AWS Cloud Practitioner > Cloud Practitioner - PRACTICE 5 > Flashcards

Cloud Practitioner - PRACTICE 5 Flashcards

(65 cards)

Study These Flashcards
1
Q

Which AWS service can be used to prepare and load data for analytics using an extract, transform and load (EL) process?

  1. AWS Lambda
  2. AWS Glue
  3. Amazon EMR
  4. Amazon Athena
A

AWS Glue

AWS Glue is a fully managed extract, transform, and load (ETL) service that makes it easy for customers to prepare and load their data for analytics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which AWS service can be used to send automated notifications to HTTP endpoints?

  1. Amazon SQS
  2. Amazon SWF
  3. Amazon SNS
  4. Amazon SES
A

Amazon Simple Notification Service

(Amazon SNS) is a web service that makes it easy to set up, operate, and send notifications from the cloud. SNS can be used to send automated or manual notifications to email, mobile (SMS), SQS, and HTTP endpoints.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following constitute the five pillars for the AWS Well-Architected Framework? (Select TWO.)

  1. Operational excellence, security,
    and reliability
  2. Operational excellence, elasticity and
    scalability
  3. Cost prioritization, and cost optimization
  4. Data consistency, and cost optimization
  5. Performance efficiency, and cost optimization
A

Operational excellence, security, and reliability & Performance efficiency, and cost optimization

The five pillars of the AWS Well-Architected Framework are operational excellence, security, reliability, performance efficiency, and cost optimization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Assuming you have configured them correctly, which AWS services can scale automatically without intervention? (Select TWO.)

  1. Amazon RDS
  2. Amazon EC2
  3. Amazon S3
  4. Amazon DynamoDB
  5. Amazon EBS
A

Amazon S3 & Dynamo DB

Both S3 and DynamoDB automatically scale as demand dictates. In the case of DynamoDB you can either configure the on-demand or provisioned capacity mode. With on-demand capacity mode DynamoDB automatically adjusts the read and write throughput for you.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which AWS components aid in the construction of fault-tolerant
applications? (Select TWO.)

  1. Elastic IP addresses
  2. ARNs
  3. AMIs
  4. Tags
  5. Block device mappings
A

Elastic IP addresses & AMIs

Elastic IP addresses can be easily remapped between EC2 instances in the event of a failure. Amazon Machine Images (AMIs) can be used to quickly launch replacement instances when there is a failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A company wants to utilize a pay as you go cloud model for all of their applications without CAPEX costs and which is highly elastic. Which cloud delivery model will suit them best?

  1. Public
  2. Private
  3. Hybrid
  4. On-premise
A

Public

The public cloud is offered under a purely pay as you go model (unless you choose to reserve), and allows companies to completely avoid CAPEX costs. The public cloud is also highly elastic so companies can grow and shrink the applications as demand changes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following are advantages of using the AWS cloud computing over legacy IT? (Select TWO.)

  1. You are able to pass responsibility for the availability of your application to AWS
  2. You don’t need to worry about over
    provisioning as you can elastically scale
  3. You don’t need to patch your operating
    systems
  4. You can bring new applications to market faster
  5. You can bring services closer to your end users
A

You don’t need to worry about over provisioning as you can elastically scale & You can bring new applications to market faster

With cloud computing you no longer need to guess about capacity as you can elastically scale. This means you don’t end up overprovisioning but instead react to the load on your servers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which AWS services form the app-facing services of the AWS serverless infrastructure? (Select TWO.)

  1. AWS Step Functions
  2. AWS Lambda
  3. Amazon API Gateway
  4. Amazon DynamoDB
  5. Amazon EFS
A

AWS Lambda & Amazon API Gateway

AWS Lambda and Amazon API Gateway are both app-facing components of the AWS Serverless infrastructure AWS Step Functions is an orchestration service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the name of the AWS managed Docker registry service used by the Amazon Elastic Container Service (ECS)?

  1. Elastic Container Registry
  2. ECS Container Registry
  3. Docker Container Registry
  4. Docker Image Repository
A

Amazon Elastic Container Registry

Amazon Elastic Container Registry (ECR) is a fully- managed Docker container registry that makes it easy for developers to store, manage, and deploy Docker container images.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are two benefits of using AWS Lambda? (Select TWO.)

  1. No servers to manage
  2. Integrated snapshots
  3. Continuous scaling (scale out)
  4. Flexible operating system choices
  5. Open source software
A

No servers to manage & Continuous scaling (scale out)

With AWS Lambda you don’t have any servers to manage (serverless). Lambda functions scale out rather than up running multiple invocations of the function in parallel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

With which service can a developer upload code using a ZIP or WAR file and have the service handle the end-to-end deployment of the resources?

