Chapter 46 Flashcards

(218 cards)

1
Q

What are the three main types of skeletal systems in animals?

A

hydrostatic skeletons; exoskeletons; endoskeletons

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2
Q

Where are hydrostatic skeletons found primarily? (3)

A

in soft-bodied terrestrial invertebrates; soft-bodied aquatic invertebrates; squids

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3
Q

Give two examples of soft-bodied terrestrial invertebrates.

A

earthworms; slugs

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4
Q

Give an example of a soft-bodied aquatic invertebrate.

A

jellyfish

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5
Q

The fluid-filled central cavity of animals bearing hydrostatic skeletons is supported by what two muscles?

A

circular muscles; longitudinal muscles

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6
Q

What are circular muscles?

A

muscles repeated in segments and run the length of the body

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7
Q

What are longitudinal muscles?

A

muscles that oppose the action of the circular muscles

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8
Q

Which muscles oppose the action of circular muscles?

A

longitudinal muscles

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9
Q

Describe the locomotion process in earthworms.

A

anterior circular muscles contract as locomotion begins; this presses on inner fluid; front of body is forced to become thin as the body wall extends forward

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10
Q

What are chaetae?

A

short, bristle-like structures found on the underside of a worm’s body

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11
Q

What happens to chaetae as circular muscles act?

A

as circular muscles act, the chaetae are pulled up close to the body and lose contact with the ground, which results in a backward wave of contraction

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12
Q

As the backward wave of contraction in worms continues, what happens?

A

anterior circular muscles relax and longitudinal muscles take over which allows chaetae to re-establish contact with the ground

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13
Q

Why is chaetae re-gaining contact with the ground important?

A

it prevents that body section from slipping backwards

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14
Q

In essence, in worms, what is the order of muscle contraction for body movement?

A

locomotion proceeds as waves of circular muscle contractions are followed by waves of longitudinal muscle effects

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15
Q

What are exoskeletons?

A

rigid, hard case that surrounds the body

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16
Q

Arthropod exoskeletons are made of

A

chitin

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17
Q

Other than in arthropod exoskeletons, where can chitin be found?

A

in the cell walls of fungi and protists

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18
Q

What acts as the skeletal framework for arthropod?

A

the chitinous exoskeleton

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19
Q

In order to grow, what must an arthropod do to its exoskeleton?

A

molt it periodically

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20
Q

Molting gives exoskeleton-bearing organisms the disadvantage of

A

being vulnerable whenever they molt their exoskeleton

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21
Q

What are limitations of exoskeletons? (3)

A

chitinous framework isn’t as strong as a bony one; ratio between SA of tubules and volume of body overwhelms respiratory system; muscles are confined in size/power

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22
Q

In what organisms are endoskeletons found? (2)

A

vertebrates; echinoderms

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23
Q

Give two examples of echinoderms.

A

sea urchins; sand dollars

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24
Q

Echinoderms have skeletons made of

A

calcite (crystalline form of calcium carbonate)

