobe, because it controls higher executive functions such as decision-making, reasoning, and inhibition of inappropriate behavior.
138
Which part of the brain is affected if there is difficulty speaking or only groaning?
Frontal lobe (Broca’s area), because it is responsible for the motor control of speech production.
139
Which part of the brain is affected if there is rigid posture and jerky limbs?
Basal ganglia, because it regulates muscle tone and helps initiate and maintain smooth, purposeful movements.
140
What is memory?
Storage of acquired knowledge for later recall.
141
How long does short-term memory last?
Seconds to hours.
142
How long does long-term memory last?
Days to years.
143
What is consolidation?
Process of transferring and fixing short-term memory traces into long-term memory.
144
What is reconsolidation?
When you remember something, that memory becomes active and flexible for a short time, allowing the brain to change or strengthen it before storing it again.
145
What is working memory?
Temporarily holds and interrelates various pieces of information relevant to a current mental task.
146
What are memory traces?
Patterns of change left in the neurons that allow information to be stored and later recalled.
147
When is information stored in short-term memory?
Immediate.
148
When is information stored in long-term memory?
Later; must be transferred from short-term to long-term memory through consolidation.
149
How long does short-term memory last?
Lasts for seconds to hours.
150
How long is long-term memory retained?
Retained for days to years.
151
What is the capacity of storage in short-term memory?
Limited.
152
What is the capacity of storage in long-term memory?
Very large.
153
What is the retrieval time for short-term memory?
Rapid retrieval.
154
What is the retrieval time for long-term memory?
Slower retrieval, except for thoroughly ingrained memories.
155
What happens when short-term memory cannot be retrieved?
Permanently forgotten; memory fades quickly unless consolidated into long-term memory.
156
What happens when long-term memory cannot be retrieved?
Usually only transiently unable to access; relatively stable memory trace.
157
What is the mechanism of storage for short-term memory?
Involves transient modifications in functions of pre-existing synapses.
158
What is the mechanism of storage for long-term memory?
Involves relatively permanent functional or structural changes between existing neurons.
159
What is amnesia?
Suffering from lack of memory that involves whole portions of time.
160
What are the two forms of amnesia?
Retrograde (going backward) and Anterograde (going forward).
161
What is retrograde amnesia?
The inability to recall recent past events (going backward).
162
What typically causes retrograde amnesia?
It usually follows a traumatic event that interferes with electrical activity of the brain.
163
What happens if a person is knocked unconscious?
The content of short-term memory is essentially erased.
164
What can severe trauma interfere with?
Severe trauma may interfere with access to recently acquired information in long-term stores.
165
What is anterograde amnesia?
The inability to store memory long term for later retrieval (going forward).
166
What brain region is associated with anterograde amnesia?
Lesions of the medial portions of the temporal lobes.
167
What can people with anterograde amnesia typically recall?
They may be able to recall things they learned before the onset of their problem.
168
What happens to new information in anterograde amnesia?
New information is lost as quickly as it fades from short-term memory.
169
How are neurons involved in memory traces distributed?
The neurons involved in memory traces are widely distributed throughout the subcortical and cortical regions of the brain.
170
What are the regions of the brain most extensively implicated in memory?
Limbic system: Hippocampus and other parts, Cerebellum, Prefrontal cortex.
171
Where is the hippocampus located?
Part of the limbic system in the medial temporal lobe.
172
What role does the hippocampus play in memory?
Plays a vital role in short-term memory and consolidation into long-term memory.
173
What does the hippocampus do with new long-term memories?
Temporarily stores new long-term memories before transferring them to cortical sites.
174
What type of memory is the hippocampus essential for?
Essential for declarative ('what') memories.
175
What do declarative memories require?
Declarative memories require conscious recall.
176
What happens when the hippocampus is damaged?
Damage to the hippocampus causes severe forgetfulness.
177
In what disease is hippocampal damage common?
Hippocampal damage is common in Alzheimer’s disease.
178
What type of memory is the hippocampus involved in?
The hippocampus plays an important role in declarative memories.
179
What type of memory is the cerebellum involved in?
The cerebellum and relevant cortical regions play an essential role in procedural memories.
180
What type of memory is the prefrontal cortex associated with?
The prefrontal cortex is associated with working memory.
