Cr3 Flashcards

(70 cards)

1
Q

According to ss.54-56 of the Coroners and Justice Act 2009, what common law defence was abolished and replaced by the new partial defence of loss of control?

A

The defence of provocation.

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2
Q

What are the three essential elements of the partial defence of loss of control under s.54 of the Coroners and Justice Act 2009?

A
  1. The killing resulted from a loss of self-control, 2. The loss of self-control had a qualifying trigger, and 3. A person of the defendant’s sex and age with a normal degree of tolerance and self-restraint might have reacted similarly.
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3
Q

Under s.54(1)(a) of the Coroners and Justice Act 2009, the first element of the loss of control defence is that the defendant’s acts resulted from their loss of self-control. What is the key question for the jury to decide here?

A

Whether the defendant’s act of killing resulted from a loss of control, which is a question of fact for the jury.

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4
Q

How did the Coroners and Justice Act 2009 change the requirement for the loss of self-control in relation to immediacy?

A

Section 54(2) explicitly states that the loss of self-control need not be ‘sudden’.

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5
Q

In the case of R v Jewell, how was ‘loss of control’ defined?

A

It was defined as a loss of the ability to act in accordance with considered judgment or a loss of normal powers of reasoning.

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6
Q

Under s.54(4) of the Coroners and Justice Act 2009, the defence of loss of control is not available if the killing was done in a _____.

A

considered desire for revenge

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7
Q

What are the two ‘qualifying triggers’ for loss of control as stipulated in s.55 of the Coroners and Justice Act 2009?

A

The ‘fear trigger’ (fear of serious violence) and the ‘anger trigger’ (things done or said of an extremely grave character causing a justifiable sense of being seriously wronged).

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8
Q

What is the ‘fear trigger’ for loss of control under s.55(3) of the Coroners and Justice Act 2009?

A

The defendant’s loss of self-control was attributable to their fear of serious violence from the victim against the defendant or another identified person.

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9
Q

What are the two cumulative conditions for the ‘anger trigger’ under s.55(4) of the Coroners and Justice Act 2009?

A

The loss of control was attributable to things done or said which (a) constituted circumstances of an extremely grave character, and (b) caused the defendant to have a justifiable sense of being seriously wronged.

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10
Q

According to the decision in R v Dawes, who makes the objective assessment of whether the circumstances for the anger trigger were ‘extremely grave’?

A

The judge makes the assessment at the end of the evidence, and if the defence is left, the jury makes the final assessment.

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11
Q

What did the Court of Appeal hold in R v Hatter regarding the break-up of a relationship as a qualifying trigger for loss of control?

A

The court held that the break-up of a relationship, by itself, will not normally constitute circumstances of an extremely grave character or cause a justifiable sense of being seriously wronged.

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12
Q

Under s.55(6)(c) of the Coroners and Justice Act 2009, what specific circumstance must be disregarded when considering the ‘anger trigger’?

A

The fact that a thing done or said constituted sexual infidelity.

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13
Q

In R v Clinton, what was the Court of Appeal’s ruling on how sexual infidelity can be considered despite the exclusion in s.55(6)(c)?

A

Sexual infidelity can be considered as part of the context in which to evaluate another potential qualifying trigger, but it cannot be the qualifying trigger on its own.

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14
Q

According to R v Clinton, in which of the three components of the loss of control defence can sexual infidelity be fully taken into account?

A

In the third component, the objective test, where the jury considers all of the defendant’s circumstances (s.54(3)).

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15
Q

What is the objective test for the loss of control defence, as set out in s.54(1)(c) of the Coroners and Justice Act 2009?

A

Whether a person of the defendant’s sex and age, with a normal degree of tolerance and self-restraint and in the circumstances of the defendant, might have reacted in the same or in a similar way.

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16
Q

According to s.54(3) of the CJA 2009, which circumstances of the defendant are excluded from the objective test for loss of control?

A

Circumstances whose only relevance is that they bear on the defendant’s general capacity for tolerance or self-restraint.

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17
Q

In R v Asmelash, what did the Court of Appeal decide about considering voluntary intoxication in the objective test for loss of control?

A

Voluntary intoxication cannot be taken into account, as its only relevance is to the defendant’s capacity for tolerance and self-restraint, which is excluded by s.54(3).

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18
Q

What is the burden and standard of proof for the defence of loss of control?

A

The defendant has an evidential burden to raise the issue, then the burden shifts to the prosecution to disprove the defence beyond a reasonable doubt.

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19
Q

Alan Norrie describes the philosophical basis of the new loss of control defence, as envisioned by the Law Commission, as one of ‘_____ justification’.

A

imperfect

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20
Q

In contrast to ‘imperfect justification’, what term does Alan Norrie use to describe the philosophical basis of the old law of provocation?

A

Compassionate excuse.

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21
Q

What was the key problem with the objective test under the old provocation law as interpreted in R v Smith (Morgan James)?

