Compre Exam 2 MES Flashcards

MES (100 cards)

1
Q

A therapist assesses a patient with left shoulder pain suspected to have an underlying pulmonary disorder. Based on this, which of the following during pain assessment would the therapist MOST likely expect to be an aggravating factor of the patient’s pain?
A. Lying on the left side
B. Lying on the right side
C. Upright sitting position
D. Forward trunk flexion

A

B. Lying on the right side

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2
Q

A teenager is diagnosed with right thoracic scoliosis. On observation, the rib hump appears on the right side when bending forward. What is the most likely position of the vertebral bodies and spinous processes in the thoracic curve?
A. Vertebral bodies rotate left; spinous processes right
B. Vertebral bodies rotate right; spinous processes left
C. Both bodies and spinous processes rotate right
D. No vertebral rotation occurs in scoliosis

A

B. Vertebral bodies rotate right; spinous processes left

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3
Q

A first-degree atrioventricular heart block may present in the ECG as:
A. Prolonged QT interval
B. Bizarre QRS complex
C. ST elevation
D. Prolonged PR interval

A

D. Prolonged PR interval

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4
Q

The following are symptoms of Sjögren’s syndrome, EXCEPT:
A. Raynaud’s phenomenon
B. Esophagitis and gastritis
C. Joint and muscle pain and stiffness
D. Excessive salivation and lacrimation
E. None of these

A

D. Excessive salivation and lacrimation

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5
Q

A 45-year-old man who suffered a head injury in an automobile accident is currently being evaluated in his ICU. A “crescendo-decrescendo” pattern of breathing is observed from this patient. Which of the following best describes this breathing pattern?
A. Apnea
B. Biot breathing
C. Cheyne-Stokes breathing
D. Hyperpnea
E. Tachypnea

A

C. Cheyne-Stokes breathing

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6
Q

The major bursae are located next to the tendons near the large joints, such as in the shoulders, elbows, hips, and knees. When an injury or infection may damage deeper tissues in the knee, what is the most common bursa damaged in the knee?
A. Medial bursa
B. Lateral bursa
C. Infrapatellar bursa
D. Prepatellar bursa

A

D. Prepatellar bursa

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7
Q

A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency room with a 2-week history of diarrhea that has gotten progressively worse over the last several days. He has minimal urine output and is admitted to the hospital for dehydration. His stool specimen is positive for parasitic eggs. Which type of WBCs would have an elevated number?
A. Neutrophils
B. Monocytes
C. T lymphocytes
D. B lymphocytes
E. Eosinophils

A

E. Eosinophils

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8
Q

A patient with osteogenesis imperfecta is MOST likely to present the following clinical manifestations, EXCEPT:
A. Cardiovascular complications such as aortic and mitral valve insufficiency, and metabolic defects, such as elevated serum pyrophosphate and decreased platelet aggregation are present.
B. The tendency to fracture declines after puberty when cortical bone density increases.
C. Upper extremities tend to be more involved than the lower extremities, with increased ligament laxity and easy bruising.
D. Children with osteogenesis imperfecta is common to develop a shortened stature

A

C. Upper extremities tend to be more involved than the lower extremities, with increased ligament laxity and easy bruising.

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9
Q

Class 3 level for the functional classification of the heart disease, is described as:
A. Patient with cardiac disease resulting in marked limitation of physical activity. Less than ordinary physical activity causes fatigue, palpitation, dyspnea or anginal pain.
B. Patient with cardiac disease but without resulting limitations of physical activity. Ordinary physical activity does not cause fatigue, palpitation, dyspnea or angina.
C. Patient with cardiac disease resulting in inability to carry on any physical activity without discomfort and symptoms of cardiac insufficiency may be present even at rest.
D. Patient with cardiac disease resulting in slight limitation of physical activity. Ordinary physical activity results in fatigue, palpitation, dyspnea or anginal pain.

A

A. Patient with cardiac disease resulting in marked limitation of physical activity. Less than ordinary physical activity causes fatigue, palpitation, dyspnea or anginal pain.