181
What type of memory does the cerebellum and cortical regions play an essential role in?
The cerebellum and cortical regions play an essential role in procedural ('how to') memories.
182
How are procedural memories gained?
Procedural memories involve motor skills gained through repetitive training.
183
What systems are key to storing procedural memory?
The motor or sensory systems used in performing the task are key to storing that memory.
184
Are procedural memories consciously recalled?
Procedural memories are not consciously recalled.
185
What is distinct localization in relation to procedural memory?
Distinct localization: people with temporal/limbic lesions can perform a skill but do not remember doing it later.
186
What does the prefrontal cortex act as?
Acts as a temporary on-line storage for relevant information.
187
What functions is the prefrontal cortex responsible for?
Responsible for executive functions: planning, problem-solving, organizing, and prioritizing.
188
How does the prefrontal cortex work with other brain regions?
Works with sensory regions through neural connections.
189
What separate areas does the prefrontal cortex have?
Has separate areas for spatial, verbal, and visual information.
190
What may intelligence depend on?
Intelligence may depend on how much information a person’s working memory can hold and connect.
191
What are the different molecular mechanisms involved in memory?
Short-term memory and long-term memory.
192
What molecular mechanisms are involved in short-term memory?
Habituation and sensitization.
193
What is habituation?
Habituation: Decreased responsiveness to a repetitive and indifferent stimulus.
194
What is sensitization?
Sensitization: Increased responsiveness to a mild stimulus following a noxious stimulus.
195
What type of stimulus causes habituation in Aplysia?
Repetitious indifferent stimulus.
196
What happens to Ca²⁺ channels during habituation in Aplysia?
Ca²⁺ channels in presynaptic neuron prevented from opening.
197
What happens to Ca²⁺ influx during habituation?
↓ Ca²⁺ influx.
198
What happens to neurotransmitter output during habituation?
↓ Output of neurotransmitter from presynaptic neuron.
199
What is the behavioral result of habituation in Aplysia?
Reduced behavioural response to indifferent stimuli.
200
What type of stimulus causes sensitization in Aplysia?
Strong or noxious stimulus.
201
What is released during sensitization in Aplysia?
Release of serotonin from facilitating interneuron.
202
What happens to K⁺ channels during sensitization?
Blockage of K⁺ channels in presynaptic neuron.
203
What activates the synthesis of proteins needed for long-term potentiation?
Activation of specific genes that control synthesis of proteins needed for lasting structural or functional changes.
204
What does long-term potentiation refer to?
A prolonged increase in the strength of existing synaptic connections.
205
What are the two plausible proposals for long-term potentiation?
One involves a postsynaptic change and the other a presynaptic modification.
206
What is required for long-term potentiation to occur?
Lasting structural or functional changes in pre- or postsynaptic membranes.
207
What happens to the action potential during sensitization?
Prolongation of action potential in presynaptic neuron.
208
What happens to Ca²⁺ channels during sensitization?
Ca²⁺ channels in presynaptic neuron kept open longer.
209
What happens to Ca²⁺ influx during sensitization?
↑ Ca²⁺ influx.
210
What happens to neurotransmitter output during sensitization?
↑ Output of neurotransmitter from presynaptic neuron.
211
What is the behavioral result of sensitization in Aplysia?
Enhanced behavioural response to mild stimuli.
212
What is released from the activated presynaptic neuron?
Glutamate is released from the activated presynaptic neuron.
213
What receptors does glutamate bind to?
Glutamate binds with both AMPA and NMDA receptors.
214
What happens when AMPA receptor channels open?
Na⁺ entry through open AMPA channels depolarizes the postsynaptic neuron.
215
What must happen for the NMDA receptor channel to open?
Sufficient depolarization through AMPA opening drives Mg²⁺ out of the NMDA channel.
216
What enters through the NMDA receptor channel once Mg²⁺ is removed?
Ca²⁺ enters through the open NMDA channel.
217
What does the Ca²⁺ second-messenger pathway do?
It promotes insertion of additional AMPA receptors in the postsynaptic membrane.
218
What else does the second-messenger pathway trigger?
It triggers release of a retrograde paracrine (likely nitric oxide).
219
What is the function of nitric oxide in this process?
