Explain how a collateralized debt obligation is created
A CDO is formed by pooling together fixed-income assets such as loans, bonds and mortgages and prioritizing payments into tranches.
Describe how CDOs can be used to convert underlying assets with high credit risk into highly-rated investment vehicles.
The prioritization of losses allows senior tranches to obtain higher credit ratings than underlying assets.
Since junior tranches absorb losses first, senior tranche is protected, which drives credit rating up for senior tranches.
More protection leads to higher rating.
Explain how 2008 financial crisis showed these securities were far riskier than originally advertised
Ability of structured finance to repackage risks and create safe assets from otherwise risky collateral led to dramatic expansion in issuance of structured securities.
2008 financial crisis showed that these securities were far riskier for 2 main reasons:
1. Most securities could only have received high credit ratings if rating agencies were extremely confident about their ability to estimate default risks and how likely defaults were correlated.
2. Process substitutes risks that are largely diversified for risks that are highly systematic. Securities produced have far less chance of surviving a severe economic downturn than traditional corporate securities of equal rating.
Calculate the number of fixed income assets that default
pNN = (1-pD)^2 + rhopD(1-pD)
pDD = PD^2 + rhopD(1-pD)
pND = 1 - pNN - pDD
What is the relationship between correlation and safety of senior tranche?
The lower the default correlation, the more improbable is that all assets default simultaneously.
Thus, the safer senior-most claim can be made.
What is the relationship between default probability and expected payoff. Which tranche is the most impacted?
As pD increases, expected payoff on collateral decreases monotonically.
Junior tranche is the most impacted by increase in pD.
Calculate the junior and senior tranche payout.
Senior payout = min(senior width, tot payout)
Junior payout = min(junior width, tot payout - senior payout)
Explain what it means if senior tranche of CDO has attachment point equals to 50% - 100% of notional principal.
This means senior tranche begins to absorb losses once portfolio loss exceeds 50% (at least one defaults) and continue to do until portfolio loss reaches 100% (both default)
Calculate the price of a tranche
Price = PV of expected tranche payout
Does junior or senior tranche has lowest price? Is there an exception?
Except when correlation = 1, junior tranche has lower price.
Explain why junior tranches have higher promised yields than senior tranches.
Junior tranches are riskier, thus they have a higher promised yield.
This is meant to compensate investors for the increased risk.
Describe 2 ways to increase number of tranches with credit ratings higher than average rating of underlying pool of assets.
Identify 2 components that underlie credit ratings and why they overstate true credit risk of security.
These components understate true credit risk of security because they fail to consider systematic risk:
1. The default probability of CDO tranches is significantly impacted by correlation
2. CDOs magnify the effects of imprecise estimates of default probability and default recovery amounts, as well as model errors.
Briefly describe a solution proposed by regulators to account for uncertainty
Regulators proposed using a “.SF” rating modifier for structured finance instruments instead of typical rating scores due to uncertainty in default and correlation estimates.
Fully describe how sub-prime mortgages contributed to great recession.
Explain how exposure to systematic risk impacts yield spread for a security.
Credit ratings are based on security’s expected payoff.
They do not take into account whether or not a security is more likely to default when there is a stock market or an economic recession.
Thus, it’s possible for 2 securities with the same credit rating to have drastically different levels of exposure to systematic risk.
The degree of systematic risk present in a security has a meaningful impact on potential yield spread for the security:
Investors in senior tranches of CDOs are exposed to significant systematic risk since their losses are magnified as economy worsens.
As a result, they ought to earn a yield spread proportional with level of risk they are bearing, which means greater than single-name securities with same credit rating.
Describe 2 reasons why yields associated with senior tranches of CDOs did not adequately reflect the underlying assets.
Identify 3 model errors that contributed to improper CMOs credit ratings.
In addition to model error, explain how regulators and investors also contributed to improper CMOs credit ratings.
Regulators and investors failed to recognize that small errors in model assumptions were magnified when dealing with CDOs.
Briefly explain the conflict of interest in CDO rating. What was the conclusion?
Issuer, not investor, pays for rating.
Process and complexity of creating structure finance products require rating agencies to become part of UW team rather than acting as agents for outside investors.
Conclusion:
1. No more severe for structured finance products than for single-name credit products.
2. Reputation is a strong force against bad behaviour in both markets.
3. No fundamental difference in rating process.
Briefly explain why investment banks were hit particularly hard during fall of structured finance assets.
Capital requirements for AAA-rated securities are half as much as other investment-grade securities.
Naturally, the banks gravitated to AAA-rated securities that offered the most attractive yields (senior tranches of CDOs).
In reality, yield spreads were not high enough to compensate exposure to systematic risk.
Investment banks also had a false sense of security due to apparently “safe” ratings.
When investment bank was unable to sell a senior tranche, it would hold onto it.
When market collapsed, investment banks were left holding a large pool of low-quality assets such as subprime mortgages.
List 2 takeaways from Coval paper.
Consider 3 securities: a cat bond, a junior tranche on CDO and a senior tranche on CDO^2. Which is preferred under CAPM?
Cat bond since uncorrelated with market risk, while CDOs risk is highly sensitive to market risk.
Consider 3 securities: a cat bond, a junior tranche on CDO and a senior tranche on CDO^2. Describe the impact of an increase in default probability.
Junior tranche absorbs first losses and is affected the most if default probability increases.
Cat bond is uncorrelated with other bonds, so its probability of default increases 1-to-1.
Senior tranche is least affected as it is the las tranche to absorb losses after junior and mezzanine.