A

It became too subjectivised, allowing juries to consider characteristics that affected the defendant’s general capacity for self-control, blurring the line with diminished responsibility.

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22
Q

Which Privy Council case overruled R v Smith (Morgan James) and held that characteristics affecting general self-control should not be considered in the objective test for provocation?

A

Attorney General for Jersey v Holley [2005].

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23
Q

The new diminished responsibility plea is set out in s.2 of the Homicide Act 1957, as substituted by which section of the Coroners and Justice Act 2009?

A

Section 52 of the Coroners and Justice Act 2009.

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24
Q

What are the four components of the modern diminished responsibility defence?

A
  1. An abnormality of mental functioning, 2. arising from a recognised medical condition, 3. which substantially impairs D’s ability to do certain things, and 4. provides an explanation for the killing.
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25
Under the new diminished responsibility defence, the term 'abnormality of mind' was replaced by what phrase?
Abnormality of mental functioning.
26
Under s.2(1)(a) of the amended Homicide Act 1957, the abnormality of mental functioning must arise from what?
A recognised medical condition.
27
In R v Dowds, the court held that voluntary acute _____ cannot, by itself, form the basis for a diminished responsibility plea, despite being a 'recognised medical condition'.
intoxication
28
What is the burden and standard of proof for the defence of diminished responsibility?
The burden is on the defendant to prove the defence on the balance of probabilities.
29
What three specific abilities are listed in s.2(1A) of the Homicide Act 1957, one of which must be substantially impaired for diminished responsibility to succeed?
(a) to understand the nature of D's conduct; (b) to form a rational judgment; (c) to exercise self-control.
30
How was 'substantial impairment' traditionally defined following the case of R v Lloyd?
As an impairment that is more than trivial or minimal.
31
In R v Golds, how did the Court of Appeal suggest juries should be directed on the meaning of 'substantial' impairment?
That 'substantial' means a significant or appreciable impairment, something that 'really made any difference,' raising the bar from the 'more than trivial' test in Lloyd.
32
What is the causal link required by s.2(1B) of the Homicide Act 1957 for diminished responsibility?
The abnormality of mental functioning must cause, or be a significant contributory factor in causing, the defendant to carry out the killing.
33
What was the ruling in R v Brennan regarding the jury's role when faced with uncontradicted expert psychiatric evidence supporting diminished responsibility?
The jury cannot reject uncontradicted expert evidence if there is no other evidence capable of rationally undermining it; in such cases, the judge should withdraw the charge of murder from the jury.
34
According to the empirical study by Mackay and Mitchell, what has been a notable trend in diminished responsibility cases since the 2009 reforms?
A higher proportion of cases are being contested as jury trials, and a higher proportion of these contested cases result in murder convictions.
35
What is the legal outcome if a defendant successfully pleads either loss of control or diminished responsibility to a charge of murder?
The defendant is convicted of voluntary manslaughter instead of murder, avoiding the mandatory life sentence.
36
What condition might a long-term victim of domestic abuse, like Ava Johnson in the provided scenario, be suffering from that could satisfy the 'recognised medical condition' requirement for diminished responsibility?
Battered person's syndrome, depression, anxiety, or post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD).
37
What is the mens rea for murder in English law?
An intention to kill or an intention to cause grievous bodily harm (GBH).
38
What is the two-part test for indirect or oblique intent as established in R v Woollin?
The result must be a virtually certain consequence of the act, and the accused must appreciate that it is a virtually certain consequence.
39
What is the test for factual causation in criminal law, established in R v White?
The 'but for' test: but for the defendant's conduct, would the result have occurred in the way that it did?
40
What is the legal principle regarding medical treatment breaking the chain of causation, as established in R v Cheshire?
The chain is only broken if the negligent medical treatment was so independent of the accused's actions and so potent in causing death that it renders the accused's contribution insignificant.
41
In the historical development of the loss of control defence, DPP v Camplin established that the 'reasonable person' in the objective test should be of the same _____ and _____ as the defendant.
sex and age
42
Which House of Lords case temporarily compromised the objective test for provocation by allowing the jury to consider any relevant characteristic, leading to an overlap with diminished responsibility?
R v Smith (Morgan James) [2001].
43
According to Alan Norrie, why did the Law Commission recommend abandoning the 'loss of control' element in its initial proposals?
To avoid problems with 'slow burn' cases, criticisms of gender bias, and to move towards a model of 'imperfect justification' rather than 'compassionate excuse'.
44
Why did the government ultimately reintroduce the 'loss of control' requirement into the 2009 Act, against the Law Commission's recommendation?
Out of concern that the partial defence might be used inappropriately in cases of cold-blooded revenge, such as honour killings or gang-related violence.
45
In R v Dietschmann, what did the House of Lords rule regarding the effect of alcohol consumption on a plea of diminished responsibility under the old law?
Even if the defendant would not have killed without taking drink, the defence can still succeed if the underlying abnormality of mind was a substantial cause of the killing.