Nitric oxide stimulates long-lasting increase in glutamate release by the presynaptic neuron.
220
What type of stimulus causes habituation in Aplysia?
A repetitious indifferent stimulus causes habituation in Aplysia.
221
During habituation in Aplysia, what happens to calcium (Ca²⁺) channels in the presynaptic neuron?
Calcium (Ca²⁺) channels in the presynaptic neuron are prevented from opening.
222
During habituation in Aplysia, what happens to calcium influx?
Calcium (Ca²⁺) influx decreases.
223
How does habituation in Aplysia affect neurotransmitter release?
Output of neurotransmitter from the presynaptic neuron decreases.
224
How does habituation in Aplysia affect the postsynaptic potential?
Postsynaptic potential in the efferent neuron decreases.
225
What is the behavioural outcome of habituation in Aplysia?
Reduced behavioural response to indifferent stimuli.
226
What type of stimulus causes sensitization in Aplysia?
A strong or noxious stimulus causes sensitization in Aplysia.
227
During sensitization in Aplysia, what neurotransmitter is released from the facilitating interneuron?
Serotonin is released from the facilitating interneuron.
228
What effect does serotonin have on the presynaptic neuron during sensitization in Aplysia?
Serotonin increases cyclic AMP (cAMP) in the presynaptic neuron.
229
What happens to potassium (K⁺) channels in the presynaptic neuron during sensitization in Aplysia?
Potassium (K⁺) channels in the presynaptic neuron are blocked.
230
What is the effect of potassium channel blockage during sensitization in Aplysia?
Action potentials in the presynaptic neuron are prolonged.
231
How are calcium (Ca²⁺) channels affected during sensitization in Aplysia?
Calcium (Ca²⁺) channels in the presynaptic neuron are kept open longer.
232
How does sensitization in Aplysia affect calcium influx?
Calcium (Ca²⁺) influx increases.
233
How does sensitization in Aplysia affect neurotransmitter output?
Output of neurotransmitter from the presynaptic neuron increases.
234
How does sensitization in Aplysia affect the postsynaptic potential?
Postsynaptic potential in the efferent neuron increases.
235
What is the behavioural outcome of sensitization in Aplysia?
Enhanced behavioural response to mild stimuli.
236
What activates the synthesis of proteins needed for long-term potentiation?
Activation of specific genes that control synthesis of proteins needed for lasting structural or functional changes in pre- or postsynaptic membranes.
237
What does long-term potentiation refer to?
A prolonged increase in the strength of existing synaptic connections in activated pathways following brief periods of repetitive stimulation.
238
What are the two plausible proposals for long-term potentiation?
One involves a postsynaptic change and the other a presynaptic modification.
239
What is required for long-term potentiation to occur?
Lasting structural or functional changes in pre- or postsynaptic membranes.
240
What neurotransmitter is released from the activated presynaptic neuron during long-term potentiation?
Glutamate is released from the activated presynaptic neuron.
241
Which two receptor types does glutamate bind to on the postsynaptic membrane during long-term potentiation?
AMPA receptors and NMDA receptors.
242
What happens when glutamate binds to the AMPA receptor?
Binding opens the AMPA receptor channel, allowing sodium (Na⁺) entry into the postsynaptic neuron.
243
What is the immediate effect of sodium entry through AMPA receptor channels?
Sodium (Na⁺) influx depolarizes the postsynaptic neuron, producing an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP).
244
What is the result of multiple EPSPs from AMPA receptor activation?
Sufficient depolarization removes the magnesium (Mg²⁺) block from the NMDA receptor channel.
245
What is normally blocking the NMDA receptor channel before depolarization?
Magnesium (Mg²⁺) normally blocks the NMDA receptor channel.
246
What ions enter the postsynaptic neuron through the NMDA receptor channel once Mg²⁺ is removed?
Calcium (Ca²⁺) enters through the open NMDA receptor channel.
247
What does calcium entry through the NMDA receptor channel activate?
Calcium (Ca²⁺) activates the Ca²⁺ second-messenger pathway.
248
What does the calcium-dependent second-messenger pathway promote in the postsynaptic neuron?
It promotes insertion of additional AMPA receptors into the postsynaptic membrane, increasing sensitivity to glutamate.