  1. AWS CodeDeploy
  2. AWS Elastic Beanstalk
  3. Amazon ECS
  4. AWS CodeCommit
A

AWS Elastic Beanstalk

AWS Elastic Beanstalk can be used to quickly deploy and manage applications in the AWS Cloud. Developers upload applications and Elastic Beanstalk handles the deployment details of capacity provisioning, load balancing, auto-scaling, and application health monitoring.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which service can you use to monitor, store and access log files generated by EC2 instances and on-premises servers?

  1. AWS CloudTrail
  2. AWS Ops Works
  3. Amazon CloudWatch Logs
  4. Amazon Kinesis
A

Amazon CloudWatch Logs

You can use Amazon CloudWatch Logs to monitor, store, and access your log files from Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) instances, AWS CloudTrail, Route 53, and other sources. You can then retrieve the associated log data from CloudWatch Logs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What offerings are included in the Amazon Lightsail product set? (Select TWO.)

  1. Virtual Private Server
  2. NoSQL database
  3. Managed MySQL database
  4. Object storage
  5. Serverless functions
A

Virtual Private Server & Managed MySQL database

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which AWS service is part of the suite of “serverless” services and runs code as functions?

  1. Amazon ECS
  2. Amazon EKS
  3. AWS Lambda
  4. AWS CodeCommit
A

AWS Lambda

AWS Lambda is a serverless compute service that runs your code in response to events and automatically manages the underlying compute resources for you. The code you run on AWS Lambda is called a “Lambda function”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

To reward customers for using their services, what are two ways AWS reduce prices? (Select TWO.)

  1. Volume based discounts when you use more services
  2. Reduction in inbound data transfer charges
  3. Reduced cost for reserved capacity
  4. Discounts for using a wider variety of services
  5. Removal of termination fees for customers who spend more
A

Volume based discounts when you use more services & Reduced cost for reserved capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which type of Amazon RDS automated backup allows you to restore the database with a granularity of as little as 5 minutes?

  1. Snapshot backup
  2. Full backup
  3. Incremental backup
  4. Point-in-time recovery
A

Point-in-time recovery

You can restore an Amazon RDS database instance to a specific point in time with a granularity of 5 minutes. Amazon RDS uses transaction logs which it uploads to Amazon S3 to do this.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which DynamoDB feature provides in-memory acceleration to tables that result in significant performance improvements?

  1. Amazon ElastiCache
  2. Amazon DynamoDB Accelerator (DAX)
  3. Amazon EFS
  4. Amazon CloudFront
A

Amazon DynamoDB Accelerator (DAX)

Amazon DynamoDB Accelerator (DAX) is a fully managed, highly available, in-memory cache for DynamoDB that delivers up to a 10x performance improvement - from milliseconds to microseconds - even at millions of requests per second.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which AWS service lets connected devices easily and securely interact with cloud applications and other devices?

  1. Amazon Workspaces
  2. AWS Directory Service
  3. AWS IoT Core
  4. AWS Server Migration Service (SMS)
A

AWS IoT Core

AWS IoT Core is a managed cloud service that lets connected devices easily and securely interact with cloud applications and other devices. AWS IoT Core can support billions of devices and trillions of messages, and can process and route those messages to AWS endpoints and to other devices reliably and securely.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which AWS service enables developers and data scientists to build, train, and deploy machine learning models?

  1. Amazon Rekognition
  2. Amazon Comprehend
  3. Amazon SageMaker
  4. Amazon MQ
A

Amazon SageMaker

Amazon SageMaker is a fully-managed platform that enables developers and data scientists to quickly and easily build, train, and deploy machine learning models at any scale. Amazon SageMaker removes all the barriers that typically slow down developers who want to use machine learning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which service provides alerts and remediation guidance when AWS is experiencing events that may impact you?

  1. AWS Trusted Advisor
  2. AWS Inspector
  3. AWS Personal Health Dashboard
  4. AWS Shield
A

AWS Personal Health Dashboard

AWS Personal Health Dashboard provides alerts and remediation guidance when AWS is experiencing events that may impact you.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the primary benefits of using AWS Elastic Load Balancing? (Select TWO.)

  1. High availability
  2. Elasticity
  3. Automation
  4. Caching
  5. Regional resilience
A

High availability & Elasticity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is an Edge location?

