[COMPRE] 2024 Flashcards by MD Soon

Hip flexion is done by all EXCEPT:

A. Ilio-psoas
B. Pectineus
C. Sartorius
D. Semitendinosus

d. Semitendinosus

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The stability of the ankle joint is maintained by all of the following except:

A. Plantar calcaneonavicular (spring) ligament
B. Deltoid ligament
C. Lateral ligament
D. Shape of the superior talar articular surface

d. Shape of the superior talar articular surface

*A. Plantar calcaneonavicular (spring) ligament

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Stability of ankle joint is maintained by all except:

A. Collateral ligaments
B. Cruciate ligaments
C. Tendons of muscles crossing the joint
D. Close apposition of articular surfaces of bones

b. Cruciate ligaments

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Deltoid ligament has all the following components except:

A. Anterior tibiotalar
B.Tibionavicular
C. Tibiocalcaneal
D. Calcaneonavicular

d. Calcaneonavicular

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Plantar flexion is brought about by which of these muscles except:

A. Plantaris
B. Flexor Hallucis Longus
C. Tibialis anterior
D. Soleus

c. Tibialis anterior

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Clinically, inflammation in which of the following organs is least likely to present as periumbilical pain?

A. Ascending colon
B. Descending colon
C. Ileum
D. Jejunum
E. Proximal duodenum

B. Descending colon

E. Proximal duodenum

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

During abdominal surgery, resection of a portion of the descending colon necessitates the sacrifice of a nerve lying on the surface of the psoas major muscle. Which of the following nerves would most likely be sacrificed?

A. Femoral
B. Genitofemoral
C. Llioinguinal
D. Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
E. Subcostal

B. Genitofemoral

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

At autopsy it is discovered that the deceased had three ureters, one on the left side and two on the right the condition was apparently asymptomatic. Which of the following embryonic events might account for the presence of two ureters on one side?

A. Duplication of the mesonephric duct
B. Early splitting of the ureteric bud
C. Failure of the mesonephros to form
D. Failure of the urorectal septum to form
E. Persistent allantois

B. Early splitting of the ureteric bud

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

You, as a resident, are assisting the chief surgeon during abdominal surgery and mistakenly clamp the hepatoduodenal ligament! Which of the following vessels would most likely be occluded as a
result?

A. Common hepatic artery
B. Hepatic vein
C. Inferior vena cava
D. Proper hepatic artery
E. Superior mesenteric artery

D. Proper hepatic artery

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A 3-year-old child presents with severe vomiting. Radiographic examination reveals the presence of an annular pancreas. Which one of the following portions of the gastrointestinal system is most likely obstructed by this developmental condition?

A. Antrum of the stomach
B. 1st part of the duodenum
C. Jejunum
D. Proximal transverse colon
E. 2nd part of the duodenum

B. 1st part of the duodenum

*E. 2nd part of the duodenum

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The short gastric arteries originate from the

A. superior mesenteric artery
B. hepatic artery
C. splenic artery
D. inferior phrenic artery
E. left renal artery

C. splenic artery

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The right gastric artery originates from the

A. inferior mesenteric artery
B. superior mesenteric artery
C. hepatic artery
D. gastroduodenal artery
E. None of the above

C. hepatic artery

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

13.The left gastric artery originates from the

A. superior mesenteric artery
B. left renal artery
C. splenic artery
D. celiac artery
E. hepatic artery

D. celiac artery

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The gastroduodenal artery originates from the

A. splenic artery
B. hepatic artery
C. superior mesenteric artery
D. right renal artery
E. celiac artery

E. celiac artery

B. hepatic artery

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The left gastroepiploic artery originates from the

A. inferior mesenteric artery
B. superior mesenteric artery
C. splenic artery
D. celiac artery
E. Left renal artery

C. splenic artery

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The descending colon receives parasympathetic nerves from the

A. pelvic splanchnic nerves
B. spinal cord segments L1 and 2
C. greater splanchnic nerve
D. lesser splanchnic nerve
E. vagus nerve

A. pelvic splanchnic nerves

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The jejunum receives sympathetic nerves from the

