Chapter 9-12 Flashcards by Jared jericho

All new boilers, and boilers which have been repaired on their pressure parts, require a _____ to be performed upon them.

A) acidifying
B) descaling
C) hydrostatic test
D) refractory dry out
E) soot blowing

C) hydrostatic test

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On small boilers, a hydrostatic test is done with:

A) compressed nitrogen
B) water pressure
C) steam pressure
D) compressed air
E) acetic acid

B) water pressure

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When a hydrostatic test is done on a boiler, the pressure shall be under control at all times, so that the required test pressure is never exceeded by more than:

A) 0.1
B) 0.06
C) 0.05
D) 0.04
E) 0

C) 0.05

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All traces of oil or grease must be removed from a boiler by boiling out with:

A) a suitable acid
B) hot water
C) a suitable alkali
D) a suitable solvent
E) sodium sulphite and hydrazine

C) a suitable alkali

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After construction of the boiler setting, the refractories will contain a considerable amount moisture. Referring to this situation, which of the following statements are correct?
1) the refractories should be dried out as fast as possible
2) the refractories should be dried slowly
3) if the refractories are dried too slowly, large cracks will appear
4) if the refractories are dried too quickly, the refractories will crack

A) 1,3
B) 2,4
C) 1
D) 2
E) 3

B) 2,4

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An alkaline boilout is used on a boiler:

A) when the boiler has had oil contamination
B) before overhauls
C) after an acid clean
D) before returning the boiler to service after an overhaul
E) after an acid clean

A) when the boiler has had oil contamination

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_____ storage is preferable for boilers that are out of service for an extended period of time or in locations where freezing temperatures.

A) dry
B) short
C) wet
D) long

A) dry

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Moisture absorbing materials should be placed on trays inside the drums to absorb moisture from the _____.

A) metal
B) tubes
C) air
D) fuel

C) air

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Inert gas, such as nitrogen, is connected to the drum vent to maintain approximately _____ kPa. Positive pressure.

A) 100
B) 35
C) 325
D) 500

B) 35

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Wet storage is used if the standby boiler may be required for service at _____ notice.

A) dry
B) short
C) wet
D) long

B) short

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Oxen scavengers are added to water to increase the _____ and to absorb any oxygen present in the feedwater.

A) pH
B) solids
C) alkalinity
D) conductivity

C) alkalinity

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The _____ valve on the shut down boiler will close when the Boiler pressure drops below the header pressure.

A) fuel
B) feedwater
C) header
D) non return

D) non return

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When the pressure in the boiler steam drum drops to _____ kPa, the drum vents are to be opened to avoid the formation of a vacuum within the boiler.

A) 170
B) 500
C) 5
D) 1000

A) 170

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The fireside of the boiler is cleaned of all dust and soot by washing with a hot _____ solution of water.

A) acidic
B) alkaline
C) caustic
D) soapy

B) alkaline

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The waterside of the boiler is not washed until the _____ has examined and determined the amount of sludge and scale present.

A) manager
B) worker
C) inspector
D) owner

C) inspector

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During the high pressure flush, the blowdown valves should be disconnected, if possible, to prevent them fro getting plugged with _____.

A) water
B) rust
C) dirt
D) scale

D) scale

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When examining waterside surfaces, the inspector looks for signs of corrosion, pitting, and _____ of the metal.

A) bulging
B) blisters
C) cracking
D) wearing

C) cracking

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_____ is the result of dissolved oil or oxygen in the feedwater.

A) scale
B) pitting
C) cracking
D) bulging

B) pitting

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When inspecting the fireside of the boiler, the tube and drum surfaces are examined for bulges or blisters, which indicate _____.

A) drying
B) drafting
C) overheating
D) underheating

C) overheating

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Refractory and brickwork of the burners, baffles, and furnace walls are checked for _____.

A) cracks
B) discoloring
C) melting
D) deterioration

D) deterioration

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The dampers and air registers ar checked for _____ and to ensure they move freely.

A) holes
B) dust
C) warpage
D) design

C) warpage

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When performing an internal inspection of a boiler, examine the waterside through all the handhole doors for:

A) tube pitting
B) carbon deposits
C) moisture
D) process contamination
E) small salt traces

A) tube pitting

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After an acid clean on a boiler, the boiler is flushed with an alkaline solution such as:

A) lime
B) citrus
C) molybdenum
D) soda ash
E) caustic soda

D) soda ash

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Internal boiler cleaning is usually preceded by:

A) a hydrostatic test
B) an internal inspection
C) an external inspection
D) an overhaul
E) retubing

B) an internal inspection

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529. The frequency of internal boiler cleaning depends on: 1) feedwater quality 2) operating schedule 3) operating condition 4) water treatment control ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 1,3,4 C) 2,3,4 D) 1,2,3,4 E) 1,2,4 ```

D) 1,2,3,4

530. When mechanically cleaning a boiler, the boiler must be: ``` A) at full load B) at half load C) at minimum load D) off the line E) at 60% load ```

D) off the line

531. _____ is carried out to remove scale that has been allowed to build up on the waterside of boilers. ``` A) soot blowing B) swaging C) pressure rolling D) acidizing E) expanding ```

D) acidizing

532. The main concern of the _____ _____ is to operate the boiler safely and efficiently. A) power engineer B) maintenance manager C) boiler inspector D) plant manager

A) power engineer

533. Heating surfaces must be _____ to ensure maximum heat transfer to the water and steam in the boiler. A) large B) clean C) contacted D) free

B) clean

534. In order for the gauge glass to show the correct level, all connections to the gauge glass and the water column must be_____ to ensure they are clear and free from obstructions. A) tight B) purged C) blown down D) unblocked

C) blown down

535. If the water column is fitted with high and low water alarms, then their operation is checked at regular intervals. A) true B) false

A) true

536. The boiler operators must be familiar with the _____ for starting up the standby feed pump and stopping the in service pump. A) procedure B) schedule C) boiler D) deaerator

A) procedure

537. In order to avoid scale formation and corrosion in the _____, the make up water for the feedwater supply must be properly treated. A) deaerator B) boiler C) furnace D) tank

B) boiler

538. The operator must be familiar with manual operation of the _____ system, in case of a system failure. A) generator B) water C) control D) air

C) control

539. All boilers should be bottom blown, at least once a day. This is done to remove _____ that has accumulated in the bottom drum. A) scale B) water C) alkalinity D) sludge

D) sludge

540. The operator should make a general inspection of the entire plant every _____ hours. A) two B) three C) four D) six

A) two

541. Furnace explosions occur when an accumulation of combustible gases ignite and explode within the furnace, or gas passes of the boiler. A) true B) false

A) true

542. _____ explosions occur when a pressure part of the boiler, such as the steam drum, fails due to steam pressure, or a structural weakening of the metal. A) furnace B) pressure C) gas D) water

