1
Q
1. Which of the following cells produce new bone? a. Osteocytes b. Osteoblasts c. Osteoclasts d. Stem cells from the bone marrow
A
b.
Osteoblasts
2
Q
2. What is the chemical transmitter released at the neuromuscular junction? a. Norepinephrine b. GABA c. Serotonin d. Acetylcholine
A
d.
Acetylcholine
3
Q
3. What are the two types of bone tissue? a. Vascular and nonvascular b. Spongy and calcified c. Compact and cancellous d. Dense and pliable
A
c.
Compact and cancellous
4
Q
- Which of the following would identify an open or compound fracture?
a.
The skin and soft tissue are exposed at the fracture site.
b.
A bone is crushed into many small pieces.
c.
The bone appears bent with a partial fracture line.
d.
One end of a bone is forced into an adjacent bone.
A
a.
The skin and soft tissue are exposed at the fracture site.
5
Q
5. Which of the following describes a Colles’ fracture? a. The distal radius is broken. b. The distal fibula is broken. c. A vertebra appears crushed. d. A spontaneous fracture occurs in weakened bone.
A
a.
The distal radius is broken.
6
Q
- During the fracture healing process, the hematoma:
a.
is broken down and absorbed immediately.
b.
provides the base for bone cells to produce new bone.
c.
is the structure into which granulation tissue grows.
d.
produces fibroblasts to lay down new cartilage.
A
c.
is the structure into which granulation tissue grows.
7
Q
- When a fracture is healing, the procallus or fibrocartilaginous callus:
a.
can bear weight.
b.
serves as a splint across the fracture site.
c.
is the tissue that lays down new cartilage.
d.
is made up of new bone.
A
b.
serves as a splint across the fracture site.
8
Q
8. The inflammation surrounding a fracture site during the first few days may complicate healing by causing: a. excessive bone movement. b. severe ischemia and tissue necrosis. c. malunion or nonunion. d. fat emboli to form.
A
b.
severe ischemia and tissue necrosis.
9
Q
9. What is a sign of a dislocation? a. Crepitus b. Pain and tenderness c. Increased range of motion at a joint d. Deformity at a joint
A
d.
Deformity at a joint
10
Q
10. All of the following predispose to osteoporosis EXCEPT: a. weight-bearing activity. b. a sedentary lifestyle. c. long-term intake of glucocorticoids. d. calcium deficit.
A
a.
weight-bearing activity.
11
Q
- Which of the following statements does NOT apply to osteoporosis?
a.
Bone resorption is greater than bone formation.
b.
It causes compression fractures of the vertebrae.
c.
Osteoporosis is always a primary disorder.
d.
It often leads to kyphosis and loss of height.
A
c.
Osteoporosis is always a primary disorder.
12
Q
12. Which of the following best describes the typical bone pain caused by osteogenic sarcoma? a. Intermittent, increasing with activity b. Sharp, increased with joint movement c. Mild, aching when weight-bearing d. Steady, severe, and persisting with rest
A
d.
Steady, severe, and persisting with rest
13
Q
13. How is Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy inherited? a. Autosomal recessive gene b. X-linked recessive gene c. Autosomal dominant gene d. Codominant gene
A
b.
X-linked recessive gene
14
Q
- Which of the following is true about Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy?
a.
There is difficulty climbing stairs or standing up at 2 to 3 years of age.
b.
It involves only the legs and pelvis.
c.
Skeletal muscle atrophy can be seen in the legs of a toddler.
d.
It cannot be detected in any carriers.
A
a.
There is difficulty climbing stairs or standing up at 2 to 3 years of age.
15
Q
15. The most common type of joint, which are freely movable, are called: a. Synarthroses b. Amphiarthroses c. Anarthroses d. Diarthroses
A
d.
Diarthroses
16
Q
- Which of the following is characteristic of osteoarthritis?
a.
Inflammation and fibrosis develop at the joints.
b.
Degeneration of articulating cartilage occurs in the large joints.
c.
It progresses bilaterally through the small joints.
d.
There are no changes in the bone at the affected joints.
A
b.
Degeneration of articulating cartilage occurs in the large joints.
17
Q
17. What is a typical characteristic of the pain caused by osteoarthritis? a. Decreases over time b. Quite severe in the early stages c. Aggravated by general muscle aching d. Increased with weight-bearing and activity
A
d.