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25
Give an example of an animal that has a totally cartilaginous skeleton.
sharks
26
Differentiate between chitin and bone/cartilage.
bone/cartilage are living tissues
27
T/F: Bone and cartilage can change and remodel themselves in response to injury or stress.
Yes, bone can do so, and to a lesser extent, so can cartilage
28
What is the main component in vertebrate skeletons?
bone
29
When did bone first appear?
520 million years ago
30
Bone is found in all vertebrates except
cartilaginous fishes
31
In intramembranous development, bones form
within a layer of connective tissue
32
Give examples of intramembranous mones in the human body. (2)
exterior of skull; jaw
33
During embryonic development, the dermis is formed largely of (2)
mesechyme; collagen fibers
34
What is mesenchyme?
loose tissue consisting of undifferentiated mesenchyme cells + other related cells
35
Undifferentiated mesenchyme cells differentiate to become (in the context of bone development)
osteoblasts
36
Osteoblasts are derived from
undifferentiated mesenchyme cells
37
How do osteoblasts arrange themselves?
arrange themselves along collagenous fibers and begin to secrete the enzyme alkaline phosphatase
38
What is hydroxyapatite?
a crystalline configuration of calcium phosphate salts resulting from the secretion of alkaline phosphatase
39
What does the enzyme alkaline phosphatase do?
promotes the creation of hydroxyapatite
40
Undifferentiated mesenchyme cells can differentiate to become what three types of cells?
fibroblasts; chondroblasts; osteoblasts
41
Fibroblasts differentiate to become
collagen (fibrous tissue)
42
Chondroblasts differentiate to become
chondrocytes
43
Osteoblasts differentiate to become
osteocytes
44
Osteocytes differentiate to become
osteoclasts
45
What are chondrocytes?
cartilage cells
46
When does an osteoblast become an osteocyte?
if it becomes trapped in the bone matrix it is constructing, it becomes an osteocyte (bone cell)
47
Osteocytes reside in spaces called
lacunae
48
What are osteoclasts?
bone-removing cells
49
Where are osteoclasts derived from?
fusion of monocytes (white blood cells)
50
Describe the relative amounts of collagen and hydroxyapatite in bone.
bone contains roughly equal volumes of collagen and hydroxyapatite
51
What percentage of bone weight is made up of hydroxyapatite?
about 65%
52
What are canaliculi?
canals extending from lacunae
53
What cells live in lacunae?
osteocytes
54
What is the purpose of canaliculi?
promote intercellular communication because the starburst-like extensions of each osteocyte contact their neighbors
55
T/F: osteoclasts are mononucleate cells.
FALSE, osteoclasts are multi-nucleate cells
56
Where can endochondrally-developed bones be found in the body?
found deeper in the body because they form the body's architectural framework
57
Give examples of endochondrally-developed bones. (6)
vertebrae; ribs; shoulder bones; pelvis bones; long bones of limbs; internal skull bones
58
Endochondral bones begin as
tiny, cartilaginous models that have the rough shape of bones
59
Bone added to the outside of the model is produced
in the fibrous sheath that envelopes the cartilage
60
Describe the fibrous sheath that envelopes the cartilage and adds bone to the outside of the model. (3)
tough; made of collagen fibers; contains undifferentiated mesenchyme cells
61
What do osteoblasts do in the fibrous sheath that envelopes the cartilage and adds bone to the outside of the model? (2)
osteoblasts arise from the undifferentiated mesenchyme and sort themselves along the fibers in the deepest part of the sheath; bone forms between sheath and cartilaginous matrix
62
As outer bone is formed, what happens to interior cartilage?
interior cartilage begins to calcify
63
What is the calcium source for the calcification of interior cartilage as outer bone forms?
the calcium source is the cartilage cells themselves because the cartilaginous tissue breaks down
64
What is the periosteum?
blood vessels from the sheath
65
How does growth in bone thickness occur?
by adding additional bone layers just beneath the periosteum
66
The mammalian humerus is formed of
a slender shaft with widened ends, called epiphyses
67
What are epiphyses?
widened ends found on bones like the mammalian humerus
68
What are found within the epiphyses?
epiphyseal growth plates, which separate the epiphyses from the shaft itself
69
As long as the bone is growing, epiphyseal growth plates are composed of
cartilage
70
How are epiphyseal growth plates involved in bone elongation? (3)
during growth of long bone, cartilage of growth plates actively grows in lengthwise direction to thicken plate; growth pushes epiphyses farther away from shaft; cartilage calcification encroaches onto growth plate so that bony portion of shaft elongates