249
How does the calcium-dependent second-messenger pathway affect neurotransmitter release?
It triggers the release of a retrograde paracrine messenger (likely nitric oxide) from the postsynaptic neuron.
250
What is the function of nitric oxide in long-term potentiation?
Nitric oxide diffuses back to the presynaptic neuron and stimulates long-lasting increases in glutamate release.
251
What is the main postsynaptic effect of long-term potentiation?
Increased number and sensitivity of AMPA receptors on the postsynaptic membrane, leading to a stronger synaptic response.
252
What is the main presynaptic effect of long-term potentiation?
Increased release of glutamate due to nitric-oxide feedback from the postsynaptic neuron.
253
What ion plays the central signaling role in long-term potentiation?
Calcium (Ca²⁺) — it acts as the critical second messenger.
254
What overall process does long-term potentiation represent at the cellular level?
A prolonged increase in synaptic strength following repetitive stimulation — a key mechanism for learning and memory.
255
Which receptor is responsible for calcium entry during long-term potentiation?
NMDA receptor.
256
What removes the magnesium (Mg²⁺) block from the NMDA receptor channel?
Depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane via sodium (Na⁺) influx through AMPA receptors.
257
Which second messenger initiates structural and functional synaptic changes during long-term potentiation?
Calcium (Ca²⁺).
258
Which retrograde signal increases glutamate release from the presynaptic neuron during long-term potentiation?
Nitric oxide.
259
Which receptor type increases in number on the postsynaptic membrane after long-term potentiation?
AMPA receptors.
260
What happens to synaptic strength after repetitive stimulation of a synapse?
Synaptic strength increases (long-term potentiation occurs).
261
What is the main physiological role of long-term potentiation in the nervous system?
Long-term potentiation underlies learning, memory, and long-term information storage.
262
Which part of the neuron (presynaptic or postsynaptic) releases nitric oxide during long-term potentiation?
The postsynaptic neuron releases nitric oxide as a retrograde signal.
263
Which ion’s prolonged entry triggers the second-messenger pathway in long-term potentiation?
Calcium (Ca²⁺) entering through NMDA receptors triggers the second-messenger pathway.
264
Which molecule in the postsynaptic cell increases in availability due to the second-messenger pathway?
AMPA receptors increase in availability and number in the postsynaptic membrane.
265
What does long-term memory storage require?
Long-term memory storage requires the activation of specific genes.
266
What does the activation of genes do?
Control the synthesis of proteins needed for lasting structural or functional changes at synapses.
267
What molecule binds to DNA regions called cAMP-response elements to activate genes for long-term memory consolidation?
CREB (cAMP-response element-binding protein) binds to specific DNA regions to activate genes that direct protein synthesis for long-term memory consolidation.
268
What is the function of CREB2 in memory formation?
CREB2 acts as a repressor, blocking memory-related genes and preventing protein synthesis.
269
How does the balance between CREB and CREB2 affect memory storage?
The balance between CREB activation and CREB2 inhibition ensures that only meaningful or relevant information is stored as long-term memory.
270
What type of brain changes occur with long-term memory formation?
Long-term memory formation involves permanent physical changes in the brain.
271
What structural neural changes are associated with learning and long-term memory?
Learning increases dendritic branching and promotes the formation of new synaptic connections.
272
What have studies shown about animals raised in stimulating environments compared to those in unstimulating environments?
Animals raised in stimulating environments develop more complex neural networks, showing increased synaptic growth and dendritic branching.
273
Which protein acts as an activator of gene expression necessary for long-term memory consolidation?
CREB (cAMP-response element-binding protein).
274
Which protein prevents the formation of long-term memory by repressing gene transcription?
CREB2.
275
What cellular process links short-term electrical activity to long-term structural brain changes?
Protein synthesis activated by second messengers like calcium (Ca²⁺) and regulated by CREB signaling pathways.
276
What is one way learning physically alters the brain?
Learning leads to growth of new dendritic branches and synaptic connections, strengthening communication between neurons.
277
What structure connects the left and right cerebral hemispheres, allowing them to share information and coordinate actions?
The corpus callosum connects the hemispheres and allows coordinated understanding and action.
278
Which hemisphere is most commonly dominant for fine motor control, and what is the typical result of this dominance?