B) pressure

543. List five of the most common causes of furnace explosions: 1) failure to purge the furnace adequately before startup 2) admission of fuel to main burner before pilot flame or other ignition source is established 3) loss of ID fan 4) the main flame in the furnace may get blown out 5) loss of FD fan 6) attempting to light one burner off other burners in operation 7) incorrect amount of air supplied to the burner, resulting in incomplete combustion ``` A) 3,4,5,6,7 B) 1,2,3,6,7 C) 1,2,3,4,5 D) 1,2,4,6,7 E) 1,3,4,6,7 ```

D) 1,2,4,6,7

544. List the two major causes of pressure explosions: 1) pressure in excess of that for which he Boiler was designed 2) poor quality feedwater 3) weakening of the material to an extant that the pressure part fails 4) poor fuel quality 5) non specification boiler materials ``` A) 1,5 B) 1,3 C) 1,2 D) 1,4 E) 3,5 ```

B) 1,3

545. Furnace explosions are caused by: 1) failing to supply sufficient air to the furnace when boiler is lit 2) failing to purge furnace properly 3) relighting burners off hot refractory 4) maintaining efficient igniters and pilots 5) installing flame sensing devices ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 2,3,4 C) 3,4,5 D) 1,2,5 E) 1,4,5 ```

A) 1,2,3

546. Which of the following boilers would most likely have soot blowers? 1) gas fired boilers 2) electric boilers 3) coal fired boilers 4) oil fired boilers ``` A) 1,2 B) 3,4 C) 1,3,4 D) 1,2,3,4 E) 1,2,4 ```

B) 3,4

547. During the operation of a boiler, the heating surfaces exposed to the combustion gases tend to become coated with soot and ash, which: 1) lowers the steam pressure in the boiler 2) acts as an insulation and reduces heat transfer 3) lowers the efficiency and capacity of the boiler 4) increases the draft power required ``` A) 1,2,3,4 B) 1,2,3 C) 1,3,4 D) 1,2,4 E) 2,3,4 ```

E) 2,3,4

548. The method most commonly used to remove soot and ash from boiler heating surfaces is to blast away these deposits by means of: 1) a natural gas jet 2) a steam jet 3) a water jet 4) an air jet ``` A) 1,3 B) 1,2 C) 2,3 D) 2,4 E) 3,4 ```

D) 2,4

549. Soot blowers can be classified as: 1) manual operation 2) automatic operation 3) stationary operation 4) movable operation ``` A) 1,2,3,4 B) 1,2 C) 3,4 D) 1,2,4 E) 1,3,4 ```

A) 1,2,3,4

550. Stationary type soot blowers are located in the: 1) secondary superheater section 2) air heater section 3) economizer section 4) furnace walls ``` A) 2,3 B) 1,2 C) 2,4 D) 1,3 E) 3,4 ```

A) 2,3

551. The reason for having retractable soot blowers is because they: 1) are cheaper than stationary soot blowers 2) are used in the high temperature zones of the boiler 3) use different cleaning mediums than stationary types 4) they are protected from high temperatures when withdrawn from the boiler ``` A) 1,2,3,4 B) 1,2 C) 3,4 D) 2,4 E) 1,2,3 ```

D) 2,4

552. Which of the following procedures are correct during soot blowing periods? 1) the firing should be switched from coal to gas 2) the boiler should be firing at least 30% rate 3) the boiler should be firing at least 70% rate 4) the furnace pressure should be below atmospheric pressure ``` A) 1,2,4 B) 1,3,4 C) 2,4 D) 3,4 E) 1,2,3 ```

C) 2,4

553. It is important that soot blowers be adjusted so that they do not impinge directly upon tubes or baffles because: A) they cause too much smoke coming out the smoke stack B) erosion of these parts will take place C) it is hard on the soot blowers due to too much back pressure D) they would not clean the surface very well in this position E) the soot blower nozzles will plug up

B) erosion of these parts will take place

554. Which of the following conditions would indicate that the soot blowers should be operated: 1) the steam pressure is low in the boiler drum 2) high draft loss through the boiler 3) uneconomical steam temperature 4) uneconomical gas temperature ``` A) 1,2,3,4 B) 1,2,3 C) 1,3,4 D) 2,3,4 E) 1,2,4 ```

D) 2,3,4

555. Which of the following is caused from scale buildup on boiler tubes: 1) increased boiler efficiency 2) weakening of tube metal 3) decreased boiler efficiency 4) increased flue gas temperature 5) cracks in boiler tubes ``` A) 1,2,3,4 B) 1,3,4,5 C) 2,3,4,5 D) 1,2,4,5 E) 1,2,3,5 ```

C) 2,3,4,5

556. When adding phosphate to the boiler water, the chemical may: 1) combine with dissolved solids in the boiler water 2) decrease the dissolved solids in the boiler water 3) increase the suspended solids in the boiler water 4) increase the pH of the boiler water ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 1,2,4 C) 1,3,4 D) 2,3,4 E) 1,2,3,4 ```

C) 1,3,4

557. Chelating agents feed to the boiler water: 1) require close control to prevent corrosion 2) reduce scale buildup within high pressure boilers 3) protects against corrosion within the boiler 4) obtains best results with soft water ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 1,3,4 C) 1,2,4 D) 2,3,4 E) 1,2,3,4 ```

B) 1,3,4

558. Organics, such as tannins, lignins, and starches are used to: 1) control silica in boiler water 2) reduce corrosion within the boiler 3) coat suspended solids in the boiler water 4) produce a nonsticky sludge in the boiler water ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 1,3,4 C) 1,2,4 D) 2,3,4 E) 1,2,3,4 ```

B) 1,3,4

559. To reduce scale and mud formation within the boiler, we: 1) force the hardness in the water to come out of solution by feeding sulphite to the boiler water 2) treat the suspended solids in the boiler water with lignins 3) remove suspended solids from the boiler water through blow off 4) feed soda ash, caustic soda, or sodium phosphate to precipitate solids in boiler water ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 1,2,4 C) 1,3,4 D) 2,3,4 E) 1,2,3,4 ```

D) 2,3,4

560. Certain chemicals introduced into the boiler water to prevent scale may: 1) form a mud or sludge 2) cause foaming or priming 3) result in corrosion attack on the metal 4) result in reduced boiler blow off ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 1,3,4 C) 1,2,4 D) 2,3,4 E) 1,2,3,4 ```

A) 1,2,3

571. Carbon dioxide dissolved in boiler feed water causes: 1) a reduced pH value in the water 2) metal loss in the condensate piping 3) an increase in the water alkalinity 4) damage to the feed pump ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 1,2,4 C) 1,3,4 D) 2,3,4 E) 1,2,3,4 ```

B) 1,2,4

562. Water which has been mechanically aerated: ``` A) is suitable to feed directly to the boiler without further treatment B) will be low in dissolved oxygen C) will be free of dissolved gases D) may cause pitting in the boiler metal E) will be high in dissolved CO2 ```