  1. A public endpoint for Amazon S3
  2. A content delivery network (CDN) endpoint for CloudFront
  3. A virtual private gateway for VPN
  4. A VPC peering connection endpoint
A

A content delivery network (CDN) endpoint for CloudFront

Edge locations are Content Delivery Network (CDN) endpoints for CloudFront. There are many more edge locations than regions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the relationship between subnets and availability zones?

  1. You can create one or more subnets within each availability zone
  2. Subnets span across multiple availability zones
  3. You can create one subnet per availability zone
  4. Subnets contain one or more availability zones
A

You can create one or more subnets within each availability zone

You can create one or more subnets within each availability zone but subnets cannot span across availability zones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How can you configure Amazon Route 53 to monitor the health and performance of your application?

  1. Using DNS lookups
  2. Using Route 53 health checks
  3. Using the Route 53 API
  4. Using Cloud Watch
A

Amazon Route 53 Health Checks

Amazon Route 53 health checks monitor the health and performance of your web applications, web servers, and other resources. None of the other options provide a solution that can check the health and performance of an application.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
A developer needs a way to automatically provision a collection of AWS resources. Which AWS service is primarily used for deploying infrastructure as code? 1. AWS Elastic Beanstalk 2. AWS CloudFormation 3. AWS CodeDeploy 4. Jenkins
**AWS CloudFormation** AWS CloudFormation is a service that gives developers and businesses an easy way to create a collection of related AWS resources and provision them in an orderly and predictable fashion. AWS CloudFormation provides a common language for you to describe and provision all the infrastructure resources in your cloud environment.
26
How can a company connect from their on-premises network to VPCs in multiple regions using private connections? 1. AWS Managed VPN 2. AWS Direct Connect Gateway 3. Amazon CloudFront 4. Inter-Region VPC Peering
**AWS Direct Connect Gateway** You can use an AWS Direct Connect gateway to connect your AWS Direct Connect connection over a private virtual interface to one or more PCs in your account that are located in the same or different Regions
27
Which of the following descriptions is incorrect in relation to the design of Availability Zones? 1. AZ's have direct, low-latency, high throughput and redundant network connections between each other 2. Each AZ is designed as an independent failure zone 3. AZs are physically separated within a typical metropolitan region and are located in lower risk flood plains 4. Each subnet in a VPC is mapped to all AZs in the region
**Each subnet in a VPC is mapped to all AZs in the region**
28
When designing a VPC, what is the purpose of an Internet Gateway? 1. Provides Internet access for EC2 instances in private subnets 2. Enables Internet communications for instances in public subnets 3. It's a bastion host for inbound management connections 4. It's used for making VPN connections to a VPC
**Enables Internet communications for instances in public subnets** An internet gateway is a horizontally scaled, redundant, and highly available VPC component that allows communication between instances in your VPC and the internet. It therefore imposes no availability risks or bandwidth constraints on your network traffic.
29
What is the name of the online, self-service portal that AWS provides to enable customers to view reports and, such as PCI reports, and accept agreements? 1. AWS Compliance Portal 2. AWS Documentation Portal 3. AWS Artifact 4. AWS DocuFact
**AWS Artifact** AWS Artifact is your go-to, central resource for compliance-related information that matters to you. It provides on-demand access to AWS' security and compliance reports and select online agreements.
30
What are two correct statements about AWS Organizations with consolidated billing? (Select TWO.) 1. Multiple bills are provided per organization 2. One bill provided for multiple accounts 3. Linked accounts lose their management independence 4. Volume pricing discounts applied across multiple accounts 5. CloudTrail can be configured per organization
**One bill provided for multiple accounts & Volume pricing discounts applied across multiple accounts** With AWS organizations you create a paying account and linked accounts. One bill is provided for multiple accounts within an organization. Volume pricing discounts can be applied across resources in multiple accounts.
31
Which AWS IAM best practice recommends applying the minimum permissions necessary to perform a task when creating IAM policies? 1. Create individual IAM users 2. Use roles to delegate permissions 3. Grant least privilege 4. Enable MFA for privileged users
**Grant least privilege** When you create IAM policies, follow the standard security advice of granting least privilege that is, granting only the permissions required to perform a task. Determine what users need to do and then craft policies for them that let the users perform only those tasks.
32