The left hemisphere is most commonly dominant for fine motor control, which is why most people are right-handed.
279
What are the main strengths of the left hemisphere?
Language, logic, math, and analytical thinking, often referred to as the 'Thinker.'
280
What are the main strengths of the right hemisphere?
Spatial perception, creativity, music, holistic and emotional processing, often called the 'Creator.'
281
What is the function of Broca’s area?
Speaking ability.
282
What is the function of Wernicke’s area?
Language comprehension.
283
What are three types of language disorders?
Aphasias, Speech impediments, Dyslexia.
284
Which brain regions are involved in language?
Broca’s area and Wernicke’s area.
285
What area is damaged in Broca’s aphasia?
Broca’s area (frontal lobe, left hemisphere).
286
What is the effect of Broca’s Aphasia?
Can understand but cannot form words or speak clearly.
287
What area is damaged in Wernicke’s aphasia?
Wernicke’s area (temporal lobe, left hemisphere).
288
What is the effect of Wernicke’s aphasia?
Speech is fluent but meaningless; comprehension impaired.
289
What is dyslexia?
Abnormal connections between visual and language areas.
290
What is the effect of dyslexia?
Difficulty reading; cannot match written words to sound patterns.
291
What is a speech impediment?
Problems in the mechanical production of speech, not in language comprehension or expression.
292
What causes speech impediments?
Weakness or poor coordination of muscles controlling the vocal apparatus.
293
What is the key difference between speech impediments and language disorders?
Speech impediments are motor speech issues, not due to cortical damage.
294
What are the two language areas of the brain?
Broca’s and Wernicke’s.
295
Where are Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas located?
Mainly in the left hemisphere.
296
What happens if the left hemisphere is damaged before age 2?
The right hemisphere can take over language functions with little delay.
297
What happens if damage occurs before age 10?
Recovery is still possible after a temporary loss.
298
What happens if damage occurs after the early teens?
Damage leads to permanent language impairment, and the brain becomes less plastic.
299
How does brain adaptability change with age?
The brain’s adaptability declines as language regions become fixed with age.
300
What is the function of the primary visual cortex?
Perceives sight — receives visual information such as written words.
301
What is the function of the primary auditory cortex?
Perceives sound — receives auditory information such as spoken words.
302
What is the function of the angular gyrus (of the parietal–temporal–occipital association cortex)?
Integrates sensory input from sight, sound, and touch.
303
What is the function of Wernicke’s area?
Plans the content of spoken words — where the choice and sequence of words are formulated.
304
What is the function of Broca’s area?
Programs sound patterns of speech — translates formulated words into a programmed sound pattern.
305
What is the function of the primary motor cortex?
Commands facial and tongue muscles to speak the words.
306
What happens when speaking about something seen?
Information is transferred from the primary visual cortex → angular gyrus, which integrates sensory input, then sent to Wernicke’s area for language formulation.
307
What happens when speaking about something heard?
Information is transferred from the primary auditory cortex → angular gyrus, then to Wernicke’s area to plan the content of speech.
308
How is the speech message finalized for speaking?
Wernicke’s area transmits the message to Broca’s area, which sends it to the primary motor cortex to activate the muscles needed for speech.
309
Which area of the brain plans the content of spoken words?
Wernicke’s area.
310
Damage to which area would result in inability to form words but preserved understanding?
Broca’s area.
311
How much of the cerebral cortex is used for motor, sensory, and language functions?
Only about half of the cerebral cortex.
312
What are association areas of the brain?
Regions that integrate information from different sensory modalities.
313
Which area of the brain plans the content of spoken words?
Wernicke’s area
314
Damage to which area would result in inability to form words but preserved understanding?
Broca’s area
315
What are association areas of the cerebral cortex responsible for?
They handle higher brain functions such as thinking, planning, and integrating information.
316
What are the three main types of association areas?
1️⃣ Prefrontal association cortex – responsible for decision-making and personality.
2️⃣ Parietal–temporal–occipital association cortex – responsible for combining sensory input and language.
3️⃣ Limbic association cortex – responsible for emotion and memory.
317
What is the function of the prefrontal association cortex?
Involved in decision-making and personality.
318
What is the function of the parietal–temporal–occipital association cortex?