D) may cause pitting in the boiler metal

563. Contributors to corrosion within a steam boiler are: 1) oxygen 2) carbon dioxide 3) a low pH 4) high chelate concentrations ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,3,4 D) 1,2,4 E) 1,2,3,4 ```

E) 1,2,3,4

564. An amine, which is fed to the boiler for protection of the condensate return lines against corrosion, may: 1) raise the pH of the condensate 2) coat the surfaces of the return piping 3) neutralize the acid in the condensate 4) cause the condensate to become acidic ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 1,2,4 C) 1,3,4 D) 2,3,4 E) 1,2,3,4 ```

A) 1,2,3

565. Hydrazine is used in some high pressure boilers: ``` A) to control the dissolved solids B) to prevent foaming C) to eliminate erosion D) to reduce oxygen pitting E) to condition the sludge ```

D) to reduce oxygen pitting

566. In some boilers, caustic soda (sodium hydroxide) is injected into the boiler water. As a result: 1) the pH of the boiler water is increased 2) foaming could occur at high concentration 3) caustic embrittlement could occur 4) boiler water acidity is increased ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 1,3,4 C) 1,2,4 D) 2,3,4 E) 1,2,3,4 ```

A) 1,2,3

567. Factors required to produce caustic embrittlement are: 1) a high pH in the boiler water 2) stress of the Boiler pressure parts 3) a riveted joint in the boiler 4) a leak of boiler water ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,3,4 D) 1,2,4 E) 1,2,3,4 ```

D) 1,2,4

568. The most undesirable feature of impurities in boiler feedwater is: ``` A) scale B) caustic embrittlement C) corrosion D) carry over E) sludge ```

C) corrosion

569. Corrosion of metal in a boiler system is caused by: 1) a low pH of the boiler water 2) oxygen being absorbed by the boiler water 3) maintaining an OH- ions concentration higher than that of the H+ ions in the boiler water 4) carbon dioxide being allowed into the return condensate ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 1,2,4 C) 1,3,4 D) 2,3,4 E) 1,2,3,4 ```

B) 1,2,4

570. Failure to filter surface water before using it in a boiler may result in: 1) a hard, tight scale firming on the water surfaces of the boiler metal 2) foaming within the boiler 3) a sludge collecting in the drums 4) boiler water carry over with the steam ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 1,3,4 C) 1,2,4 D) 2,3,4 E) 1,2,3,4 ```

D) 2,3,4

571. Boiler blow off is an important factor in feedwater control because it: 1) should be completed before the boiler water is tested 2) allows removal of sludge thus assists in the prevention of scale 3) increases scale formation 4) should be completed afte the boiler water is tested 5) will help control dissolved solids within the boiler ``` A) 2,4,5 B) 3,4,5 C) 2,3,5 D) 1,2,3 E) 2,3,4,5 ```

A) 2,4,5

572. The prime purpose of a continuous blow off line from the steam drum of a watertube boiler is to: A) heat the make up water supplying a deaerator B) reduce the solids level of the oiler water by intermittent operation of the blow off valves C) control the dissolved oxygen in the boiler water D) control the quantity of scale forming salts within the boiler water E) reduce the water level in the boiler

D) control the quantity of scale forming salts within the boiler water

573. _____ is any solid, liquid, or vaporous contaminants that leaves the boiler with he steam. A) carryover B) blowdown C) feedwater D) mist

A) carryover

574. _____ is particularly harmful as it forms a very hard deposit on turbine blades. A) carryover B) mist C) silica D) phosphate

C) silica

575. The causes of carryover can be divided into two broad categories, namely, mechanical and _____, A) virtual B) carryover C) upset D) chemical

D) chemical

576. Chemical carryover is primarily caused by _____. A) foaming B) misting C) water D) load

A) foaming

577. Mechanical carryover can be prevented by careful boiler design and by operating the boiler within the design parameters for _____ level and firing rates. A) chemical B) water C) blowdown D) impurities

B) water

578. Chemical carryover can be prevented by chemical injection, mud drum blowdown, and _____ _____. A) pure water B) boiler load C) continuous blowdown D) more chemicals

C) continuous blowdown

579. Efficient control of boiler blowdown is an important objective in the operation of most boilers. A) true B) false

A) true

580. A simple blowdown system involves control that is totally reliant on the _____. A) effluent B) chemicals C) conductivity D) operator

D) operator

581. Control of the continuous blowdown flow is _____ adjusted by the operator. A) manually B) automatically C) quickly D) slowly

A) manually

582. Erratic solids levels in the boiler result in erratic residuals of phosphate, sulphite, and so on, which leads to confusion over the amounts of chemicals that are added. A) true B) false

A) true

583. A significant improvement in _____ can be accomplished by recovering heat from the blowdown water and from its flash steam. A) control B) efficiency C) recovery D) chemical

B) efficiency

584. The phenolphthalein alkalinity test is carried out on boiler water: 1) to indicate the amount of bicarbonate sin the boiler water 2) to indicate the amount of dissolved hydroxides in the boiler water 3) to determine the "P" alkalinity value of the boiler water 4) to indicate the amount of carbonates in the boiler water ``` A) 1,3,4 B) 1,2,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 2,3,4 E) 1,2,3,4 ```

D) 2,3,4

585. To determine the amounts of all the dissolved materials, which cause alkalinity of the water, you should: ``` A) complete a pH test B) complete a methyl orange test C) complete a phosphate test D) complete a phenolphthalein alkalinity test E) complete a conductivity test ```

B) complete a methyl orange test

586. An accurate pH reading of boiler water may be obtained by: A) using litmus paper in the water sample B) measuring the hydrogen ion concentration in the water sample C) the total alkalinity test D) completing the hardness test E) completing a phosphate test

B) measuring the hydrogen ion concentration in the water sample

587. The test used to determine the ppm of phosphate in the boiler water: A) has a sample with an end colour of blue B) requires the addition of potassium-iodide-iodate solution be added to the sample C) uses an indicator which causes the water sample to turn yellow at the end point of the test D) requires sulphuric acid be titrated into the sample until a faint pink colour develops E) requires the addition of a methyl orange indicator

A) has a sample with an end colour of blue

588. The sodium sulphite test on boiler water: A) requires an amount of starch be added to the sample B) should be filtered prior to adding test chemicals C) should produce an end reading of 20 ppm or less D) indicates the acidity of the boiler water E) the total dissolved solids in the boiler water measures

A) requires an amount of starch be added to the sample

589. When testing boiler water for dissolved solids: A) we measure the amount of electrical current the sample will conduct B) we must neutralize the oxide ion first C) phenolphthalein is added to the sample to cause a blue colour to appear, neutralizing the water D) filter the sample, then add sulphuric acid to neutralize the water E) measure the "m" and "P" alkalinities