Increased with weight-bearing and activity
18
Q
- What limits joint movement in osteoarthritis?
a.
The osteophytes and irregular cartilage surface
b.
The wider joint space
c.
Decreased amount of synovial fluid in the cavity
d.
Fibrosis involving the joint capsule and ligaments
A
a.
The osteophytes and irregular cartilage surface
19
Q
- Joints affected by osteoarthritis can sometimes affect healthy joints by:
a.
causing enzymes to be released that travel to other joints.
b.
bacteria traveling from the affected join to a healthy one through the bloodstream.
c.
inflammation and edema affecting the entire limb.
d.
the affected individual’s exerting stress on the normal joint to protect the damaged one.
A
d.
the affected individual’s exerting stress on the normal joint to protect the damaged one.
20
Q
- What is the typical joint involvement with rheumatoid arthritis?
a.
Random single joints, progressing to involve other joints
b.
Bilateral small joints, symmetrical progression to other joints
c.
Abused or damaged joints first, then joints damaged by compensatory movement
d.
Progressive degeneration in selected joints
A
b.
Bilateral small joints, symmetrical progression to other joints
21
Q
- What is the basic pathology of rheumatoid arthritis?
a.
Degenerative disorder involving the small joints
b.
Chronic inflammatory disorder affecting all joints
c.
Systemic inflammatory disorder due to an autoimmune reaction
d.
Inflammatory disorder causing damage to many organs
A
c.
Systemic inflammatory disorder due to an autoimmune reaction
22
Q
- How is the articular cartilage damaged in rheumatoid arthritis?
a.
Enzymatic destruction by the pannus
b.
Inflamed synovial membrane covers the cartilage
c.
Fibrous tissue connects the ends of the bones
d.
Blood supply to the cartilage is lost
A
a.
Enzymatic destruction by the pannus
23
Q
23. How does the joint appear during an exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis? a. Relatively normal b. Enlarged, firm, crepitus with movement c. Deformed, pale, and nodular d. Red, warm, swollen, and tender to touch
A
d.
Red, warm, swollen, and tender to touch
24
Q
24. Ankylosis and deformity develop in rheumatoid arthritis because: a. skeletal muscle hypertrophies. b. fibrosis occurs in the joint. c. replacement cartilage changes alignment. d. ligaments and tendons shorten.
A
a.
skeletal muscle hypertrophies.
25
```
25. Systemic effects of rheumatoid arthritis are manifested as:
a.
nodules in various tissues, severe fatigue, and anorexia.
b.
headache, leukopenia, and high fever.
c.
swelling and dysfunction in many organs.
d.
progressive damage to a joint.
```
a.
| nodules in various tissues, severe fatigue, and anorexia.
26
```
26. What is a common effect of long-term use of glucocorticoids to treat rheumatoid arthritis?
a.
Leukocytosis
b.
Osteoporosis
c.
Severe anemia
d.
Orthostatic hypotension
```
b.
| Osteoporosis
27
27. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) differs from the adult form in that:
a.
only small joints are affected.
b.
rheumatoid factor is not present in JRA, but systemic effects are more severe.
c.
onset is more insidious in JRA.
d.
deformity and loss of function occur in most children with JRA.
b.
| rheumatoid factor is not present in JRA, but systemic effects are more severe.
28
28. Which of the following distinguishes septic arthritis?
a.
Multiple joints that are swollen, red, and painful at one time
b.
Presence of mild fever, fatigue, and leukocytosis
c.
Purulent synovial fluid present in a single, swollen joint
d.
Presence of many antibodies in the blood
c.
| Purulent synovial fluid present in a single, swollen joint
29
```
29. Which of the following may precipitate an attack of gout?
a.
A sudden increase in serum uric acid levels
b.
Severe hypercalcemia
c.
Mild trauma to the toes
d.
Development of a tophus
```
a.
| A sudden increase in serum uric acid levels
30
30. Where does inflammation usually begin in an individual with ankylosing spondylitis?
a.
Costovertebral joints with progression down the spine
b.
Cervical and thoracic vertebrae, causing kyphosis
c.
Sacroiliac joints with progression up the spine
d.