Combines sensory input from different regions and integrates it with language.
319
What is the function of the limbic association cortex?
Responsible for emotion and memory.
320
What is the correct order of cortical processing from sensory input to motor output?
1️⃣ Sensory input
2️⃣ Primary sensory areas
3️⃣ Higher sensory areas
4️⃣ Association areas
5️⃣ Higher motor areas
6️⃣ Primary motor cortex
7️⃣ Motor output
321
What happens at the sensory input stage?
Information is relayed from afferent neuronal receptors.
322
What occurs in the primary sensory areas (somatosensory, primary visual, and primary auditory cortices)?
Initial cortical processing of specific sensory input.
323
What is the function of the higher sensory areas?
Further elaboration and processing of specific sensory input.
324
What happens in the association areas?
Integration, storage, and use of diverse sensory input for planning of purposeful action.
325
What occurs in the higher motor areas?
Programming of movement sequences based on the diverse information provided.
326
What is the function of the primary motor cortex?
Commands motor neurons to initiate voluntary movement, which is relayed through efferent neurons to skeletal muscles.
327
What is the final stage, motor output, responsible for?
Carrying out the desired action through skeletal muscle contraction.
328
What does consciousness refer to?
Consciousness refers to subjective awareness of the external world and self.
329
What part of the brain is the final level of awareness?
The cerebral cortex.
330
What role does the thalamus play in consciousness?
The thalamus detects a crude sense of awareness.
331
What does conscious experience depend on?
Integrated activity across many parts of the nervous system.
332
What effect does strong sensory input have on the brain?
It stimulates the reticular activating system (RAS), which increases brain activity → causing full alertness and attention.
333
What are the states of consciousness in decreasing order of arousal level?
1️⃣ Maximum alertness
2️⃣ Wakefulness
3️⃣ Sleep (stages 1–4 and paradoxical/REM sleep)
4️⃣ Coma (total unresponsiveness due to brain-stem damage affecting RAS or widespread cortical depression, e.g., oxygen deprivation)
334
Where does integration and planning of movement occur?
Association areas
335
Where is movement initiated?
Primary motor cortex
336
Where is sensory input first processed?
Primary sensory areas
337
What is the function of primary sensory areas?
Initial processing of input
338
What is the function of higher sensory areas?
Further analysis and elaboration
339
What is the function of association areas?
Integration and planning
340
What is the function of primary motor cortex?
Command initiation
341
What is the function of motor output?
Action execution
342
What is the function of higher motor areas?
Movement programming
343
What is the correct sequence of cortical processing from sensory input to motor output?
1️⃣ Sensory input
2️⃣ Primary sensory areas
3️⃣ Higher sensory areas
4️⃣ Association areas
5️⃣ Higher motor areas
6️⃣ Primary motor cortex
7️⃣ Motor output
344
What happens at the Sensory Input stage?
Sensory information is relayed from afferent neuronal receptors.
345
What is the function of the Primary Sensory Areas?
Responsible for the initial cortical processing of specific sensory input (e.g., somatosensory, visual, auditory).
346
What occurs in the Higher Sensory Areas?
Further elaboration and processing of specific sensory input for more complex interpretation.
347
What is the role of the Association Areas?
Integration, storage, and use of diverse sensory input for planning purposeful actions.
348
What happens in the Higher Motor Areas?
Responsible for programming sequences of movement based on the integrated information from the association areas.
349
What is the function of the Primary Motor Cortex?
Commands motor neurons to initiate voluntary movement; signals are relayed through efferent neurons to skeletal muscles.
350
What does the Motor Output stage involve?
Execution of the desired action — skeletal muscles carry out the movement directed by the brain.
351
Who initiates sleep, and who benefits from it?
Sleep is initiated by the brain and functions for the brain.
352
Is sleep accompanied by increased or decreased neural activity?
Sleep is not accompanied by a reduction in neural activity — in some stages, oxygen uptake is higher than during wakefulness.
353
What physiological processes decrease during sleep?
Reaction to external stimuli ↓
Voluntary movement ↓
Catabolism ↓ (breakdown processes slow down)
354
What physiological process increases during sleep?
Anabolism ↑ — restorative processes like tissue repair and growth increase.
355
What are the leading theories for why we need sleep?