A) we measure the amount of electrical current the sample will conduct

590. When using a meter to determine the pH of boiler water: A) the dissolved salts in the sample should first be neutralized B) the voltage between the electrodes will vary according to the hydrogen iron concentration of the sample C) the hydrogen ion concentration generates a current in the solution, which is measured and read in pH numbers D) the voltage between the electrodes will vary inversely to the concentration of hydrogen ions E) the voltage between the electrodes is not effected by the concentration of hydrogen ions

B) the voltage between the electrodes will vary according to the hydrogen ion concentration of the sample

591. Shot feeding involves the injection of chemicals over a relatively _____ period of time. A) long B) intermittent C) short D) measured

C) short

592. A _____ feed system. This involves feeding the chemicals to the boiler system at the most efficient isn't injection points and at a steady and continuous rate. A) closed bypass B) shot C) slug D) continuous

D) continuous

593. With the _____ feed system, it is common practice to mix one batch of chemicals per day. A) closed bypass B) shot C) slug D) continuous

D) continuous

594. One method of controlling chemical concentrations is to prepare chemical batches using a table of tank level vs. _____ _____. A) chemical addition B) pump stroke C) steam flow D) feedwater addition

A) chemical addition

595. The two most common designs of chemical feed pumps are the _____, plunger type and the electronic impulse type. A) electric B) electronic C) reciprocating D) vibrating

C) reciprocating

1. Subsidence is accomplished by passing water through a basin or tank of such design that the velocity of the water is reduced to a point, to permit _____. A) subsidence B) coagulation C) flocculation D) filtering

A) subsidence

2. _____ are chemicals, which cause the fine particles to gather together into a larger mass, which will settle out much more readily. A) caustic B) coagulants C) acids D) zeolite

B) coagulants

3. _____ is the further increase in size and volume of the precipitating particles and is done by gentle agitation of the way. A) subsidence B) coagulation C) flocculation D) filtering

C) flocculation

4. The coagulant, when added to the water, will produce a spongy substance known as _____. A) mud B) floc C) sand D) waste

B) floc

5. A water _____ allows the coagulation and settling of suspended solids contained in water, to take place. A) softener B) exchanger C) clarifier D) filter

C) clarifier

6. The clarified water is drawn off through a submerged collector pipe at the _____ of the upflow zone. A) bottom B) top C) side D) middle

B) top

7. External water treatment using continuous methods of subsidence allows: 1) clarified water to be drawn continuously from the tank 2) continuous removal of solids from the tank 3) complete removal of turbidity 4) removal of colloidal particles without coagulation ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 1,3,4 C) 1,2,4 D) 2,3,4 E) 1,2,3,4 ```

C) 1,2,4

8. A _____ consists of a bed of porous material through which water is passed, either by gravity, or under pressure. A) softener B) exchanger C) clarifier D) filter

D) filter

9. When filtering water, which will be used for boiler feedwater, _____ is preferred as the use of sand may result in the water picking up silica, which could deposit as scale in the boiler. A) resin B) gravel C) anthracite D) zeolite

C) anthracite

10. Pressure gauges are installed on the inlet and outlet lines and when the pressure difference between them reaches a certain value, usually from _____ to _____ kPa, it means that backwashing is required. A) 5,10 B) 35,55 C) 100,200 D) 1,10000

B) 35,55

11. If filters are used alone, then _____ are usually fed to the filter in order that the finer impurities are formed into larger particles that can be trapped by the filter bed. A) caustic B) coagulants C) acids D) zeolite

B) coagulants

12. Filters are required to remove the following impurities from feedwater. 1) dissolved oxygen 2) suspended matter 3) dissolved solids 4) sand and silt 5) turbidity ``` A) 1,3,4 B) 2,4,5 C) 2,3,4 D) 3,4,5 E) 1,2,3,4 ```

B) 2,4,5

13 chemical external water treatment is accomplished using: 1) zeolite softeners 2) demineralizers 3) hot lime soda softeners 4) deaerators ``` A) 1,2,3,4 B) 1,2,4 C) 1,3,4 D) 2,3,4 E) 1,2,3 ```

E) 1,2,3

14. The sludge blanket aids in the removal of any _____ not already precipitated from the water. A) impurities B) chemicals C) anthracite D) resins

A) impurities

15. Calcium sulphate, in particular, is the main scale forming constituent found in boiler water and when _____ out of solution on a hot metal surface, forms a hard dense scale. A) coagulated B) flocculated C) filtered D) precipitated

D) precipitated

16. Chemical Analysis has shown that the chief constituents of hard scales are _____ sulphate and calcium and magnesium silicates. A) calcium B) sodium C) magnesium D) water

A) calcium

17. The hot lime soda process is most suitable for the softening of _____ hardness supplies. A) low B) high C) medium D) average

B) high

18. The hot process softener is used in conjunction with _____ filters, which are usually necessary to filter out any carryover of sludge particles from the softener. A) side stream B) gravity C) pressure D) charcoal

C) pressure

19. Natural, untreated water contains dissolved mineral salts. A) true B) false

A) true

20. The mineral compound's _____ contribute to deposits of scale and sludge. A) cations B) anions C) composition D) size

B) anions

21. The mineral compound's _____ contribute to acidity/alkalinity (pH), corrosion and other problems. A) cations B) anions C) composition D) size

A) cations

22. The sodium zeolite softener uses the principle of _____ exchange to convert scale forming salts in the water into non scale forming salts. A) chemical B) ion C) acids D) zeolite

B) ion

23. The softener contains a granular material called _____, which has the ability to remove the calcium and magnesium cations from the water and to replace them with sodium cations. A) caustic B) coagulants C) acids D) zeolite

D) zeolite

24. When the zeolite material has given up all its Na+ cations in exchange for the Ca2+ and Mg2+ cations, it has to be _____ before it can resume the softening process. A) exchanged B) replaced C) regenerated D) flushed

C) regenerated

25. The regeneration is done by removing the zeolite softener from service and filling it with a solution of _____. A) acid B) brine C) caustic D) chlorine

B) brine

26. The sodium hydroxide may cause _____ of the boiler metal. A) scaling B) embrittlement C) cracking D) weakening

B) embrittlement

27. A hydrogen zeolite softener is used to remove the scale forming _____, without the formation of sodium bicarbonate. A) salts B) carbonic C) magnesium D) sulphates

A) salts

28. When the resin becomes exhausted of _____ ions, it is regenerated. Sulphuric acid is passed through the resin. A) calcium B) sodium C) hydrogen D) positive

C) hydrogen

29. The de-gasifier tower used in some external water treatment programs: A) removes oxygen from the makeup water B) removes carbon dioxide from the effluent of hydrogen zeolite unit C) adds oxygen to the makeup water to aid deaeration D) is installed in the system before the softeners E) removes carbon dioxide from the effluent of the anion unit.