Peripheral joints and then proceeds to the vertebrae
c.
| Sacroiliac joints with progression up the spine
31
31. What is a common outcome of fibrosis, calcification, and fusion of the spine in ankylosing spondylitis?
a.
Damage to the spinal nerves and loss of function
b.
Frequent fractures of long bones
c.
Impaired heart function
d.
Rigidity, postural changes, and osteoporosis
d.
| Rigidity, postural changes, and osteoporosis
32
```
32. Which statement applies to menisci?
a.
They are found in the hip joints.
b.
They are secretory membranes in joints.
c.
They prevent excessive movement of joints.
d.
They are found in the shoulder joint.
```
c.
| They prevent excessive movement of joints.
33
33. Which factors delay healing of bone fractures?
1. Lack of movement of the bone
2. Prolonged inflammation and ischemia
3. Presence of osteomyelitis
4. Close approximation of bone ends
a.
1, 2
b.
1, 3
c.
2, 3
d.
3, 4
c.
| 2, 3
34
```
34. What is the likely immediate result of fat emboli from a broken femur?
a.
Additional ischemia in the broken bone
b.
Nonunion or malunion of the fracture
c.
Pulmonary inflammation and obstruction
d.
Abscess and infection at a distant site
```
Pulmonary inflammation and obstruction
35
```
35. A sprain is a tear in a:
a.
ligament.
b.
tendon.
c.
skeletal muscle.
d.
meniscus.
```
a.
| ligament.
36
```
36. Therapeutic measures for osteoporosis include:
a.
non–weight-bearing exercises.
b.
dietary supplements of calcium and vitamin D.
c.
transplants of osteoblasts.
d.
avoidance of all hormones.
```
b.
| dietary supplements of calcium and vitamin D.
37
37. What is the distinguishing feature of primary fibromyalgia syndrome?
a.
Joint pain and stiffness throughout the body
b.
Degeneration and atrophy of skeletal muscles in back and lower limbs
c.
Localized areas of constant pain
d.
Specific trigger points for pain and tenderness
d.
| Specific trigger points for pain and tenderness
38
```
38. Ewing’s sarcoma metastasizes at an early stage to the:
a.
brain.
b.
liver.
c.
lungs.
d.
other bones.
```
c.
| lungs.
39
```
39. Immovable joints are called:
a.
amphiarthroses.
b.
synarthroses.
c.
diarthroses.
d.
synovial joints.
```
b.
| synarthroses.
40
```
40. Rickets results from:
a.
excessive bone resorption by osteoclasts.
b.
a deficit of vitamin D and phosphates.
c.
replacement of bone by fibrous tissue.
d.
hyperparathyroidism.
```
b.
| a deficit of vitamin D and phosphates.
41
```
41. Paget’s disease often leads to which of the following?
a.
A reduction in bone fractures
b.
Decreased intracranial pressure
c.
Cardiovascular disease
d.
Disintegration of joint cartilage
```
c.
| Cardiovascular disease
42
```
42. Bones classified as “irregular” would include:
a.
skull bones.
b.
the mandible.
c.
wrist bones.
d.
the femur.
```
b.
| the mandible.
43
43. A dislocation is:
a.
the tearing of a tendon in the joint.
b.
the separation of bones in the joint with a loss of contact.
c.
the twisting of a joint, causing excessive inflammation of the surrounding tissue.
d.
the overstressing of ligaments, causing loss of elasticity.
b.
| the separation of bones in the joint with a loss of contact.
44
```
44. A diagnostic test that measures the electrical charge of muscle contraction and can help differentiate muscle disorders from neurological disease is a/an:
a.
electromyogram.
b.
arthroscopy.
c.
radiograph.
d.
electroencephalograph.
```
a.
| electromyogram.
45
```
45. The type of compound fracture in which there are multiple fracture lines and bone fragments is referred to as a/an:
a.
compression fracture.
b.
greenstick fracture.
c.
simple fracture.
d.
comminuted fracture.
```
d.
| comminuted fracture.
46
```
46. Fluid-filled sacs composed of synovial membrane located between structures such as tendons and ligaments and act as additional cushions are called:
a.
articular capsules.
b.
bursae.
c.
synovial sacs.
d.
hyaline chambers.
```
b.
| bursae.
Pathophysiology III
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