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10
Q

Idiopathic loss of blood supply to the lunate:
A. Rolando’s disease
B. Preiser’s disease
C. Kienbock’s disease
D. Fight bite injury

A

C. Kienbock’s disease

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11
Q

A 30-year-old triathlete reports persistent fatigue, recurrent injuries, and irritability after increasing training volume without adequate rest. Which condition BEST explains his presentation?
A. Anemia
B. Electrolyte imbalance
C. Overtraining syndrome
D. Chronic fatigue syndrome

A

D. Chronic fatigue syndrome

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12
Q

In the wound healing process, which phase is characterized by the formation of new blood vessels (angiogenesis), granulation tissue, and collagen synthesis?
A. Inflammatory phase
B. Proliferative phase
C. Remodeling phase
D. Hemostasis phase

A

D. Hemostasis phase

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13
Q

P.L., a patient status-post coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG), is currently on maintenance phase of a Cardiac Rehab program. The program is set at moderate intensity.
This will require a target heart rate of
A. 50-60% of maximal heart rate
B. 60-70% of maximal heart rate
C. 70-80% of maximal heart rate
D. 80-90% of maximal heart rate

A

D. 80-90% of maximal heart rate

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14
Q

A 22-year-old female patient suffered 3rd-degree burns on the entire right LE including her perineal area. Based on the Rule of Nines, she would have what percentage of burn area?
A. 18%
B. 27%
C. 19%
D. 28%

A

C. 19%

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14
Q

A physical therapist notes decreased lung compliance on a patient’s chart. Which of the following conditions best explains this finding?
A. Pulmonary fibrosis
B. Emphysema
C. Asthma
D. Chronic bronchitis

A

A. Pulmonary fibrosis

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15
Q

A 68-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of progressive lower back pain after minimal falling. She reports loss of height and a slight stoop. Her labs show normal serum calcium and phosphate, and her alkaline phosphatase is within the reference range. A dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEX scan) reveals a T-score of -2.8 at the lumbar spine. Which of the following best explains her presentation?
A. Increased bone remodeling with a net loss of trabecular and cortical bone mass
B. Impaired mineralization of osteoid matrix due to vitamin D deficiency
C. Excessive osteoclastic activity driven by hyperparathyroidism
D. Autoimmune destruction of synovial lining causing joint space narrowing

A

A. Increased bone remodeling with a net loss of trabecular and cortical bone mass

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16
Q

A 62-year-old male patient with aplastic anemia presents with progressive fatigue and recurrent respiratory infections. Which mechanism BEST explains his recurrent infections?
A. Reduced neutrophil count impairing immune defense
B. Platelet dysfunction leading to poor clot formation
C. Iron overload damaging immune cells
D. Increased RBC destruction reducing oxygen delivery

A

A. Reduced neutrophil count impairing immune defense

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17
Q

Which of the following is an autoimmune disease primarily characterized by chronic inflammation of the synovium, joint damage and deformity, often in a symmetrical pattern?
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Gout
C. Rheumatoid Arthritis
D. Fibromyalgia

A

C. Rheumatoid Arthritis

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18
Q

A 65-year-old female patient, post-CABG, is on Day 4 of her hospital stay. She tolerates sitting in a chair and short bouts of standing without symptoms. HR increases from 80 to 94 bpm during activity. Which activity would be most appropriate to introduce (Phase I, Level 3–4)?
A. Supervised ambulation of 200 feet
B. Jogging in place
C. Lifting 5 kg weights
D. Climbing one flight of stairs independently

A

A. Supervised ambulation of 200 feet

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19
Q

In a typical presentation of lumbar disc herniation, pain radiating down the posterior aspect of the leg to the foot (sciatica) is most commonly associated with compression of which nerve root(s)?
A. L1–L2
B. L3–L4
C. L4–L5
D. L5–S1

A

D. L5–S1

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20
Q

A 17-year-old boy with sickle cell anemia presents with sudden severe pain in his lower back and legs after running in hot weather. On exam, he is tachycardic and has painful, tender extremities. Which pathophysiological mechanism MOST explains this episode?
A. Iron overload from repeated transfusions
B. Hypovolemia due to decreased plasma proteins
C. Hemolysis from autoimmune RBC destruction
D. Vaso-occlusion due to microcirculation obstruction

A

D. Vaso-occlusion due to microcirculation obstruction

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21
Q

A 45-year-old patient reports jaw clicking and deviation to the right during opening. What does this deviation most likely indicate?
A. Right-sided disc displacement with reduction
B. Left-sided joint complaints
C. Right-sided pterygoid spasm
D. Bilateral masseter weakness

A

A. Right-sided disc displacement with reduction

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22
Q

After palpating several peripheral pulse sites, a PT concludes that a patient has a strong pulse at the popliteal artery but a weak pulse at the dorsalis pedis artery. This finding suggests that during exercise the patient may experience:
A. Lymphedema
B. Deep vein thrombophlebitis
C. Intermittent claudication
D. Venous thrombosis

A

C. Intermittent claudication

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23
Q

A patient experiences acute pain and swelling in the great toe, particularly at night. Examination reveals redness, warmth, and extreme tenderness. This presentation is most characteristic of:
A. Pseudogout
B. Rheumatoid arthritis flare
C. Bunion
D. Gout

A

D. Gout

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24
In a patient with emphysema, which of the following changes in lung volumes is MOST characteristic? A. Decreased total lung capacity (TLC) due to stiffened alveolar walls B. Increased residual volume (RV) due to air trapping in alveoli C. Decreased functional residual capacity (FRC) due to alveolar collapse D. Increased tidal volume (TV) due to stronger accessory muscle use
B. Increased residual volume (RV) due to air trapping in alveoli
25
A patient reports anterior knee pain that worsens with prolonged sitting, ascending/descending stairs, and squatting. Which condition is most likely indicated? A. Medial meniscal tear B. Patellofemoral pain syndrome (PFPS) C. Iliotibial band (ITB) friction syndrome D. Osteoarthritis of the tibiofemoral joint
B. Patellofemoral pain syndrome (PFPS)
26
A 62-year-old male undergoing chemotherapy for acute myeloid leukemia reports severe fatigue and shortness of breath during minimal exertion. On exam, he has pallor and resting heart rate of 110 bpm. Lab results show hemoglobin of 7 g/dL. Which of the following best explains his symptoms? A. Leukocytosis causing impaired oxygen delivery B. Thrombocytopenia increasing bleeding risk C. Anemia reducing oxygen-carrying capacity D. Neutropenia increasing infection risk
C. Anemia reducing oxygen-carrying capacity
27
A 54-year-old female presents with gradual onset of right shoulder pain approximately two months ago. The patient has been on nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication and states that the medication has not helped. The patient reports weakness that allows her to lift her arm only to "shoulder level". An examination reveals 15 degrees of lateral rotation and 50 degrees of medial rotation. Shoulder girdle elevation is noted during abduction and flexion of the right upper extremitry to compensate for the loss of motion. Which diagnosis is MOST consistemt with the presented information A. Adhesive capsulitis B. Bicipital tendinitis C. Rotator cuff tear D. Atraumatic instability
A. Adhesive capsulitis
28
Which diagnostic test is most commonly used for initial assessment of peripheral artery disease? A. CT scan B. Angiography C. Doppler ultrasound D. Ankle-brachial index
D. Ankle-brachial index
29
What is a key characteristic of a Stage 2 pressure injury (formerly pressure ulcer)? A. Intact skin with non-blanchable redness B. Partial-thickness loss of skin with exposed dermis, often presenting as a blister or shallow open ulcer C. Full-thickness loss of skin with exposed adipose tissue visible D. Full-thickness skin loss with adipose tissue fascia, muscle, tendon, ligament, cartilage, or bone
B. Partial-thickness loss of skin with exposed dermis, often presenting as a blister or shallow open ulcer
30
Which of the following transfusions will result in an immediate transfusion reaction? A. O Rh- whole blood to an O Rh+ patient B. A Rh- whole blood to a B Rh- patient C. AB Rh- whole blood to an AB Rh+ patient D. B Rh+ whole blood to an B Rh- patient
B. A Rh- whole blood to a B Rh- patient
31
A 56-year-old female with frozen shoulder presents with severe left shoulder pain. Both active and passive ranges are equally restricted. Pain is most severe at end range. The patient is MOST likely at what stage? A. Freezing stage B. Frozen stage C. Thawing stage D. Stage of acute bursitis
A. Freezing stage
32
A patient sustained a cut on the wrist after a work accident in the factory. Bleeding on the cut is observed as bright red with spurting flow. Which structure is MOST likely damaged? A. Artery B. Vein C. Capillary D. All of these could have been affected
A. Artery
33
A fracture where the bone breaks into three or more pieces is classified as a: A. Transverse fracture B. Comminuted fracture C. Spiral fracture D. Oblique fracture
B. Comminuted fracture
34
A 45-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after a high-speed motor vehicle accident. He is in severe respiratory distress with asymmetric chest expansion and absent sounds on the right side. His trachea is visibly shifted to the left. Vital signs show hypotension and tachycardia. What is the most likely underlying cause of his tracheal deviation? A. Left-sided pneumonia with consolidation B. Atelectasis of the right lung C. Pleural effusion on the left D. Right-sided pneumothorax
D. Right-sided pneumothorax
35
A patient presents with a large plantar ulcer that will be debrided. The foot is cold, pale and brown, and edematous. The patient complains of dull aching especially when the leg is in a dependent position. The condition that would most likely result in this clinical presentation is: A. Acute arterial insufficiency B. Deep vein thrombosis C. Chronic arterial insufficiency D. Chronic venous insufficiency
D. Chronic venous insufficiency
36
A 25-year-old female distance runner develops secondary amenorrhea and stress fractures. She admits to restrictive eating and high training volume. Which syndrome does this BEST represent? A. Polycystic ovarian syndrome B. Cushing’s syndrome C. Female athlete triad D. Hypothyroidism
C. Female athlete triad
37
A 50-year-old man reports heel pain that is worst with the first steps in the morning and improves with activity. Tenderness is noted at the medial calcaneal tubercle. Which diagnosis is MOST consistent with these findings? A. Plantar fasciitis B. Tarsal tunnel syndrome C. Achilles tendinopathy D. Calcaneal stress fracture
A. Plantar fasciitis
38
A type of angina that produces symptoms similar to those of typical angina, but is caused by abnormal or involuntary coronary artery spasm, rather than directly by buildup of plaque from atherosclerosis. These spasms periodically squeeze arteries and keep the blood from reaching the heart muscle. A. Stable angina B. Unstable angina C. Prinzmetal angina D. Nocturnal angina
C. Prinzmetal angina
39
A 24-year-old rugby player experiences recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. MRI shows a labral tear at the anteroinferior portion of the glenoid. Which specific lesion does this describe? A. Bankart lesion B. Hill-Sachs lesion C. SLAP lesion D. Posterior labral tear
A. Bankart lesion
40
A 65-year-old male patient with a 40-pack-year smoking history presents with chronic productive cough for the past 3 years and progressive dyspnea. On examination, he has cyanosis, digital clubbing, and coarse crackles at the lung bases. Chest X-ray shows bronchial wall thickening and increased bronchovascular markings. Which diagnosis best fits his presentation? A. Chronic bronchitis B. Bronchiectasis C. Emphysema D. Interstitial lung disease
A. Chronic bronchitis
41
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) is a chronic autoimmune disease that can affect multiple organ systems. Which of the following is a classic dermatological manifestation often associated with SLE? A. Psoriatic plaques B. Butterfly (malar) rash on the face C. Urticaria (hives) D. Scleroderma (skin hardening)
B. Butterfly (malar) rash on the face
42
Which of the following applies to AIDS patients? A. Able to generate a normal antibody response B. Increased helper T cells C. Increased secretion of interleukins D. Decrease in helper T cells
D. Decrease in helper T cells
43
A 16-year-old male basketball player presents with gradual onset anterior knee pain that worsens after repeated jumping drills and sprinting. The pain is localized to the tibial tuberosity and tenderness increases when the quadriceps contract against resistance. X-rays show fragmentation at the tibial tubercle. Which condition is MOST likely responsible for his symptoms? A. Prepatellar bursitis B. Patellar tendinitis C. Osgood-Schlatter disease D. Patellofemoral pain syndrome
C. Osgood-Schlatter disease
44
A 67-year-old male patient who used to be a weightlifter undergoes exercises when he suddenly complains of severe back pain with a sharp and intense tearing sensation. Upon checking the patient, lower extremity peripheral pulses are diminished, with a palpable pulsatile abdominal mass. What could the patient MOST likely have? A. Bacterial endocarditis B. Unstable angina C. Impending myocardial infarction D. Impending rupture of an aortic aneurysm
D. Impending rupture of an aortic aneurysm
45
A 70-year-old woman with osteoporosis presents with acute mid-back pain after bending forward to lift groceries. Imaging shows a wedge-shaped deformity at T-12. Which condition BEST explains this injury? A. Spondylolisthesis B. Compression fracture C. Burst fracture D. Scheuermann’s disease
B. Compression fracture
46
A 25-year-old tall, thin man presents with sudden onset chest pain and dyspnea. On exam, there is hyperresonance to percussion and absent breath sounds on the left side. What is the most likely condition? A. Pleural effusion B. Pulmonary embolism C. Pneumothorax D. Atelectasis
C. Pneumothorax
47
What is the name given to the type of skin graft that uses animal skin? A. Xenograft B. Homograft C. Autograft D. Allograft
A. Xenograft
48
A therapist is working on a cardiac care unit in an acute care facility. After exercising a patient recovering from a ventricular infarct, the therapist notices fatigue and dyspnea after mild activity. Later that day, on a return visit, the therapist notices the patient has a persistent spasmodic cough while lying in bed. HR is rapid (140bpm) and slight edema is evident in both ankles. The patient appears anxious and agitated. The therapist suspects: A. Developing pericarditis B. Impending myocardial infarction C. Left ventricular failure D. Right ventricular failure
C. Left ventricular failure
49
Which of the following features BEST supports the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis over osteoarthritis? A. Morning stiffness lasting <30 minutes B. Involvement of DIP joints C. Symmetrical MCP and PIP involvement D. Absence of systemic symptoms
C. Symmetrical MCP and PIP involvement
50
A 36-year-old man presents with chronic cough, fever, night sweats, unintentional weight loss. His aspputum is occassionally blood-streaked. Chest X-ray reveals cavitary lesions in and infiltrates in the upper lobes. Which condition MOST likely explains his symptoms and imaging findings? A. Tuberculosis B. Sarcoidosis C. Pulmonary embolism D. Bronchiectasis
A. Tuberculosis
51
A 12-year-old overweight boy presents with an antalgic gait and dull hip pain radiating to the knee. On examination, hip internal rotation and abduction are limited, and the leg is externally rotated. Which diagnosis is MOST consistent? A. Legg-Calvé-Perthes Disease B. Developmental hip dysplasia C. Septic arthritis D. Transient synovitis E. Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis
E. Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis
52
A 40-year-old female patient with pernicious anemia reports numbness and tingling in her hands and feet, along with difficulty walking. Which of the following BEST explains her neurological deficits? A. Folate deficiency impairing DNA synthesis B. Vitamin B12 deficiency causing demyelination C. Iron deficiency reducing hemoglobin synthesis D. Aplastic anemia leading to pancytopenia
B. Vitamin B12 deficiency causing demyelination
53
A 28-year-old female patient reports right wrist pain worsened by lifting her baby. Finkelstein’s test is positive. Which tendons are MOST likely involved? A. Extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus B. Flexor pollicis longus and flecor carpi radialis C. Extensor carpi ulnaris and extensor digiti minimi D. Extensor pollicis longus and extensor carpi radialis brevis
A. Extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus
54
A 60-year-old woman presents with progressive shortness of breath. Spirometry shows FEV1/FVC ratio in normal but both FEV1 and FVC are reduced. Chest X-ray reveals reticular opacities in both lung bases. Which diagnosis best explains her findings? A. Asthma B. Emphysema C. Pulmonary fibrosis D. Bronchiectasis E. All are possible diagnoses
C. Pulmonary fibrosis
55
A 22-year-old basketball player lands awkwardly after a rebound with the foot planted and knee in valgus stress with external rotation of the tibia. He reports immediate pain and difficulty stabilizing the knee when cutting to the opposite side. On exam, valgus stress produces abnormal opening medially. Which ligament is MOST likely injured? A. Anteromedial rotatory instability B. Anterolateral rotary instability C. Posterolateral rotatory instability D. Posteromedial rotatory instability
A. Anteromedial rotatory instability
56
A 30-year-old man with hemophilia A is starting an aerobic conditioning program. His hematologist recommends factor VIII infusion before vigorous activity. What could be the PRIMARY reason? A. To prevent excessive fatigue from low hemoglobin levels B. To improve oxygen delivery during endurance activity C. To reduce risk of exercise-induced bleeding episodes D. To enhance immune function during exercise
C. To reduce risk of exercise-induced bleeding episodes
57
A 16-year-old gymnast presents with low back pain worsened by extension activities. X-rays show anterior slippage of L5 on S1 with a defect in the pars interarticularis. Which diagnosis is MOST consistent? A. Spondylosis B. Spondylolysis C. Spondylolisthesis D. Spinal stenosis E.Herniated disc
C. Spondylolisthesis
58
In which of the following will right ventricular hypertrophy normally occur? A. Mild aortic stenosis B. Mild aortic stenosis C. Mitral stenosis D. Tricuspid stenosis E. Tetralogy of fallot
E. Tetralogy of fallot
59
A 40-year-old patient with psoriatic arthritis presents with joint pain, nail pitting, and dactylitis. Which PT implication is MOST relevant? A. Monitor skin integrity during exercise B. Avoid strengthening to prevent tendon rupture C. Focus only on passive stretching D. Preserve complete immobilization during remission
A. Monitor skin integrity during exercise
60
Which of the clinical manifestations is NOT typical of cystic fibrosis? A. Salty sweat secretion B. Excessive gestational weight gain C. Frequent recurrent respiratory infections D. Increased pulmonary secretions with airway obstruction
B. Excessive gestational weight gain
61
In post total hip joint arthroplasty patients, which of the following advice should be most useful? A. Do not overbend the hip up towards the body B. Do not cross the legs over the midline C. Do not twist in sitting or standing D. Any or all of the answers
D. Any or all of the answers
62
Which of the following normally occur in right heart failure? A. Increased pulmonary artery pressure B. Increased right atrial pressure C. Pulmonary edema D. Increased mean pulmonary filling pressure
B. Increased right atrial pressure
63
Whiplash injury from a rear-end collision would tear the: A. Anterior longitudinal ligament B. Posterior longitudinal ligament C. Ligamentum nuchae D. Ligamentum flavum
A. Anterior longitudinal ligament
64
An in-patient presents with decreased pulmonary ventilation and hyperkalemia based on ancillary test results. A spectrum of symptoms, including confusion, diaphoresis, sleepiness, and restlessness were also noted. Upon checking the patient, the physical therapist notes shallow, rapid breathing as the quality of patient's respiration. This would suggest that the patient MOST likely developed: A. Metabolic acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
65
This condition presents with clicking or popping sound that occur during at running or dancing activities. This is thought to be because of the iliopsoas tendon riding over the greater trochanter or anterior acetabulum. What is this condition? A. Snapping hip syndrome B. Subtrochanteric bursitis C. Ischiogluteal bursitis D. Trochanteric bursitis
A. Snapping hip syndrome
66
Which of the following is a likely consequence of ileal resection? A. Achalasia B. Peptic ulcer C. Atrophic gastritis D. Vitamin B12 deficiency E. Constipation
D. Vitamin B12 deficiency
67
A 7-year-old child falls off a swing and develops a partial cortical break on one side of the radius while the other side remains intact. Which type of fracture is MOST likely? A. Transverse fracture B. Avulsion fracture C. Comminuted fracture D. Spiral fracture E. Greenstick fracture
E. Greenstick fracture
68
In this level of cardiac rehabilitation, the patient performs LE exercises such as ankle pumps, knee extensions or marching in place. A. Phase 1 Level 1 B. Phase 1 Level 2 C. Phase 1 Level 3 D. Phase 1 Level 4
B. Phase 1 Level 2
69
A below knee or transtibial amputation leaves a residual limb of: A. 20-50% of original tibial length B. 10-30% original tibial length C. More than 50% of original tibial length D. Less than 20% of original tibial length
A. 20-50% of original tibial length
70
A therapist assesses a patient’s voice sounds as part of a respiratory examination. The therapist positions the stethoscope over the thorax and asks the patient to say “99” which type of voice sound is assessed using this technique? A. Bronchophony B. Egophony C. Pectoriloquy D. Pneumophony
A. Bronchophony
71
The 14-year-old male patient came into the clinic with a referral from the orthopedic service. His diagnosis is Galeazzi fracture. What does this comprise? A. Fracture of the ulna with ulnar subluxation B. Fracture of the ulna with radial head subluxation C. Fracture of the radius with radial head subluxation D. Fracture of the radius with subluxation of the ulna
D. Fracture of the radius with subluxation of the ulna
72
A 70-year-old man with hypertension presents with palpitations and dizziness. ECG shows an irregular rhythm with absent P waves. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Ventricular tachycardia B. Atrial fibrillation C. Atrial flutter D. Supraventricular tachycardia E. Ventricular fibrillation
B. Atrial fibrillation
73
During an exam for fibromyalgia, the therapist palpates the patient’s occiput (suboccipital muscle insertions), second costochondral junction, and gluteal region at the upper outer quadrant. Which of the following is TRUE regarding fibromyalgia tender points? A. They typically worsen with exercise and improve with immobility. B. They are located only in the axial skeleton. C. At least 11 of 18 tender points are required. D. They are always associated with joint effusion.
C. At least 11 of 18 tender points are required.
74
A therapist is examining a patient with a 12-year history of emphysema. The clinical finding the therapist would NOT expect to find is: A. Cor pulmonale B. Clubbing C. Decreased AP to lateral chest ratio D. Cyanosis
C. Decreased AP to lateral chest ratio
75
A 54-year-old woman presents with chronic leg swelling, varicosities, and brownish skin discoloration near the ankles. She denies calf pain on exertion. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Deep vein thrombosis B. Peripheral artery disease C. Chronic venous insufficiency D. Acute lymphangitis
C. Chronic venous insufficiency
76
A patient has undergone surgery involving a median sternotomy & requires a chest tube drainage system. The physical therapist should be aware that: A. System should be used to determine unusual bleeding during chest physical treatment B. System can be used to help determine the mucous production from the tracheobronchial area C. Tubes can be inadvertently dislodged leading to a pneumothorax D. Patient should not be moved from supine with the tubes in place
C. Tubes can be inadvertently dislodged leading to a pneumothorax
77
On physical examination of an infant patient, you observe that the forefoot is positioned lateral, the hind foot is in valgus, and the foot is in full dorsiflexion. This results simply from a large infant in too small of a space, and the condition improves spontaneously. What is this deformity? A. Calcaneovalgus B. Calcaneovarus C. Equinovarus D. Equinovalgus
A. Calcaneovalgus
78
A 40-year-old woman presents with sharp chest pain that improves when sitting forward and worsens when lying flat. ECG shows widespread ST-segment elevations and PR-segment depression. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Myocardial infarction B. Pulmonary embolism C. Stable angina D. Acute pericarditis
D. Acute pericarditis
79
A 72-year-old man reports chronic low back pain and bilateral leg pain that worsens with walking and improves when leaning forward on a shopping cart. Which diagnosis is MOST consistent? A. Lumbar spinal stenosis B. Herniated nucleus pulposus C. Ankylosing spondylitis D. Piriformis syndrome
A. Lumbar spinal stenosis
80
A 63-year-old man with occupational exposure to asbestos presents with progressive exertional dyspnea. On exam, there are fine inspiratory crackles at the lung bases and clubbing. Which pulmonary function test finding is expected? A. Normal lung volumes with reduced diffusion capacity B. Reduced FEV1 with increased lung volumes C. Increased TLC and increased RV D. Reduced TLC with preserved FEV1/FVC ratio
D. Reduced TLC with preserved FEV1/FVC ratio
81
A 28-year-old male with a 2-year history of ankylosing spondylitis reports increasing stiffness and fatigue. On exam, lumbar extension is restricted, Schober’s test shows limited spinal mobility, and chest expansion is measured at 1.5 cm. Which functional activity would MOST likely be impaired the earliest? A. Squatting to pick up objects from the floor B. Jogging for 15 minutes on level ground C. Taking deep breaths during aerobic activity D. Carrying a bag with the elbow flexed at 90°
C. Taking deep breaths during aerobic activity
82
A 70-year-old man complains of exertional chest pain that resolves with rest. Stress test shows ST depressions during exercise, and symptoms improve with nitroglycerin. What is the most likely condition? A. Stable angina B. NSTEMI C. Prinzmetal angina D. Aortic stenosis
A. Stable angina
83
Lateral winging of the scapula is caused by which of the following nerve injuries? A. Weakness of serratus anterior due to spinal accessory nerve injury B. Trapezius weakness due to long thoracic nerve injury C. Serratus anterior weakness due to long thoracic nerve injury D. Trapezius weakness due to thoracodorsal nerve injury E. NOTA
E. NOTA
84
The recommended time duration for endotracheal suctioning is: A. 15 – 20 seconds B. 5 – 10 seconds C. 1 – 5 seconds D. 10 – 15 seconds
D. 10 – 15 seconds
85
______ pertains to the narrowing or constriction that prevents the valve from opening fully A. Regurgitation B. Stenosis C. Prolapse D. Insufficiency
B. Stenosis
86
A patient falls backward onto a flexed wrist and develops volar angulation of the distal radius. This pattern is MOST consistent with: A. Colles’ fracture B. Smith’s fracture C. Galeazzi fracture D. Monteggia fracture
B. Smith’s fracture
87
A physical therapist positions a patient in sidelying in preparation for postural drainage activities. Which lung segment would be indicated based on the patient’s position? A. Posterior basal segment B. Apical segment of the upper lobes C. Lateral basal segment of the lower lobes D. Anterior segment of the upper lobes
C. Lateral basal segment of the lower lobes
88
Chronic ischiogluteal bursitis develops to those individuals whose occupation necessitates prolonged sitting upon hard surfaces. A. Weaver’s bottom B. Snapping hip C. Nursemaid’s bottom D. Horseback rider’s
A. Weaver’s bottom
89
Familial form of lymphedema present at birth A. Milroy’s Disease B. Lymphedema Praecox C. Lymphedema Tarda D. AOTA
A. Milroy’s Disease
90
White waxy to leathery gray to charred black, insensate to pain, does not blanch to pressure? A. Superficial burn B. Superficial partial-thickness burn C. Deep partial-thickness burn D. Full-thickness burn
D. Full-thickness burn
91
A 50-year old woman presents with chronic cough, daily production of large amounts of foul smelling, purulent sputum, and recurrent infections. CT chest shows dilated bronchi with thickened walls. What is the most likely diagnosis A. Bronchiectasis B. Asthma C. Chronic bronchitis D. Interstitial lung disease
A. Bronchiectasis
92
Which of the following is least likely to be helpfyl in managing osteoarthritis A. Physical therapy B. Intra-articular corticosteroid injections C. Total joint replacement D. High-dose corticosteroids systematically
D. High-dose corticosteroids systematically
93
A patient is 2 weeks post MI and enters cardiac rehab. During exercise, his heart rate increases by 25 bpm above rest, with no chest pain or arrhythmia. What is the best course of action? A. Increase workload to achieve higher HR response B. Continue, as this is an acceptable response C. Stop exercise immediately D. Restrict to bed rest only
B. Continue, as this is an acceptable response
94
The clinical status of a truck driver with a posterior herniated nucleus pulposus has improved if: A. Peripheral pain increases only when lumbar extension is attempted B. Peripheral pain occurs only with straight leg raising C. Pain centralizers with passive hyperextension of the spine D. There is flattening of the lumbar lordosis
C. Pain centralizers with passive hyperextension of the spine
95
A 67-year olf man with moderate COPD is enrolled pulmonary rehabilization program. Which of the following is a core coponent of pulmonary rehab? A. Continuous mechanical ventilation B. Inhaled corticosteroids C. Supervised exercise training D. Daily antibiotics
C. Supervised exercise training
96
A patient is brought to the ER after a motor vehicle accident. Tibial fracture is seen with bone protruding through the skin. What is the MOST immediate concern in management? A. Prevention of infection B. Early mobilization C. Restoring range of motion D. Preventing malunion
A. Prevention of infection
97
Acute injury to myocardial tissue damages ventricular contractility, causing systolic dysfunction. Scar formation seen in infracted tissue alters relaxation and may lead to diastolic dysfunction A. Hypertension B. Cardiomyopathy C. Cardiac dysrhythmias D. Coronary artery disease
D. Coronary artery disease
98
What is a rockwood type III acromioclavicular (AC) joint injury? A. Sprain of the AC and coracoacromial (CC) ligaments B. Torn CC ligaments and intact AC ligaments C. Torn AC ligaments and sprained CC ligaments D. Torn AC and CC ligaments
D. Torn AC and CC ligaments
99
Determine the GOLD stage of COPD: 30% < or equal to FEV1 <50% predicted; Greater shortness of breath with exercise, decreased exercise capacity, fatigue and repeated exacerbation of their disease: A. GOLD stage I B. GOLD stage II C. GOLD stage III D.GOLD stage IV