46
What is the actus reus of murder?
The unlawful killing of a reasonable creature in being (a human being) under the Queen's peace.
47
The partial defences of loss of control and diminished responsibility only apply to which specific criminal charge?
Murder.
48
The replacement of 'abnormality of mind' with 'abnormality of mental functioning' in the diminished responsibility defence was intended to shift the focus from a static idea to the _____ going on in the defendant's mind.
processes
49
The Law Commission initially proposed including 'developmental immaturity' in the new diminished responsibility plea. Why did the Ministry of Justice reject this?
It was considered unnecessary and thought to open up the defence too widely, with the view that 'abnormal immaturity' would be covered by 'recognised medical condition' anyway.
50
According to the analysis in Parsons' article, Lord Judge's interpretation of the loss of control provisions has generally been _____, with the exception of his liberal interpretation of sexual infidelity.
conservative
51
In the conjoined appeal of R v Dawes, what was the court's reason for finding there was no sufficient evidence of a loss of self-control?
The defendant's own evidence was that he had not killed in a rage but was shocked and had acted in self-defence; the violence, though unreasonable, did not mean he had lost control.
52
What is the key difference between voluntary and involuntary manslaughter?
In voluntary manslaughter, the defendant has the mens rea for murder but succeeds with a partial defence; in involuntary manslaughter, the defendant lacks the mens rea for murder.
53
What legal principle from R v Dalloway is a component of legal causation?
The consequence must be attributable to a culpable act.
54
The legal causation principle that the defendant's act must be a 'more than minimal cause' of the consequence comes from which case?
R v Pagett [1983].
55
According to Davis LJ in R v Brennan, the new diminished responsibility provisions are 'altogether significantly more structured' and relate 'entirely to _____ matters'.
psychiatric
56
What was the 'official' view expressed by the Ministry of Justice and government ministers regarding the purpose of the 2009 reforms to diminished responsibility?
That the reforms were merely intended to update, modernise, and clarify the wording of the existing law, not to make fundamental changes.
57
What irony did R.D. Mackay identify regarding the new 'recognised medical condition' requirement for diminished responsibility in relation to 'mercy killing' cases?
The strict requirement for a defined medical condition may make it harder for 'mercy killing' cases to succeed, whereas the obscurity of the old law allowed for a 'benevolent conspiracy' to stretch the psychiatric evidence.
58
Under the new loss of control defence, how might an abused woman argue that cumulative abuse is relevant, even if the final taunt was about something else (e.g., cooking)?
By arguing that the evidence of systematic abuse affects the gravity of the provocation to her, not her general capacity for self-control, thus helping to establish an 'extremely grave' character and a 'justifiable sense of being seriously wronged'.
59
The Law Commission identified a problem with the old provocation defence where judges were obliged to leave the issue to the jury even when the conduct relied on was ____.
trivial
60
How does s.54(6) of the CJA 2009 address the problem of trivial or unmeritorious claims of loss of control?
It empowers the judge to decide whether there is sufficient evidence upon which a properly directed jury could reasonably conclude that the defence might apply, effectively acting as a filter.
61
In the objective test for loss of control, the new law follows the position of the minority in Morgan Smith and the majority in _____.
Holley
62
According to the Law Commission, why is 'age' included as a general characteristic in the objective test for loss of control?
Because capacity for self-control is an aspect of maturity, and it would be unjust to expect the same level of control from a child as from an adult.
63
The 'fear trigger' for loss of control was introduced partly to assist abused women who kill but cannot rely on self-defence because their reaction was disproportionate or not in response to _____ violence.
imminent
64
Under the old law of provocation, why was it difficult for a defendant to simultaneously argue self-defence and provocation?
Self-defence requires acting reasonably and in control, while provocation required a 'sudden and temporary loss of self-control,' making the two claims contradictory.
65
In the CPS study by Mackay and Mitchell, what was the most common primary diagnosis in diminished responsibility cases?
Schizophrenia.
66
What was a significant finding in the Mackay and Mitchell study regarding psychiatric reports and the new diminished responsibility plea?
A large number of reports were silent on the causal 'explanation' requirement (s.2(1B)), suggesting experts were not fully addressing all parts of the new legal test.
67
In the case R v Bowyer, why could the burglar not rely on the anger trigger for loss of control?
The court held he could not have a 'justifiable' sense of being seriously wronged when the householder reacted violently and insultingly to his presence during a burglary.
68
What is the crucial difference in the burden of proof between the partial defences of loss of control and diminished responsibility?
For loss of control, the prosecution must disprove it beyond reasonable doubt; for diminished responsibility, the defendant must prove it on the balance of probabilities.
69
Which two international diagnostic manuals are typically used to determine if a condition is a 'recognised medical condition' for diminished responsibility?
The World Health Organisation's ICD-10 and the American Psychiatric Association's Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM).
70
Which of the three specified abilities under s.2(1A) of the Homicide Act 1957 is most similar to the first limb of the M'Naghten Rules for insanity?
The ability 'to understand the nature of D's conduct'.