What are the benefits of using IAM roles for applications that run on EC2 instances? (Select TWO.) 1. Easier to configure than using storing access keys within the EC2 instance 2. More secure than storing access keys within applications 3. Can apply multiple roles to a single instance 4. It is easier to manage IAM roles 5. Role credentials are permanent
**More secure than storing access keys within applications & It is easier to manage IAM roles** Using IAM roles instead of storing credentials within EC2 instances is more secure It is also easier to manage roles.
33
Under the AWS Shared Responsibility Model, which of the following is the customer NOT responsible for? 1. Adding firewall rules to security groups and network ACLs 2. Applying encryption to data stored on an EBS volume 3. Applying bucket policies to share Amazon S3 data 4. Installing firmware updates on host servers
**Installing firmware updates on host servers** AWS customers are not responsible for installing firmware updates on the underlying infrastructure. AWS customers must protect their AWS services through policies, encryption, and firewall rules.
34
Which type of storage stores objects comprised of key, value pairs? 1. Amazon DynamoDB 2. Amazon EBS 3. Amazon EFS 4. Amazon S3
**Amazon S3** Amazon Simple Storage Service is storage for the Internet. It is designed to make web-scale computing easier for developers. Amazon S3 is an object-based storage system that stores objects that are comprised of key, value pairs.
35
Which type of EBS volumes can be encrypted? 1. Non-root volumes only 2. Both non-root and root volumes 3. Only non-root volumes created from snapshots 4. Only root volumes can have encryption applied at launch time
**Both non-root and root volumes**
36
What feature of Amazon S3 enables you to set rules to automatically transfer objects between different storage classes at defined time intervals? 1. Elastic Data Management 2. Object Lifecycle Management 3. Auto Lifecycle Scaling 4. S3 Archiving
**Object Lifecycle Management** Object lifecycle management can be used with objects so that they are stored cost effectively throughout their lifecycle. Objects can be transitioned to another storage class or expired.
37
What charges are applicable to Amazon S3 Standard storage class? (Select TWO.) 1. Per GB/month storage fee 2. Retrieval fee 3. Minimum capacity charge per object 4. Data ingress 5. Data egress
**Per GB/month storage fee & Data egress** With the standard storage class you pay a per GB/month storage fee, and data transfer out of S3. Standard-IA and One Zone-IA have a minimum capacity charge per object. Standard-IA, One Zone-IA, and Glacier also have a retrieval fee. You don't pay for data into S3 under any storage class.
38
How can a company protect their Amazon S3 data from a regional disaster? 1. Archive to Amazon Glacier 2. Use Cross-Region Replication (CRR) to copy to another region 3. Use lifecycle actions to move to another S3 storage class 4. Enable Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) delete
**Use Cross-Region Replication (CRR) to copy to another region** Cross-Region replication (CRR) is used to copy objects across Amazon S3 buckets in different AWS Regions. The only option here that will help is to use CRR to copy the data to another region. This will provide disaster recovery.
39
Which AWS support plan provides email only support by Cloud Support Associates? 1. Basic 2. Developer 3. Business 4. Enterprise
**Developer** Developer provides email support by the Cloud Support Associates team whereas Business and Enterprise provide email, 24×7 phone and chat access to Cloud Support Engineers. Basic does not provide email support at all.
40
Which support plan is the lowest cost option that allows unlimited cases to be open? 1. Basic 2. Developer 3. Business 4. Enterprise
**Developer** With the Developer plan you can open unlimited cases. You can also open unlimited cases with the Business and Enterprise plans but these are more expensive. You cannot open any support cases with the basic support plan.
41
Which service allows an organization to bring their own licensing on host hardware that is physically isolated from other AWS accounts? 1. EC2 Dedicated Instances 2. EC2 Spot Instances 3. EC2 Dedicated Hosts 4. EC2 Reserved Instances
**EC2 Dedicated Hosts** An Amazon EC2 Dedicated Host is a physical server with EC2 instance capacity fully dedicated to your use. Dedicated Hosts allow you to use your existing per-socket, per-core, or per-VM software licenses, including Windows Server, Microsoft SQL Server, SUSE, Linux Enterprise Server, and so on.
42
Which of the below is an example of optimizing for cost? 1. Choosing the fastest EC2 instance to ensure performance 2. Provision extra capacity to allow for growth 3. Replace an EC2 compute instance with AWS Lambda 4. Deploy resources with AWS CloudFormation