A. vagus nerves
B. pelvic splanchnic nerves
C. spinal cord segments L1 and 2
D. greater splanchnic nerves and lesser splanchnic nerves
E. spinal cord segments S2, 3, and 4

D. greater splanchnic nerves and lesser splanchnic nerves

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The sigmoid colon receives sympathetic nerves from the

A. lesser splanchnic nerves
B. vagus nerves.
C. greater splanchnic nerves
D. spinal cord segments T5 to 9
E. spinal cord segments L1 and 2

E. spinal cord segments L1 and 2

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The ileum receives parasympathetic nerves from the

A. vagus nerves
B. pelvic splanchnic nerves
C. lesser splanchnic nerves
D. spinal cord segments T10 and 11
E. inferior mesenteric plexus

A. vagus nerves

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The azygos vein passes ______ in the diaphragm.

A. through the aortic hiatus
B. through the esophageal hiatus
C. through the vena caval hiatus
D. through perforations in the crura
E. between the slips of origin of the diaphragm from the ribs

D. through perforations in the crura

A. through the aortic hiatus

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The thoracic duct passes through ______ in the diaphragm.

A. the esophageal hiatus
B. the vena caval hiatus
C. the aortic hiatus
D. perforations in the crura
E. None of the above.

C. the aortic hiatus

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is incorrect pertaining to the umbilical artery?

A. It gives rise to the obturator artery
B. It is a branch of the internal iliac artery.
C. It gives rise to superior vesical arteries
D. It forms the medial umbilical ligament.
E. Postnatally, has both patent and occluded parts.

A.It gives rise to the obturator artery

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The uterine artery

A. passes superior to the ureter at the lateral fornix of the vagina
B. is a branch of the external iliac artery
C. is intraperitoneal
D. supplies the bladder
E. connects to the uterus at its junction with the uterine tubes.

B. is a branch of the external iliac artery

A. passes superior to the ureter at the lateral fornix of the vagina

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is incorrect pertaining to the ovarian artery?

A. traverses the suspensory ligament of the ovary
B. it crosses anterior to the ureter
C. It has reduced blood flow following ligature of the internal iliac artery
D. It helps supply the uterine tube.
E. It is accompanied by lymph vessels draining the ovary

C.It has reduced blood flow following ligature of the internal iliac artery

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

25. The ureters A. pass straight through the bladder wall (in a horizontal plane). B. are accompanied throughout their length by arteries and veins derived from the renal vessels C. have afferent fibers that typically refer pain to the lower abdomen, especially the inguinal region D. cross anterior to the ductus deferens E. are intraperitoneal

C.have afferent fibers that typically refer pain to the lower abdomen, especially the inguinal region

26. Detrusor muscle contraction is stimulated by A. the superior hypogastric nerve. B. lumbar splanchnic nerves. C. pelvic splanchnic nerves. D. internal pudendal nerve. E. contractions of the levator ani.

C.pelvic splanchnic nerves.

27. Hemorrhoids develop frequently during the later stages of pregnancy in part because of enlargement of the anastomoses between middle re 11. Most important true ligaments providing support to the uterus are: A. Transverse cervical ligaments B. Pubocervical ligaments C. Uterosacral ligaments D. Round ligaments

C) Uterosacral ligaments ***A. Transverse cervical ligaments***

28. The lymph from the cervix is drained in all of the following lymph nodes except: A. External iliac B. Internal iliac C. Superficial inguinal D. Sacral

A) External iliac ***C. Superficial inguinal***

29. Select the incorrect statement about the vagina: A. Its anterior wall is shorter than the posterior wall B. Its posterior fornix is related to the rectouterine pouch C. It is lined by the stratified columnar epithelium D. It is lubricated by the cervical mucous

C) It is lined by the stratified columnar epithelium

30. The ff are true regarding pampiniform plexus of veins Except A. a network of 8-12 veins lying anterior to the ductus deferens B. part of the thermoregulatory system of the testis C. converge superiorly forming a right testicular vein and D. and a left testicular vein, which enters directly the inferior vena cava E. no exception

D. and a left testicular vein, which enters directly the inferior vena cava

31. The part of the epididymis that contains the lobules formed by the coiled ends of 12-14 efferent ductules is ductal veins and which of the ff. veins? A. external pudendal B. internal pudendal C. Obturator D. umbilical E. uterine

B.internal pudendal

32. External hemmorrhoids in late stage pregnancy which may resolve after delivery develop in branches of the hemorrhoidal veins and characteristically exhibit A. larger than internal hemorrhoids B. superior to the pectinate line C. Painful D. prone to profuse bleeding

D.prone to profuse bleeding

33.A senior citizen complains of slow initiation and increased frequency of urination and his physician suspects benign prostatic hypertrophy which results in obstruction of the prostatic urethra by enlargement of A. anterior lobe B. entire prostate gland C. median lobe D. posterior lobe E. lateral lobe

C.median lobe

34. A rectal examination is performed to determine the size and consistency of the prostate All of the ff. may be palpated by digital rectal exam in the male Except A. disease of a seminal vesicle B. evidence of urinary retention in the bladder C. the lateral lobes of the prostate gland D. median lobe of the prostate gland

A.disease of a seminal vesicle

35. In human embryos, the yolk sac is important because it A. stores yolk. B. gives rise to earliest blood cells and blood vessels. C. stores nitrogenous wastes. D. allows for gas exchange through the placenta.

B) gives rise to earliest blood cells and blood vessels.

36. The body's axis of development is determined by the A. Blastomeres. B. Epiblast. C. Notochord. D. primitive streak.

D) primitive streak.

37. Most organ systems are fully formed and ready to function in the fetus by the sixth month. Which of the following systems is the exception to this generalization because it takes longer to finish development? A. the circulatory system B. the respiratory system C. the urinary system D. the integumentary system

B) the respiratory system

38. The urinary bladder is derived from which embryonic layer? A. ectoderm B. Mesoderm C. Endoderm D. neural crest

C) endoderm

39. A teratogen is A. a deformed baby. B.a specific sedative used in the 1950s in Europe. C. anything that causes birth defects. D. a stage of development in the mid-fetal period.

C) anything that causes birth defects.

40. The primary germ layer that ultimately produces the hair, fingernails, and toenails is A. Ectoderm. B. Mesoderm. C. Endoderm. D. neural crest

A) ectoderm.

41. The primary germ layer that ultimately forms the serous membranes of the peritoneum is A. Ectoderm. B. Mesoderm. C. Endoderm. D. neural crest.

B) mesoderm.

42. The most common birth defects involve A. the nervous system. B. the heart and circulation. C. the respiratory tract. D. metabolic disorders.

B) the heart and circulation.

43. Another name for birth defect is A. birth illness B. Teratogenesis C. congenital abnormality D. prenatal pathology.

C) congenital abnormality

44. Which of the following adult structures derives from neural crest? A. all the nerve cells in the brain B. all the nerve cells in the spinal cord C. all the pigment-producing cells in the body D. all bones

C) all the pigment-producing cells in the body

45. The hormone that stimulates ovulation is A. luteinizing hormone. B. FSH. C. growth hormone. D. Progesterone. E. testosterone

A) luteinizing hormone.

46. The amniotic sac is derived from the epiblast, while the placenta develops from the D. Trophoblast

D.Trophoblast

47. Identical twins are A. formed from splitting of the inner cell mass. B. formed from splitting of the zygote. C. formed from the release of two eggs. D. formed from two sperm fertilizing one egg.

B) formed from splitting of the zygote.

48. If a mutation occurs in the hypoblast cells of a bilaminar embryo, one might expect birth defects to be present in the A. blood cells or vessels. B. brain and spinal cord. C. hair and skin D. musculoskeletal system.

A) blood cells or vessels.

49. Which of the following is not a property of mesenchyme? A. It is present before birth. B. Its cells migrate. C. Its cells are star-shaped. D. Its cells attach closely to one another and form sheets.

D) Its cells attach closely to one another and form sheets.

50. A sample of a woman's blood is analyzed for reproductive hormone levels. The results indicate a high level of progesterone, relatively high levels of inhibin, and low levels of FSH and LH. The female is most likely experiencing ______ of the uterine cycle. A. the proliferative phase B. the menstrual phase C. the secretory phase D. Menarche E.menopause

C) the secretory phase

51. Kidney tubules and smaller intercalary and intralobular ducts of many glands exhibit what specific type of epithelium? A. Stratified squamous B. Pseudostratified columnar C. Simple cuboidal D. Simple columnar E. Simple squamous

C.simple cuboidal

52. The epithelia that lines blood vessels and body cavities A. Stratified squamous B.Pseudostratified columnar C.simple cuboidal D.simple columnar E.simple squamous

E.simple squamous

53. The epithelium that lines the stomach, intestines, and apical surface usually bear cilia or microvilli A. Stratified squamous B. Pseudostratified columnar C. Simple cuboidal D. Simple columnar E. Simple squamous

D.simple columnar

54. It consists of a single layer of cells of variable shape and height, with nuclei at two or more levels. Cells that reach the surface often are ciliated. A. Stratified squamous B. Pseudostratified columnar C. Simple cuboidal D. Simple columnar E. Simple squamous

B. pseudostratified columnar

55. The ducts of salivary and sweat glands are lined by what type of epithelium? A. Stratified squamous B. Pseudostratified columnar C. Stratified cuboidal D. Simple columnar E. Simple squamous

C.stratified cuboidal

56. The conjunctiva and respiratory surface of epiglottis is lined by what type of epithelia? A. Stratified squamous B. Pseudostratified columnar C. Simple cuboidal D. Simple columnar E. Simple squamous

A.Stratified squamous

57. The mouth and vagina are lined by what type of epithelia? A. Stratified squamous B. Pseudostratified columnar C. Simple cuboidal D. Simple columnar E. Simple squamous

A.Stratified squamous

58.Specialized name for apical surfaces found in epididymis and ductus deference for absorption are A. Cilia B. Flagella C. Stereocilia D. Microvilli E. Gap junction

C.stereocilia ***D. Microvilli***

59. These are membrane-covered, cell-surface extensions typically occur in tufts or cover the entire apical surface. They beat in waves. A. Cilia B. Flagella C. Stereocilia D. Microvilli E. Gap junction

A.cilia

60. Most apical junction in epithelium. Form bands that completely encircle each cell. Membranes of adjacent cells fuse to seal off the intercellular space A. Zonula occludens B. Zonula adherens C. Gap junctions D. Desmosomes E. Macula adherens

A.zonula occludens

61. Form bands that completely encircle each cell. Cadherin and catenin proteins provide adhesion between adjacent cells A zonula occludens A. Zonula occludens B. Zonula adherens C. Gap junctions D. Spot desmosomes E. Macula adherens

B.zonula adherens

62. These attach epithelial cells to basal lamina. Integrins attach the basal portion of the cell to the basal lamina. A. Zonula occludens B. Zonula adherens C. Gap junctions D. Hemidesmosomes E. Macula adherens

D. Hemidesmosomes

63. Occur almost anywhere along lateral surfaces of epithelial cells and also in other cells, such as cardiac muscle cells. Allow ions and other small molecules to pass through to adjacent cells to facilitate communication. A. Zonula occludens B. Zonula adherens C. Gap junctions D. Hemidesmosomes E. Macula adherens

C.Gap junctions

64. The secretory product shed with apical cytoplasm. Example: mammary gland A.merocrine B.holocrine C.apocrine D.exocrine E.endocrine

C.apocrine

65. Their activity is important for the phase of tissue repair called wound contraction A. Myofibroblasts B. Fibroblast C. Myoepithelium D. Plasma cells E. Monocytes

A.myofibroblasts

66. The most common cells in connective tissue proper, produce and maintain most of the tissue's extracellular components A. Myofibroblasts B. Fibroblast C. Myoepithelium D. Plasma cells E. Monocytes

B.fibroblast

67. Modulate allergic/vasoactive reactions and defense against parasites A. Fibroblasts B. Plasma cells C. Lymphocytes D. Eosinophilic leukocytes E. Neutrophilic leukocytes

D.eosinophilic leukocytes

68. Macrophages derive from precursor cells called A. Mast cells B. Megakaryocytes C. Monocytes D. Lymphocytes E. Giant cells

C.monocytes

69.A member of the mononuclear phagocyte system that functions in antigen presentation in the epidermis of skin A. Macrophage B. Monocyte C. Langerhans cell D. Kupffer cell E. Dendritic cell

C.Langerhans cell

70.The posterior cord gives rise to the following non terminal branches of nerves. Except: A. Upper subscapular B. Thoracodorsal nerve C. Lower subscapular D. Axillary nerve E. A.B and C

D.axillary nerve

71. Branch of the medial cord which innervates the skin on the medial side of the forearm A. Medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve B. Medial brachial cutaneous nerve C. Median nerve D. Medial pectoral nerve E. Ulnar nerve

A.medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve

72. The nerve which runs along the medial side of the axillary vein and innervates to innervate skin on medial side of the arm and communicate with intercostobrachial nerve A. Medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve B. Medial brachial cutaneous nerve C. Median nerve D. Medial pectoral nerve E. Ulnar nerve

B.medial brachial cutaneous nerve

73. Passes posteriorly through the quadrangular space accompanied by the posterior circumflex humeral artery and winds around the surgical neck of the humerus A. Radial nerve B. Axillary nerve C. Lower subscapular nerve D. Thoracodorsal nerve E. Upper subscapular nerve

B.axillary nerve

74. Which is not a branch of the medial cord? A. Medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve B. Medial brachial cutaneous nerve C. Thoracodorsal nerve D. Medial pectoral nerve E. Ulnar nerve

C.thoracodorsal nerve

75.Injury to this nerve results in weakness of lateral rotation and abduction of the arm A.radial nerve B.axillary nerve C.ulnar nerve D.median nerve E.musculocutaneous nerve

B.axillary nerve

76.Fracture of the midshaft of the humerus usually results in injury to which nerve? A.radial nerve B.axillary nerve C.ulnar nerve D.median nerve E.musculocutaneous nerve

A.radial nerve

77.Injury to this nerve results in weakness to supination and flexion of the forearm and loss of sensation to lateral side of forearm A.radial nerve B.axillary nerve C.ulnar nerve D.median nerve E.musculocutaneous nerve

A.radial nerve

78.Injury to this nerve produces characteristic flattening of thenar eminence referred to as ape hand A.radial nerve B.axillary nerve C.ulnar nerve D.median nerve E.musculocutaneous nerve

D.median nerve

79. The nerve which enters the hand superficial to the flexor retinaculum and lateral to the pisiform bone, where it is vulnerable to damage from cuts or stab wounds A.radial nerve B.axillary nerve C.ulnar nerve D.median nerve E.musculocutaneous nerve

C.ulnar nerve

80. This condition may be caused during a difficult breech delivery (birth palsy or obstetric paralysis) associated with cervical rib A.Erb-Duchenne paralysis B.Klumpke paralysis C.Erb palsy D.upper trunk injury E.waiter's tip

B.Klumpke paralysis

81. Passes posteriorly through the quadrangular space accompanied by the posterior circumflex humeral artery and winds around the surgical neck of the humerus A.Radial nerve B.axillary nerve C.lower subscapular nerve D.thoracodorsal nerve E.upper subscapular nerve

B.axillary nerve

82. Which is not a branch of the medial cord A.medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve B.medial brachial cutaneous nerve C.thoracodorsal nerve D.medial pectoral nerve E.ulnar nerve

E.ulnar nerve ***C.thoracodorsal nerve***

83. TRUE about cerebrospinal fluid except: a. Produced by choroid plexus b. Travels from subarachnoid space to the fourth ventricle c. Absorbed by arachnoid villi d. Drains Into the dural venous sinuses e. Aqueductal stenosis dilates 4th ventricle

e. Aqueductal stenosis dilates 4th ventricle

84. CSF escapes the fourth ventricle through a. Foramen of Monro b. Aqueduct of Sylvius c. Luschka and Magendie foramen d. Arachnoid granulations

c. Luschka and Magendie foramen

85.The arachnoid villi responsible for cerebrospinal fluid absorption protrude mainly in the a. Superior sagittal sinus b. Inferior sagittal sinus c. Straight sinus d. Transverse sinus

a. Superior sagittal sinus

86. Diencephalon represents a. Lateral ventricle b. 3rd ventricle c. 4th ventricle d. Aqueduct of Sylvius

b. 3rd ventricle

87. Cavity of mesencephalon a. Lateral ventricle b. Third ventricle c. Cerebral aqueduct d. Fourth ventricle

c. Cerebral aqueduct

88. Ventricles of brain are lined by a. Ependymocytes b. Astrocytes c. Oligodendrocytes d. Podocytes

a. Ependymocytes

89. Anterior horn of lateral ventricle is closed anteriorly by a. Thalamus b. Septum pellucidum c. Lamina terminalis d. Corpus callosum PA DOUBLE CHECK NAMAN ANSWER

c. Lamina terminalis ***d. Corpus callosum***

90. Lateral ventricle is connected in third ventricle by: a. Foramen of Monro b. Foramen of Luschka c. Foramen of Magendie d. Median foramen

a. Foramen of Monro

91. Pineal gland forms a. Floor of third ventricle b. Anterior wall of third ventricle c. Posterior wall of third ventricle d. Roof of third ventricle

c. Posterior wall of third ventricle

92. Floor of third ventricle is formed by all EXCEPT: a. Tuber Cinereum b. Posterior perforated substance c. Tegmentum d. Anterior pituitary

d. Anterior pituitary

93. Regarding hip joint, which of the following statements is true a. Retinaculum attaches femur to hip bone b. Inferior gluteal nerve supplies the hip abductors c. Capsule is attached to the intertrochanteric line d. llo-psoas causes hip abduction

c. Capsule is attached to the intertrochanteric line

94. iliofemoral ligament arise from a. Ischial tuberosity b. Anterior superior illac spine c. Iliopubic rami d. Anterior inferior illac spine e. Iliac crest

d. Anterior inferior illac spine

95. Abduction of the thigh is limited by: a. Tension in the adductors b. Tension in the adductors and iliofemoral ligament c. Tension in the adductors and pubofemoral ligament d. Tension in the adductors and ischiofemoral ligament PA DOUBLE CHECK

c. Tension in the adductors and pubofemoral ligament

96. A patient presents with acute abdominal pain and fever. Examination of her abdomen reveals fluid within the lesser sac, which is now draining into the greater peritoneal sac. Which of the pathways accounts for the seepage of fluid from the lesser to the greater sac? A.Epiploic foramen B.Left paracolic gutter C.Posterior fornix D.Right paracolic gutter E.Vesicouterine pouch

A.Epiploic foramen

97. A 59-year-old man presents with deep epigastric pain. A CT scan of the abdomen reveals a pancreatic tumor that partially envelops a large artery. Which of the following arteries is most likely involved? A Common hepatic B. Gastroduodenal C. Left gastric D. Middle colic E. Superior mesenteric

E. Superior mesenteric

98. An obese 46-year-old woman presents in the clinic with right upper quadrant pain for the past 48 hours, jaundice for the last 24 hours,nausea, and acute bouts of severe pain (biliary colic) after she tries to eat a meal. A diagnosis of cholelithiasis (gallstones) are made. Which of the following structures is most likely obstructed by the stone? A. Common bile duct B. Cystic duct C. Main pancreatic duct D. Right hepatic duct E. thoracic duct

A. Common bile duct

99. A gunshot wound to the spine of a 29-year-old man damages the lower portion of his spinal canal at about the L3-L4 level, resulting in loss of some of the central parasympathetic control of his bowel. Which of the following portions of the gastrointestinal tract is most likely affected? A. Ascending colon B. Descending colon C. lleum D. Jejunum E. Transverse colon

C. lleum

100. If access to several arterial arcades supplying the distal ileum is required, which of the following layers of peritoneum would a surgeon need to enter to reach these vessels? A. Greater omentum and lesser omentum B. Greater omentum and mesentery C. Greater omentum and transverse mesocolon D. Parietal peritoneum and greater omentum E. Parietal peritoneum and mesentery F. Parietal peritoneum and transverse mesocolon

E. Parietal peritoneum and mesentery

[COMPRE] 2024 Flashcards

(100 cards)