B) removes carbon dioxide from the effluent of hydrogen zeolite unit

30. Dealkalization processes reduce _____, principally carbonate and bicarbonate anions. A) salts B) carbonic C) magnesium D) alkalinity

D) alkalinity

31. The weak acid cation dealkalizer uses cation exchange resin that is _____ with either hydrochloride or sulphuric acid, leaving hydrogen ions on the exchange sites. A) exchanged B) replaced C) regenerated D) flushed

C) regenerated

32. The _____ process, and the associated chemical reactions of a weak acid cation dealkalizer is similar to a hydrogen zeolite softener. A) exchanging B) replacement C) regeneration D) flushing

C) regeneration

33. The water coming out of the weak acid cation dealkalizer contains the residual (non exchanged) hardness ions and carbon dioxide. This carbon dioxide, due to its potential to cause corrosion problems on the piping systems and downstream equipment, is degasified. A) true B) false

A) true

34. In water treatment, demineralization refers to the removal of mineral salts, using _____ exchangers. A) chemical B) ion C) composition D) size

B) ion

35. All demineralization systems consist of a minimum of one cation exchange process and one anion exchange process. A) true B) false

A) true

36. Strong _____ exchangers are required for silica removal. A) cation B) anion C) acid D) caustic

B) anion

37. If allowed to remain in the water, _____ acid will break down into carbon dioxide, which causes corrosion. A) sulphuric B) hydrochloric C) carbonic D) silicic

C) carbonic

38. Each ion exchanger in a demineralization system must be regenerated when its _____ becomes exhausted. A) chemical B) ion C) composition D) resin

D) resin

39. The mixed bed exchanger is a mixture of strong acid cation and strong base anion _____. A) chemical B) ion C) composition D) resin

D) resin

40. When a mixed bed ion exchange softener is exhausted and backwashed, the anion resin will: ``` A) separate and drop to the bottom B) separate and rise to the top C) mix uniformly throughout the bed D) remain unchanged in the vessel E) change to cation resin in the vessel ```

B) separate and rise to the top

41. Water with a high concentration of suspended solids is pressurized and forced through a number of membrane modules connected in parallel is called osmosis. A) true B) false

B) false

42. Reverse osmosis can achieve a _____% removal of dissolved salts in water. A) 100 B) 55 C) 99 D) 80

C) 99

43. In a _____ type deaerator. The entering water passes through spray nozzles, which divide it into a fine state. A) spray B) tray C) bubbler D) combination

A) spray

44. The spring loaded valve maintains even distribution of water spray through a _____ range of flow variation. A) narrow B) wide C) large D) small

B) wide

45. In a _____ deaerator, the water flow is broken up by trickling down over a series of trays. A) spray B) tray C) bubbler D) combination

B) tray

46. In a _____ deaerator, steam is forced up through perforated panels as the water flows along the top surface of the panel. A) spray B) tray C) bubbler D) combination

C) bubbler

47. In periods of low flow, steam may condense and the level will creep up. In this case, an _____ valve will open to prevent the water from rising above the level where proper desperation can occur. A) level B) overflow C) steam D) water

B) overflow

48. To reduce corrosion caused by oxygen, it is desirable to keep the level of dissolved oxygen in the water at about _____ pub (parts per billion). A) 10/20/2006 B) 50-100 C) 5/7/2006 D) 0-3

C) 5/7/2006

49. According to their method of operation, pumps can be divided into three main classes. These are: ``` A) direct acting, power driven, plunger type B) single acting, double acting, triplex C) centrifugal, rotary, reciprocating D) three lobe, two screw, internal gear E) centrifugal, centripedal, impulse ```

C) centrifugal, rotary, reciprocating

50. Reciprocating pumps: 1) are high pressure pumps 2) are always single acting 3) use mechanical seals 4) should be started with the suction and discharge valve open ``` A) 1,2,3,4 B) 1,2,3 C) 1,2,4 D) 2,4 E) 1,4 ```

E) 1,4

51. A direct acting, reciprocating pump means that: A) the pump has a crankshaft driven by a separate power source B) the piston rods of steam and of water pistons are directly connected together C) the liquid acts directly on the piston head D) the pump is operated by an electric motor coupled directly E) a diaphragm acts as the liquid displacing components

B) the pistonrods of steam and of water pistons are directly connected together

52. The amount of liquid pumped by a reciprocating pump is determined by: 1) the area of the piston, plunger, or diaphragm 2) the length of the stroke 3) the discharge pressure 4) the number of pumping strokes per minute ``` A) 1,2 B) 3,4 C) 1,2,4 D) 1,2,3,4 E) 1,2,3 ```

C) 1,2,4

53. Relief valves are used on: 1) power driven, reciprocating pumps 2) the suction side of a reciprocating pump 3) reciprocating pumps to prevent over pressuring 4) direct acting steam driven pumps ``` A) 1,2 B) 2,3 C) 3,4 D) 1,3 E) 1,4 ```

D) 1,3

54. The following are examples of rotary pumps: 1) sliding vane 2) double acting 3) internal gear pump 4) two screw ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 1,3,4 C) 2,3,4 D) 1,2,4 E) 1,2,3,4 ```

B) 1,3,4

55. The name 'rotary pump' is given to those pumps, which consist of a closed casing in which gears, lobes, vanes, or screws rotate with a _____ clearance. A) minimum B) maximum C) standard D) large

A) minimum

56. The external gear pump: A) have two gears, which rotate in opposite directions inside the casing. B) have an externally cut gear which meshes with an internally cut gear on one side and is separated from this gear on the other side by a crescent shaped partition which prevents liquid from passing back from discharge to suction side C) have a rotor containing vanes within slots D) have two rotors each with three lobes E) have two rotors each with two opposing spirals or screw threads

A) have two gears, which rotate in opposite directions inside the casing

57. The internal pump: A) have two gears, which rotate in opposite directions inside the casing. B) have an externally cut gear which meshes with an internally cut gear on one side and is separated from this gear on the other side by a crescent shaped partition which prevents liquid from passing back from discharge to suction side C) have a rotor containing vanes within slots D) have two rotors each with three lobes E) have two rotors each with two opposing spirals or screw threads

B) have an externally cut gear which meshes with an internally cut gear on one side and is separated from this gear on the other side by a crescent shaped partition which prevents liquid from passing back from discharge to suction side

58. The sliding vane pump: A) have two gears, which rotate in opposite directions inside the casing. B) have an externally cut gear which meshes with an internally cut gear on one side and is separated from this gear on the other side by a crescent shaped partition which prevents liquid from passing back from discharge to suction side C) have a rotor containing vanes within slots D) have two rotors each with three lobes E) have two rotors each with two opposing spirals or screw threads

C) have a rotor containing vanes within slots

59. The three lobe pump: A) have two gears, which rotate in opposite directions inside the casing. B) have an externally cut gear which meshes with an internally cut gear on one side and is separated from this gear on the other side by a crescent shaped partition which prevents liquid from passing back from discharge to suction side C) have a rotor containing vanes within slots D) have two rotors each with three lobes E) have two rotors each with two opposing spirals or screw threads

D) have two rotors each with three lobes

60. The two screw pump: A) have two gears, which rotate in opposite directions inside the casing. B) have an externally cut gear which meshes with an internally cut gear on one side and is separated from this gear on the other side by a crescent shaped partition which prevents liquid from passing back from discharge to suction side C) have a rotor containing vanes within slots D) have two rotors each with three lobes E) have two rotors each with two opposing spirals or screw threads

E) have two rotors each with two opposing spirals or screw threads.