Restoration and recovery
Memory consolidation
356
What are the two types of sleep?
Slow-wave sleep (NREM; delta-wave)
Paradoxical sleep (REM)
357
During which type of sleep is the body physically rested, and which type is linked to dreaming?
Slow-wave (NREM) → physical rest
Paradoxical (REM) → dreaming and brain activity
358
What type of EEG waves are seen when awake with eyes open?
High frequency, low amplitude.
359
What is the mental state when awake with eyes open?
Fully alert and aware of surroundings.
360
What happens to EEG frequency and amplitude when a person closes their eyes and relaxes (awake but eyes closed)?
Frequency decreases slightly; amplitude increases.
361
What characterizes Stage 1 of slow-wave sleep (light sleep)?
Slightly decreased frequency, slightly increased amplitude; minor reductions in heart rate and respiration; rare dreaming.
362
What characterizes Stage 2 of slow-wave sleep?
Generally slow waves with short bursts (sleep spindles, K-complexes); minor reductions in heart rate and respiration; easily awakened.
363
What characterizes Stages 3–4 of slow-wave sleep (deep sleep)?
Very low frequency, high amplitude waves; deepest stage of slow-wave sleep; hardest to awaken.
364
What percentage of total sleep is spent in slow-wave (NREM) sleep?
About 80%.
365
What characterizes paradoxical (REM) sleep EEG activity?
Fast, mixed-frequency, low-amplitude pattern similar to being awake.
366
What happens to muscle tone during paradoxical (REM) sleep?
Abrupt inhibition of muscle tone; no body movement.
367
Are heart rate and respiration regular or irregular during paradoxical (REM) sleep?
Irregular.
368
Is dreaming common during paradoxical (REM) sleep?
Yes — vivid, emotional, and accepted as real.
369
What percentage of sleep time is paradoxical (REM) sleep?
About 20%.
370
What happens to arousal during paradoxical (REM) sleep?
Hard to arouse but may wake up spontaneously.
371
What is the key distinguishing feature of paradoxical (REM) sleep?
Rapid eye movements and EEG resembling wakefulness.
372
What are the two types of sleep?
Slow-wave (non-REM) and paradoxical (REM).
373
How many stages occur in non-REM sleep, and what do they range from?
Four stages, ranging from light sleep (Stage 1) to deep sleep (Stage 4).
374
What characterizes REM sleep?
Rapid eye movements.
375
How do EEG waves change across the stages of non-REM sleep?
Each stage shows a progressively lower frequency of EEG waves but higher amplitude.
376
During REM sleep, what happens to the EEG pattern?
It abruptly becomes similar to that of a wide-awake, alert individual.
377
Describe muscle tone and movement in non-REM sleep.
Considerable muscle tone; frequent shifting.
378
Describe muscle tone and movement in REM sleep.
Abrupt inhibition of muscle tone; no movement.
379
How do heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure differ between non-REM and REM sleep?
Non-REM: only minor reductions.
REM: irregular.
380
How does dreaming differ between non-REM and REM sleep?
Non-REM: rarely dreams.
REM: dreaming is common, vivid, emotional, and bizarre.
381
During which type of sleep is the sleeper easily awakened?
Non-REM sleep.
382
During which type of sleep is the sleeper hard to arouse but may wake spontaneously?
REM sleep.
383
What percentage of total sleep is non-REM and what percentage is REM?
80% non-REM and 20% REM.
384
During which stages do nightmares, sleepwalking, and sleep-talking occur?
During stages 3 and 4 of non-REM sleep.
385
Which brain areas become highly active during REM sleep?
The occipital cortex (visual areas) and emotional centers of the limbic system, including the amygdala.
386
Which brain area becomes less active during REM sleep?
The prefrontal cortex (reasoning area).
387
How are dreams during REM described?
Vivid, emotional, often bizarre, and temporarily accepted as real because logical reasoning is reduced.
388
How does slow-wave and REM sleep change with age?
Both REM and stage 4 slow-wave sleep decline in the elderly.
389
Which age group spends more time in non-REM sleep?
Infants.
390
How does total sleep time affect time spent in different stages of slow-wave sleep?
Those who require less total sleep spend more time in lighter stages and less time in deep (stages 3 & 4) sleep.