71
Growth in bone length in humans usually ceases by
late adolescence
72
T/F: growth in bone width is ceased after puberty.
False, growth in width still occurs by bone addition beneath the periosteum
73
What are vascular bones?
endochondral bones that retain internal blood vessels after completing development
74
Vascular bone is found in what non-mammalian species? (2)
reptiles; amphibians
75
Cellular bones contain
osteocytes
76
T/F: cellular bones can also be vascular.
true, cellular bones can be vascular
77
T/F: cellular bones are metabolically inactive
false, cellular bones are metabolically active
78
Avascular bones are found in what species? (2)
fish; birds
79
Describe avascular bone. (3)
does not contain osteocytes; fairly inert; surface periosteum can repair bone with mesenchyme cells
80
What is another name for avascular bone?
acellular bone
81
Bones like the endochondral long bones contain a cavity called
the medullary cavity
82
Where is the medullary cavity found?
bones like the endochondral long bones
83
In many vertebrates, the medullary cavity contains
bone marrow, which is important for manufacturing red and white blood cells
84
If the medullary cavity contains red/white blood cells, it is called the
marrow cavity
85
Give an example of species whose medullary cavity does not contain marrow.
Light-boned birds
86
T/F: all medullary cavities contain marrow.
False, not all medullary cavities contain marrow
87
How do birds produce red blood cells if their medullary cavities don't contain marrow?
they depend on stem cells to produce RBCs
88
Bone falls into what three categories?
compact bone; medullary bone; spongy bone
89
Where is compact bone found?
outer surface
90
Where is medullary bone found?
medullary cavities
91
Describe spongy bone.
honeycomb structure; typically forms the epiphyses inside a thick shell of compact bone
92
Which two types of bone contribute to bone strength?
compact and spongy bone
93
Medullary cavities are lined with thin tissues called
the endosteum
94
What is the endosteum?
thin tissue that lines the medullary cavities that doesn't contain collagen fibers but does contain other stuff like mesenchyme cells
95
Vascular bone has a special internal organization called
the Haversian system
96
Endochondral bone is constructed of concentric layers called
Haversian lamellae
97
Where are Haversian lamellae found?
beneath the outer basic layers
98
What are Haversian canals?
narrow channels that contain concentric tubes
99
Haversian canals may contain
nerve fibers
100
Haversian canals always contain
blood vessels that keep osteocytes alive even though they're stuck in the bony matrix
101
What kind of blood vessels can be found in the Haversian canals? (3)
arterioles; venules; capillaries
102
What are Sharpey's fibers?
collagen fibers that connect periosteum to bone
103
T/F: exercise and frequent muscle use can not only alter muscles, but can alter blood vessels, strengthen skeletal frame, etc.
true
104
T/F: remodeling occurs only in some bones
false, remodeling is known for all bones
105
Bone remodeling can be considered as what kind of feedback system, and why?
negative feedback system, because stress promotes thicker bones, which reduce the amount of stress that can affect itself, which reduces the need for thickness
106
What are the effects of osteoporosis?
loss of bone mineral density
107
Osteoporosis primarily affects
postmenopausal women
108
What is a treatment for osteoporosis?
weight-lifting, which stimulates bone deposition
109
What is another name for joints?
articulations
110
What is another name for articulations?
joints
111
What are the four basic joint movement patterns?
ball-and-socket; hinge; gliding; combination
112
Give an example of a ball-and-socket joint.
the hip: the upper leg bone forms the ball and the pelvis is the socket
113
Describe the movement of the ball-and-socket joint.
can perform universal movement in all directions, plus twisting of the ball
114
What is the simplest type of joint?
hinge joint
115
Give an example of a hinge joint.
knee
116
The knee is what kind of joint?
hinge joint
117
Describe the movement of the hinge joint.
restricted to rotate forward or backward, but not side-to-side
118
Where can gliding joints be found? (2)
found in skulls of some nonmammalian vertebrates; found in lateral vertebral projections of vertebrates including mammals
119
Describe the gliding joint in vertebral projections.
the projections can slip along the undersurface of the posterior projection, which gives stability and flexibility to the vertebral column
120
What are combination joints?
joints that have characteristics of two or more joint types
121
Give an example of a mammalian combination joint.
the mammalian jaw, which allows both rotation and side-to-side sliding
122
What are the two means of bone attachment?
muscle fibers may connect directly to the periosteum; sheets of muscle may be connected to bone by a tendon
123
What is a tendon?
dense connective tissue cord that attaches to the periosteum
124
The origin of muscle attachment remains
relatively stationary during a contraction
125
What is the opposite end of the origin of muscle attachment?
insertion
126
The quadriceps muscles counter the movement of which muscles?
leg flexor muscles (hamstrings)
127
Each muscle contains a bundle
of 4 to 20 elongated structures called myofibrils
128
Each myofibril contains
thick and thin myofilaments
129
Describe the hierarchy of muscle structures.
skeletal muscle > muscle fibers > muscle fiber cell > myofibril > myofilaments
130
Describe the appearance of myofilaments under a microscope.
they have alternating light and dark bands
131
What gives skeletal muscle fibers their striped appearance?
the alternating light and dark bands of myofibrils
132
What are A bands?
thick myofilaments stacked together that produce the dark bands
133
Thick myofilaments stack together to produce
dark bands called A bands
134
Thin filaments are found in
the light bands called I bands
135
I bands contain
thin filaments
136
Each I band in a myofibril is divided
in half by a protein disk called the Z lin
137
What is the Z line?
protein disk that divides the I band in myofibrils in half
138
What is anchored to Z lines?
thin filaments
139
What is a sarcomere?
the repeating unit from Z line to Z line
140
What is the smallest unit of muscle contraction?
the sarcomere
141
The sarcomere is the smallest
unit of muscle contraction
142
What is the name for the center of the A band?
the H band
143
What is the H band?
the center of the A band
144
Draw out the structure of a repeating sarcomere in relaxed and contracted muscles.
pg. 970 in book
145
Describe the placement of the thick/thin filaments relative to the A band in relaxed and contracted muscles.
in a relaxed muscle, the thick and thin filaments are on either side of the A band but don't extend all the way to the center; in a contracted muscle, the thick and thin filaments overlap on each side of the A band
146
Describe the color of the H band.
lighter than the areas on each side of the A band
147
T/F: myofilaments shorten during contraction.
FALSE, they don't shorten, the thick and thin filaments slide relative to each other
148
What happens to the H band during maximal contraction?
the H band disappears entirely
149
What happens to the I bands during contraction?
I bands become narrower
150
What happens to the Z line during contraction?
Z lines are brought closer together
151
Each thick filament is composed of
many subunits of myosin packed together
152
The myosin protein is composed of
two subunits, each shaped like a golf club that twist around each other
153
Each thin filament is composed of
actin proteins arranged into two fibers twisted into a double helix
154
Myosin is a member of what class of protein?
motor proteins
155
What do motor proteins do?
convert chemical energy in ATP into mechanical energy
156
What cycle converts chemical energy in ATP into mechanical energy?
the cross-bridge cycle
157
What is an individual cross-bridge?
link between a myosin head and an actin molecule
158
Describe the cross-bridge cycle. (6)
myosin hydrolyzes ATP into ADP+Pi; ADP+Pi remain bound to myosin head which is now energized; myosin binds to actin to form cross-bridge and releases Pi; myosin pulls thin filament towards center of sarcomere in the power stroke; ADP is lost; myosin binds to a new molecule of ATP and is displaced from actin
159
What is the power-stroke? (2)
when the myosin head pulls the thin filament towards the center of the sarcomere; also when it returns to its original conformation and releases Pi+ADP
160
What happens in rigor mortis?
the cell can't produce any ATP and therefore the cross-bridge cycle isn't broken, which causes muscle stiffness
161
Describe a relaxed muscle in the context of myosin, ADP, and Pi.
the myosin heads are in the activated conformation bound to ADP and Pi but are unable to bind to actin because the binding site is blocked
162
What blocks the myosin-actin binding site on the actin molecule?
tropomyosin
163
Tropomyosin is what type of filament?
thin filament
164
What is troponin?
a regulatory protein complex that holds tropomyosin and actin together
165
What does tropomyosin do?
blocks the myosin-actin binding site
166
The regulatory interactions between troponin and tropomyosin are controlled by
Ca2+ concentrations in the muscle fiber cytoplasm
167
Describe tropomyosin when Ca2+ levels are low.
When Ca2+ levels are low, tropomyosin inhibits cross-bridge formation
168
Describe tropomyosin when Ca2+ levels are high.
Ca2+ binds to troponin, which alters its conformation and moves the troponin-tropomyosin complex, which exposes the myosin-actin binding site
169
Where do muscle fibers store Ca2+?
sarcoplasmic reticulum
170
What is the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
a modified endoplasmic reticulum that stores Ca2+ in muscle fibers
171
What happens to a muscle fiber membrane when the muscle fiber is stimulated to contract?
the muscle fiber membrane becomes depolarized
172
What are transverse tubules?
invaginations of the cell membrane that transmit muscle fiber depolarizations to the SR
173
Depolarization of the T tubules causes
the SR to release Ca2+, which diffuses into the myofibrils and binds to troponin, allowing contraction
174
The involvement of Ca2+ in muscle contraction is called
excitation-contraction coupling
175
Motor neurons that stimulate skeletal muscles are called
somatic motor neurons
176
The synapses between neurons and muscle cells are called
neuromuscular junctions
177
T/F: each human muscle fiber has only a single synapse with a branch of an axon.
true
178
What is the neurotransmitter used for muscle contraction?
acetylcholine
179
How does the Ca2+ return to the SR?
via a membrane protein using energy from ATP hydrolysis in active transport fashion
180
What is a motor unit?
set of muscle fibers innervated by all the axonal branches of a motor neuron, including the motor neuron itself
181
Why is the division of muscle into motor units advantageous?
allows a finer degree of control
182
What is recruitment?
cumulative increase of numbers and sizes of motor units to produce a stronger contraction
183
What is summation?
cumulative response of an electric shock after another electric shock of a muscle
184
What is tetanus?
sustained contraction
185
Skeletal muscle fibers can be divided on the basis of their contraction speed into
slow-twitch and fast-twitch fibers
186
Give an example of a human fast-twitch fiber.
muscles in the eye
187
Give an example of a human slow-twitch fiber.
soleus muscle in the leg
188
Describe slow-twitch fibers. (4)
rich capillary supply; numerous mitochondria; numerous aerobic respiratory enzymes; high concentration of myoglobin
189
Which protein is abundant in slow-twitch fibers?
myoglobin
190
Myoglobin is abundant in which fiber?
slow-twitch fibers
191
What is the color of myoglobin?
red
192
What is another name for slow-twitch fibers
red fibers
193
Which fiber can sustain action of a long period of time without fatigue?
slow-twitch fibers
194
Describe fast-twitch fibers. (5)
fewer capillaries; fewer mitochondria; not much myoglobin; high glycogen content; many glycolytic enzymes
195
What is another name for fast-twitch fibers?
white fibers
196
How do fast-twitch fibers respire?
anaerobically
197
Skeletal muscles at rest obtain most of their energy from
the aerobic respiration of fatty acids
198
In what time period to skeletal muscles respire anaerobically?
for the first 45 to 90 seconds of moderate-to-heavy exercise
199
What is aerobic capacity?
maximum rate of oxygen consumption in the body
200
What is muscle fatigue?
use-dependent decrease in the ability of a muscle to generate force
201
Short-term fatigue has been shown to occur because of
a buildup of Pi from the breakdown of creatine phosphate
202
Long-term fatigue has been shown to occur because of
depletion of glycogen
203
What adaptation improves physical endurance?
any adaptation that spares the use of muscle glycogen
204
Does endurance training increase muscle size?
no, endurance training does not increase muscle size
205
When is muscle enlargement produced?
by frequent periods of high-intensity exercise like weight-lifting
206
What is another name for type I muscle fibers?
slow-twitch fibers
207
What is another name for type II muscle fibers?
fast-twitch fibers
208
What is hypertrophy?
increased cell size
209
Resistance training increases
the thickness of fast-twitch fibers (muscles don't grow by cell division)
210
Locomotion requires what two mechanisms?
propulsive mechanism and control mechanism
211
What is appendicular locomotion?
locomotion that is produced by appendages that oscillate
212
What is axial locomotion?
bodies that undulate, pulse, or undergo peristaltic waves
213
Large animals undergo what two types of locomotion?
appendicular or axial locomotion
214
How does aquatic mammal locomotion differ from fish locomotion?
waves pass from top to bottom instead of side to side
215
What is another name for top-to-bottom flexing?
dorsoventral flexing
216
How do mollusks locomote?
by secreting a mucus that they glide along using a muscular foot
217
How many times has convergent evolution of flying occurred?
4 times - 1 in insects, 3 in vertebrates
218
Describe air pressure around a wing.
top of the wing has lower pressure, bottom of the wing has higher pressure