**Replace an EC2 compute instance with AWS Lambda** Where possible, you should replace EC2 workloads with AWS managed services that don't require you to take any capacity decisions. AWS Lambda is a serverless services and you only pay for actual processing time. Other examples of services that you don't need to make capacity decisions with include: ELB, CloudFront, SQS, Kinesis Firehose, SES, and CloudSearch.
43
Which service is used for caching data? 1. Amazon Simple Queue Service (SQS) 2. Amazon DynamoDB DAX 3. AWS Key Management Service (KMS) 4. Amazon Elastic File System (EFS)
**Amazon DynamoDB Accelerator (DAX)** Amazon DynamoDB Accelerator (DAX) is a fully managed, highly available, in-memory cache for DynamoDB that delivers up to a 10x performance improvement - from milliseconds to microseconds - even at millions of requests per second.
44
Which service is used introduce fault tolerance into an application architecture? 1. Amazon CloudFront 2. Amazon ElastiCache 3. Amazon Elastic Load Balancing 4. Amazon DynamoDB
**Amazon Elastic Load Balancing** Amazon Elastic Load Balancing is used to spread load and introduce fault tolerance by distributing connections across multiple identically configured back-end EC2 instances.
45
Which tools can you use to manage identities in IAM? (choose 2) 1. Amazon Cloud Watch API 2. AWS Management Console 3. AWS Command Line Tools 4. EC2 Management Console 5. Amazon Workspaces
**AWS Management Console & AWS Command Line Tools** You can manage AWS Identity and Access Management identities through the AWS Management Console, AWS Command Line Tools, AWS SDKs, and IAM HTTPS API.
46
Which of the following would be good reasons to move from on-premises to the AWS Cloud? (Select TWO.) 1. Gain access to free technical support services 2. Reduce costs through easier right-sizing of workloads 3. Improve agility and elasticity 4. Gain end-to-end operational management of the entire infrastructure stack 5. Outsource all security responsibility
**Reduce costs through easier right-sizing of workloads & Improve agility and elasticity**
47
Which service runs your application code only when needed without needing to run servers? 1. Amazon EC2 2. Amazon ECS 3. AWS Lambda 4. AWS LightSail
**AWS Lambda** AWS Lambda is a serverless service that runs code as "functions". That means that your code is run when needed but there are no servers running (at least not servers that you see or manage). This reduces cost and operational overhead.
48
Which AWS feature of Amazon EC2 allows an administrator to create a standardized image that can be used for launching new instances? 1. Amazon Golden Image 2. Amazon Block Template 3. Amazon Machine Image (AMI) 4. Amazon EBS Mount Point
**Amazon Machine Image (AMI)** An Amazon Machine Image (AMI) provides the information required to launch an instance. You can use an AMI to launch identical instances from a standard template. This is also known as a Golden Image (though no such feature exists in AWS with this name). An AMI is created from an EBS snapshot and also includes launch permissions and a block device mapping.
49
What information must be entered into the AWS TCO Calculator? 1. The number of end users in your company 2. The number of applications in your company 3. The number of storage systems in your company 4. The number of servers in your company
**The number of servers in your company**
50
An Elastic IP Address can be remapped between EC2 instances across which boundaries? 1. Regions 2. Edge Locations 3. Availability Zones 4. DB Subnets
**Availability Zones** You can use Elastic IP addresses to mask the failure of an instance in one Availability Zone by rapidly remapping the address to an instance in another Availability Zone.
51
Which AWS service can assist with providing recommended actions on cost optimization? 1. AWS Inspector 2. AWS Trusted Advisor 3. AWS Artifact 4. Amazon Cloud Watch Events
**Trusted Advisor** Trusted Advisor is an online resource that helps to reduce cost, increase performance and improve security by optimizing your AWS environment.
52
How can an online education company ensure their video courses play with minimal latency for their users around the world? 1. Use Amazon S3 Transfer Acceleration to speed up downloads 2. Use Amazon EBS Cross Region Replication to get the content close to the users 3. Use Amazon Aurora Global Database 4. Use Amazon CloudFront to get the content closer to users
**Use Amazon CloudFront to get the content closer to users** Amazon CloudFront is a content delivery network (CDN) that enables you to cache content in Edge Locations that are located around the world. This brings your media closer to your end users which reduces latency and improves the user experience.
53
Which AWS security service provides a firewall at the subnet level within a VPC? 1. Security Group 2. IAM Policy 3. Bucket Policy 4. Network Access Control List
**Network Access Control List** A Network ACL is a firewall that is associated with a subnet within your VPC. It is used to filter the network traffic that enters and exits the subnet.
54
Which services allow you to store files on AWS? (Select TWO.) 1. AWS Lambda 2. Amazon LightSail 3. Amazon EBS 4. Amazon EFS 5. Amazon SQS
**Amazon EBS & Amazon EFS**
55