61. A centrifugal pump may be defined as a pump, which uses _____ force to impart energy to a fluid by giving the fluid high velocity and then converting this velocity into pressure. A) work B) centrifugal C) pressure D) suction

B) centrifugal

62. The term 'volute' refers to the gradually increasing cross sectional area of the spiral impeller. A) true B) false

B) false

63. As the liquid travels through the volute casing to the discharge, its _____ energy is converted into pressure, or potential, energy. A) rotation B) fluids C) kinetic D) electrical

C) kinetic

64. A centrifugal pump lifts water by: A) running the pump fast B) creating a vacuum and atmospheric pressure forcing water into the pump C) means of a primer to increase the valve travel D) hydro pneumatic methods E) giving the fluid high velocity

B) creating a vacuum and atmospheric pressure forcing water into the pump

65. To pump a heavy visas liquid, you would use. 1) a centrifugal pump 2) a rotary pump 3) a reciprocating pump 4) a sliding vane pump ``` A) 1,2,3,4 B) 1,2,3 C) 2,3,4 D) 1,3,4 E) 1,2,4 ```

C) 2,3,4

66. To transfer large amounts of liquid, you wild use: ``` A) a centrifugal pump B) a rotary pump C) a reciprocating pump D) a sliding vane pump E) an external gear pump ```

A) a centrifugal pump

67. A multistage pump would be used: A) when the lift is high B) when a greater volume must be pumped C) when the head is high D) when the temperature of the water being pumped is high E) when pumping a liquid containing an abrasive

C) when the head is high

68. The following are types of centrifugal pumps: 1) volute 2) axial flow 3) regenerative 4) triplex ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3,4 D) 1,3,4 E) 1,2,4 ```

A) 1,2,3

69. The vertical pump assembly often is _____ in the fluid being pumped. A) suspended B) immersed C) above D) floating

B) immersed

70. The single suction pump has an imbalance of thrust, this is taken care of by mechanical means, such as a _____ _____. A) balance disc B) double seal C) thrust bearing D) double bearings

C) thrust bearing

71. Multi stage pumps are equipped with two or more impellers operating in _____. A) parallel B) series C) opposition D) together

B) series

72. Multi stage pumps of the volute or diffuser type with discharge pressures above 10000 kPa _____ casings are used. A) split B) volute C) barrel D) high pressure

C) barrel

73. The axial flow pump, often called a _____ pump, uses an impeller with vanes similar to a ships propeller. A) ships B) mates C) lift D) propeller

D) propeller

74. As compared to a radial flow pump, the axial pump has a low suction lift and develops a relatively low discharge head, but it has a _____ flow capacity. A) small B) large C) minimum D) select

B) large

75. The mixed flow pump has a single inlet impeller with the flow entering the pump in an axial direction and leaving the pump in a direction between axial and _____. A) centrifugal B) radial C) series D) parallel

B) radial

76. A stuffing box: 1) stops air leaking into the casing when the pressure is below atmospheric pressure 2) prevents leakage out of the casing when the pressure is above atmospheric pressure 3) is always supplied with a lantern ring 4) is filled with packing ``` A) 1,2,3,4 B) 1,2,3 C) 1,2,4 D) 2,3,4 E) 1,3,4 ```

C) 1,2,4

77. Mechanical seals: 1) are used where leakage is objectionable 2) reduce the maintenance cost on pumps 3) are used for volatile liquids 4) are less costly than stuffing boxes ``` A) 1,2,3,4 B) 1,2,3 C) 2,3,4 D) 1,3,4 E) 1,2,4 ```

B) 1,2,3

78. Shaft sleeves: 1) will prevent air from entering the pump 2) reduce the maintenance cost on pumps 3) protect the shaft from scoring and corrosion 4) are used with all mechanical seals ``` A) 1,2,3,4 B) 1,2 C) 2,3 D) 2,4 E) 1,4 ```

C) 2,3

79. Wearing rings: 1) are used on impellers 2) are used in the casing 3) give protection to the shaft 4) reduce the maintenance of the pump ``` A) 1,2,3,4 B) 1,2,3 C) 1,2,4 D) 2,3,4 E) 1,3,4 ```

C) 1,2,4

80. When a wearing ring is mounted only on the impeller, it is made of a _____ material than that of the casing so that practically all wear is on the ring. A) harder B) softer C) stiffer D) different

B) softer

81. Wearing rings are often made of _____ or cast iron since these materials tend to wear in a smooth manner. A) bronze B) copper C) nickel D) brass

A) bronze

82. Axial thrust: 1) is caused by hydraulic force 2) is found in reciprocating pumps 3) is found in centrifugal pumps 4) tends to move the impeller out of its proper position ``` A) 1,2,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,3,4 D) 1,2,3 E) 1,2,4 ```

C) 1,3,4

83. Axial thrust: A) tends to move the shaft in the direction of discharge B) has no effect on the shaft C) tends to move the shaft in the direction of suction D) is not a serious problem, and therefore, requires no action to remedy the situation E) act radial on the casing

C) tends to move the shaft in the direction of suction

84. Thrust bearings: 1) are located on the pump shaft 2) are located on low capacity pumps 3) are located on single stage pumps only 4) prevent axial movement ``` A) 1,2,3,4 B) 1,2,3 C) 1,2,4 D) 1,3,4 E) 2,3,4 ```

D) 1,3,4

85. When using a double inlet impeller pump: 1) the forces on the impeller are theoretically balanced 2) the flow to each eye is not always equal 3) the speed of the pump must be higher than the single inlet type 4) a light thrust bearing is still required ``` A) 1,2,3,4 B) 1,2,3 C) 2,3,4 D) 1,3,4 E) 1,2,4 ```

E) 1,2,4

86. When using opposing single inlet impeller type pumps: 1) the axial thrust can be eliminated by the use of opposed impellers 2) the impellers must all face the same direction 3) no wearing rings are used 4) the inlet of one half of the impeller face in one direction and the other half in the opposite direction ``` A) 1,2,3,4 B) 1,4 C) 2,3,4 D) 3,4 E) 1,2,4 ```

B) 1,4

87. A balancing drum: 1) is installed on the shaft between the first impeller and the suction of the pump 2) has a balancing chamber, which is connected to the suction of the pump 3) rotates inside the stationary member and the balancing device 4) is installed on the shaft between the last impeller and the balancing chamber ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,3,4 D) 1,2,4 E) 1,2,3,4 ```

B) 2,3,4

88. A balancing disc: 1) consists of a disc mounted on the rotating shaft at the suction end of pump 2) has a restricting orifice located in the balancing chamber 3) has no disadvantages 4) consists of a disc mounted on the rotating shaft at the discharge of pump ``` A) 1,2 B) 2,4 C) 3,4 D) 1,4 E) 1,3 ```

B) 2,4

89. The purposes of the restricting orifice when used with the balancing disc is to: A) restrict the speed of the pumps B) normally keep the pressure in the balancing chamber well above the suction pressure C) normally keep the pressure in the balancing chamber well below the suction pressure D) help run the pump at extra speed E) prevents any leakage from the high pressure side of the pump into the balancing chamber

B) normally keep the pressure in the balancing chamber well above the suction pressure

90. Balancing drum and disc combination: 1) has some disadvantages 2) is seldom used on multi stage pumps 3) is used on most multi stage pumps 4) has all the advantages of both hydraulic devices without any of their disadvantages ``` A) 1,2 B) 2,3 C) 3,4 D) 2,4 E) 1,3 ```

C) 3,4

91. It is imperative that the flow through a multi stage pump be kept above a _____ flow rate. A) maximum B) manufactures C) minimum D) safe

C) minimum

92. The standard method to meet _____ flow is to have a separate recirculation control valve, which allows for liquid to flow back to the pump suction drum. A) maximum B) manufactures C) minimum D) safe

C) minimum

93. An _____ valve is a combination check valve and minimum flow valve in one unit. A) discharge B) ARC C) recirc D) check

B) ARC

94. The priming of a pump means: A) getting the pump ready to pump hot water B) filling the pump with liquid and venting off air C) starting the pump with the discharge valve closed and the suction valve open D) starting the pump with the suction valve closed and the discharge valve open E) regulating the length of the stroke

B) filling the pump with liquid and venting off air

95. The capacity of a reciprocating pump and rotary pump is adjusted by: A) regulating the discharge pressure B) regulating the suction valve to the pump C) regulating the speed D) regulating the discharge valve opening E) regulating the length of the stroke

A) regulating the discharge pressure

96. Which of the following pumps are self priming: 1) centrifugal pump 2) positive displacement pump 3) reciprocating pump 4) rotary pump ``` A) 1,2,3,4 B) 1,2,3 C) 2,3,4 D) 1,2,4 E) 1,3,4 ```

C) 2,3,4

97. The capacity of a centrifugal pump: 1) can be controlled by the suction valve opening 2) increases when the discharge head increases 3) increases when the discharge head decreases 4) can be controlled by speed regulation ``` A) 1,2,3 B) 1,2 C) 2,3 D) 3,4 E) 1,4 ```

D) 3,4

98. Running a centrifugal pump with the suction valve throttled could: 1) cause the pump to speed up 2) starve the impeller and liquid supply 3) result in excessive vibrations 4) damage the mechanical seals and stuffing boxes ``` A) 1,2,3,4 B) 1,2,3 C) 2,3,4 D) 1,3,4 E) 1,2,4 ```

C) 2,3,4

99. Starting a. Electric driven centrifugal pump with the discharge closed: ``` A) helps to prime the pump B) helps to prevent excessive vibrations C) helps to protect the electric motor D) helps keep air from entering the pump E) helps reduce the flow resistance ```

C) helps protect the electric motor

100. An open, cylindrical tank contains a liquid to a height of 7.5 meters. If the density of the liquid is 4.5 x 10(3) kg/m(3), what is the pressure exerted by the liquid at the bottom of the tank in kPa? A) 331 B) 352 C) 250 D) 400

A) 331

101. An open, cylindrical tank contains a liquid to a height of 10 meters. If the density of the liquid is 4.0 x 10(3) kg/m(3), what is the pressure exerted by the liquid at the bottom of the tank in kPa? A) 331 B) 392 C) 259 D) 400

B) 392

102. A pressure gauge is located in the side of a tank 2m up from the bottom, which is the minimum tank level to ensure suction to the pumps. If the gauge ears 260 kPa and the level in the tank is 8m, what is the density of the liquid in the tank? A) 3.225 x 10(3) B) 4.044 x 10(3) C) 4.417 x 10(3) D) 5.332 x 10(3)

C) 4.417 x 10(3)

103. A pressure gauge is located in the side of a tank at 3.5m up from the bottom, which is the minimum tank level to ensure suction to the pumps. If the gauge reads 300 kPa and the level in the tank is 12m, what is the density of the liquid in the tank? A) 3.225 x 10(3) B) 4.022 x 10(3) C) 4.417 x 10(3) D) 3.6 x 10(3)

D) 3.6 x 10(3)

104. A process solution has a density of 3.4 x 10(3) kg/m(3) and is held in a rubber lined tank that is 19m high. If the tank is exactly 2/3 full, what reading, in kPa, would the operator see on a level indicating pressure gauge, located at the base of the tank in kPa? A) 200 B) 235 C) 250 D) 300

A) 200

105. What height of water is necessary to exert a pressure of 1 kPa at a temp of 150 C (note Vf = 1.0905 cm(3)/g). A) 0.189 m B) 0.234 m C) 0.1112 m D) 0.0034 m

C) 0.1112 m

106. The pressure at the discharge of a water pump is 150 kPa and the temperature of the water is 80 C. Find the equivalent head in meters. A) 20.21 m B) 12.55 m C) 18 m D) 15.73 m

D) 15.73 m

107. If a column of mercury has an equivalent head of 50 cm., calculate the pressure produced at the bottom of the column in kPa. Relative density of mercury is 13.6. A) 66.7 B) 73.4 C) 81.24 D) 55

A) 66.7

108. A raw water supply pump is sitting idle with its discharge valve open. The equivalent discharge head is known to be 35 meters and the water is at 70 C. What pressure, in kPa, should be indicating on the pump discharge gauge? (Given vf at 70 C = 1.0228) A) 350 B) 336 C) 380 D) 320

B) 336

109. A chemical in a storage tank has a relative density of 7.6. What is the equivalent head at the outlet of the tank where a pressure gauge reads 250 kPa? A) 4.0 m B) 5.2 m C) 3.35 m D) 4.55 m

C) 3.35 m

110. A rotary pump draws oil from a waste collection dump and delivers it into a storage tank. The level in the sump is 2 m below the base of the storage tank and the level in the tank is 4.5 m. If the sump sits 1 m above the tank base and discharges into the side of the tank at a height of 3 m, what is the total static head on the pump? A) 6.5m B) 7.2m C) 5.2m D) 6.0m

A) 6.5m

111. A deaerator has a pressure of 100 kPa and supplies feedwater to a boiler which operates at 1200 kPa. If the standby feedwater pump is located 7 meters below the water level in the deaerator and 6 m below the water level in the boiler, what is the total head on the pump. Ignore the feedwater temperature. ``` A) 112.2 m B) 111.2 m C) 110.2 m D) 1 m E) 13 m ```

B) 111.2 m

112. Static suction lift means: A) static that builds up due to liquid moving in a pipe B) the vertical distance from the liquid supply level to the pump centre line when the pump is above the supply level C) the vertical distance f on the liquid supply level to the pump centre line when the pump is below the supply level D) the method by which the pump lifts water E) the vertical distance from the liquid supply level to the pump discharge point

B) the vertical distance from the liquid supply level to the pump centre line when the pump is above the supply level

113. Friction head means: A) friction due to the head water in the pipe B) the pressure, expressed in meters, of head required to overcome fiction caused by liquid flow through piping, valves, and fittings in the system C) the sum of dynamic suction lift and dynamic discharge head D) friction caused by the impeller moving in the casing E) the difference between the dynamic discharge head and the dynamic suction lift

B) the pressure, expressed in meters, of head required to overcome friction caused by liquid flow through the piping, valves, and fittings in the system

114. Velocity head means: A) the pressure, in meters of liquid head, required to give the liquid its motion through the system at a given velocity. B) the speed at which the water leaves the pump C) the speed at which the water enters the pump D) the distance the liquid must travel in a given amount of time E) the speed at which the pump impeller is turning

A) the pressure, in meters of liquid head, required to give the liquid its motion through the system at a given velocity

115. Pressure head means: A) the sum of static lift and suction friction and velocity head B) static head minus suction friction and velocity head C) the pressure acting in the impeller of a volute type pump D) the pressure, in meters of liquid head, in a closed vessel from which the pump takes its suction or against which the pump discharges E) the sum of the dynamic suction lift and the dynamic discharge head

D) the pressure, in meters of liquid head, in a closed vessel from which the pump takes its suction or against which the pump discharges

116. If a centrifugal pump is required to move 20000 kg of water per hour at a velocity of 12 m/s through a 4 cm diameter line, what velocity head must be considered in the system design? A) 7.34 m B) 6.25 m C) 8.1 m D) 15 m

A) 7.34 m

117. What is the velocity in the discharge of a centrifugal pump if the velocity head is 12 m? A) 7.34 m B) 6.25 m C) 8.1 m D) 15.34 m

D) 15.34 m

118. Schedule 40 steel pipe 50.8 mm in diameter is used to construct a piping system. The length of the piping is 60 meters and contains 4 standard elbows, 1 tee and 1 globe valve. The equivalent meters of pipe is 87.47 m. The flow through the pipe is 25 L/sec with a frictional loss of 36.5 meters per 25 meters of pipe. What is the frictional head of the system? ``` A) 36.5 m B) 27.47 m C) 60 m D) 87.47 m E) 127.7 m ```

E) 127.7 m

119. A 152.4 mm diameter piping system is 50 m long and contains 3 elbows, 2 gate valves, one globe valve, and 2 tees. The equivalent meters of pipe in the system is 135.58 meters. If the flow is 84 L/s and the frictional losses are 3.25 per 25 meters of pipe. What is the friction head? ``` A) 135.58 m B) 50 m C) 3.25 m D) 17.63 m E) 132.58 m ```

D) 17.63 m

120. A vacuum evaporator has an absolute pressure of 25 kPa. The level in the evaporator is 10 m above the centre line of the pump. The pump discharges into a storage tank, located 20 m above the pump. This tank has a level of 6 m and a pressure blanket of 100 kPa. The liquid velocity is 3 m/s in the suction piping and 4 m/s in the discharge line. Friction loss in the discharge line is 1.8 m. What is the discharge velocity head? ``` A) 0.815 m B) 0.459 m C) 0.076 m D) 0.101 m E) 1.258 m ```

A) 0.815 m

121. What is the dynamic suction head for a pump that has static suction head = 8 m, suction pressure head = 12 m, suction friction head = 2 m, and suction velocity head = 3 m? A) 15 m B) 22 m C) 17 m D) 12 m

A) 15 m

122. Dynamic suction lift refers to: A) static head minus suction friction and velocity head B) static discharge head plus discharge friction and velocity head C) the sum of static friction lift and suction friction and velocity head D) the vertical distance in meters E) the pressure in a closed vessel from which a pump takes its suction

C) the sum of static friction lift and static friction and velocity head

123. Dynamic suction head refers to: A) the sum of static friction lift and suction friction and velocity head B) static head minus suction friction and velocity head C) static discharge head plus static friction and velocity head D) the sum of dynamic suction lift and dynamic discharge head E) the vertical distance from the liquid supply level to the centre line of the pump

B) static head minus suction friction and velocity head

124. Dynamic discharge head refers to: A) static head minus suction friction and velocity head B) the sum of static suction lift and suction friction and velocity head C) static discharge head plus discharge friction and velocity head D) the pressure, in meters of liquid head, required to give the liquid its motion E) the distance the liquid must travel from the pump to the discharge point

C) static discharge head plus discharge friction and velocity head

125. Net positive suction head helps to: 1) prevent cavitation 2) ensure maximum flow through a pump 3) keep the pump speed constant 4) prevent vapor binding ``` A) 2,3,4 B) 1,3 C) 1,2,3,4 D) 1,2,4 E) 1,2,3 ```

D) 1,2,4

126. In a closed system completely filled with liquid, no vapours will form as long as the liquid is subjected to a pressure that is greater than the _____ pressure of the liquid. A) vapour B) total C) relative D) density

A) vapour

127. _____ happens when the pressure, at any point inside a centrifugal pump, drops below the vapour pressure of the liquid, vapour bubbles will form, creating cavities in the liquid flow. A) cavitation B) surging C) priming D) chirping

A) cavitation

128. A manufacturer specifies a required NPSH of 5 m for a certain pump. To satisfy this requirement, what must the minimum pressure be at t he suction of the pump if the liquid being moved is water at 120 C (note Vf = 1.0603) A) 253.55 kPa B) 244.8 kPa C) 232.52 kPa D) 100 kPa

B) 244.8 kPa

129. A boiler feedwater pump is to supply water from a boiler at 110 C. According to the manufacturer, this pump must have a minimum suction pressure of 210 kPa to ensure the required NPSH is maintained. What value of NPSH has been specified by the manufacturer? A) 10 m B) 8 m C) 7.15 m D) 6.25 m

C) 7.15 m

130. A liquid with a vapour pressure of 110 kPa and density of 840 kg/m(3) is moved by a pump that has an NPSH of 6 m. How much ch pressure must exist at the pump suction? A) 134.45 kPa B) 135.87 kPa C) 145.24 kPa D) 159.44 kPa

D) 159.44 kPa

Chapter 9-12 Flashcards

(221 cards)