Which AWS program can help an organization to design, build, and manage their workloads on AWS? 1. APN Consulting Partners 2. APN Technology Consultants 3. AWS Business Development Manager 4. AWS Technical Account Manager
**APN Consulting Partners**
56
Which of the following statements is correct about Amazon S3 cross-region replication? 1. Both source and destination S3 buckets must have versioning disabled 2. The source and destination S3 buckets cannot be in different AWS Regions 3. S3 buckets configured for cross-region replication can be owned by a single AWS account or by different accounts 4. The source $3 bucket owner must have the source and destination AWS Regions disabled for their account
**S3 buckets configured for cross-region replication can be owned by a single AWS account or by different accounts**
57
Which of the following Amazon EC2 pricing models allows customers to use existing server-bound software licenses? 1. Spot Instances 2. Reserved Instances 3. Dedicated Hosts 4. On-Demand Instances
**Dedicated Hosts** Amazon EC2 Dedicated Hosts allow you to use your eligible software licenses from vendors such as Microsoft and Oracle on Amazon EC2, so that you get the flexibility and cost effectiveness of using your own licenses, but with the resiliency, simplicity and elasticity of AWS.
58
A company has deployed several relational databases on Amazon RDS. Every month, the database software vendor releases new security patches that need to be applied to the database. What is the MOST efficient way to apply the security patches? 1. Connect to each database instance on a monthly basis, and download and apply the necessary security patches from the vendor 2. Enable automatic patching for the instances using the Amazon RDS console 3. In AWS Config, configure a rule for the instances and the required patch level 4. Use AWS Systems Manager to automate database patching according to a schedule
**Enable automatic patching for the instances using the Amazon RDS console**
59
A Cloud Practitioner needs to rapidly deploy a popular IT solution and start using it immediately. What should the Cloud Practitioner use? 1. AWS Well-Architected Framework documentation 2. Amazon CloudFront 3. AWS Elastic Beanstalk 4. AWS Quick Start reference deployments
**AWS Quick Start reference deployments** Quick Starts are built by AWS solutions architects and partners to help you deploy popular technologies on AWS, based on AWS best practices for security and high availability.
60
A cloud practitioner needs to decrease application latency and increase performance for globally distributed users. Which services can assist? (Select TWO) 1. Amazon ECS 2. Amazon S3 3. Amazon AppStream 2.0 4. Amazon ElastiCache 5. Amazon CloudFront
**Amazon S3 & Amazon CloudFront**
61
A company needs protection from distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks on its website and assistance from AWS experts during such events. Which AWS managed service will meet these requirements? 1. AWS Shield Advanced 2. AWS Firewall Manager 3. AWS Web Application Firewall 4. Amazon GuardDuty
**AWS Shield Advanced** AWS Shield Advanced provides enhanced detection and includes a specialized support team for customers on Enterprise or Business support plans. The AWS DDoS Response Team (DRT) are available 24/7 and can be engaged before, during, or after a DDoS attack.
62
Which of the following must be used together to gain programmatic access to an AWS account? (Select TWO.) 1. An access key ID 2. A primary key 3. A secret access key 4. A user ID 5. A secondary key
**An access key ID & A secret access key**
63
An application that is deployed across multiple Availability Zones could be described as: 1. Being highly available 2. Having global reach 3. Being secure 4. Having elasticity
**Being highly available** When you deploy an application across multiple Availability Zones the application can be considered to be highly available. You must also have a way of directing traffic to the application in each AZ such as an Elastic Load Balancer.
64
A Cloud Practitioner is developing a disaster recovery plan and intends to replicate data between multiple geographic areas. Which of the following meets these requirements? 1. AWS Accounts 2. AWS Regions 3. Availability Zones 4. Edge locations
**AWS Regions** AWS has the concept of a Region, which is a physical location around the world where we cluster data centers. We call each group of logical data centers an Availability Zone. Each AWS Region consists of multiple, isolated, and physically separate AZ's within a geographic area.
65
A user deploys an Amazon Aurora database instance in multiple Availability Zones. This strategy involves which pillar of the AWS Well-Architected Framework? 1. Performance efficiency 2. Reliability 3. Cost optimization 4. Security
**Reliability** The reliability pillar includes the ability of a system to recover from infrastructure or service disruptions, dynamically acquire computing resources to meet demand, and mitigate disruptions such as misconfigurations or transient network issues.
AWS Cloud Practitioner
flashcards
Decks in class (6)
# Cards
Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2026 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions