cryptography_flashcards

(42 cards)

1
Q

Which type of attack does the use of HMACs protect against?

A

Man-in-the-middle — Only sender and receiver know the secret key, preventing tampering and authenticating origin.

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2
Q

Which objective of secure communications is achieved by encrypting data?

A

Confidentiality — Encryption keeps data private so only authorized recipients can read it.

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3
Q

Which two statements correctly describe certificate classes used in the PKI?

A

A class 4 certificate is for online business transactions between companies; A class 0 certificate is for testing purposes.

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4
Q

A customer purchases an item from an e-commerce site. Which feature of digital signatures is required to prove the exchange?

A

Nonrepudiation of the transaction — Provides proof that the data exchange occurred and cannot be denied.

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5
Q

What is the purpose of a digital certificate?

A

It authenticates a website and establishes a secure connection to exchange confidential data.

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6
Q

In a hierarchical CA topology, where can a subordinate CA obtain a certificate for itself?

A

From the root CA or another subordinate CA at a higher level.

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7
Q

What is the purpose for using digital signatures for code signing?

A

To verify the integrity of executable files downloaded from a vendor website.

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8
Q

What technology uses trusted third-party protocols to issue authoritative credentials?

A

PKI certificates — Issued by a trusted Certificate Authority to verify identity.

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9
Q

Which risk strategy accepts the risk and its consequences?

A

Risk retention — Used when mitigation costs exceed potential impact.

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10
Q

Which two classes of metrics are in the CVSS Base Metric Group?

A

Exploitability and Impact metrics.

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11
Q

Match: develop and implement detection activities

A

Detect — identifies cybersecurity events.

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12
Q

Match: develop and implement safeguards

A

Protect — ensures delivery of critical services.

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13
Q

Match: develop organizational understanding

A

Identify — manages cybersecurity risk.

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14
Q

Which CVSS metric documents that a user had to click a link for an attack to occur?

A

User interaction — Indicates exploit success depends on user action.

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15
Q

Which test scans internal networks and servers for vulnerabilities?

A

Vulnerability assessment — Uses automated tools like OpenVAS or Nessus.

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16
Q

What are three outcomes of the NIST “Identify” function?

A

Asset management, Governance, and Risk assessment.

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17
Q

When establishing a server profile, which element describes open daemons and ports?

A

Listening ports — TCP/UDP ports allowed to be open.

18
Q

What is an action in the discovery step of the vulnerability management life cycle?

A

Developing a network baseline — Inventorying assets and identifying vulnerabilities.

19
Q

What is the correct order of steps in the vulnerability management life cycle?

A

Discover → Prioritize assets → Assess → Report → Remediate → Verify.

20
Q

What does the telemetry function provide in host-based security software?

A

Comprehensive logging functions — Enables detailed host activity logs.

21
Q

Which endpoint technology protects hosts against malware using agent-based systems?

A

HIDS — Host-based Intrusion Detection System.

22
Q

What is a feature of distributed firewalls?

A

They combine host-based firewalls with centralized management.

23
Q

After polymorphic malware is isolated, what should be done to create signatures?

A

Execute the file in Cisco Threat Grid Glovebox — a sandbox for malware behavior analysis.

24
Q

On a Windows host, which tool manages blacklists and whitelists?

A

Group Policy Editor.

25
What is blacklisting?
A list specifying which applications are not permitted to run on a computer.
26
Which technology is used by Cisco AMP to defend against threats?
Threat intelligence — Uses known file signatures and analysis data.
27
Which technique safely analyzes a suspicious file?
Sandboxing — Runs files in an isolated environment.
28
What is iptables?
A rule-based firewall application in Linux.
29
What is the difference between an HIDS and a firewall?
HIDS monitors host OS and file activity; a firewall filters traffic between systems.
30
What is Cisco Threat Grid Glovebox?
A sandbox product for analyzing malware behaviors.
31
What does the policy-based intrusion detection approach do?
Compares host operations against predefined security rules.
32
What is the purpose of the DH algorithm?
Generates a shared secret between two hosts that haven’t communicated before.
33
What is the difference between symmetric and asymmetric encryption algorithms?
Symmetric uses pre-shared keys; Asymmetric uses different keys for encryption and decryption.
34
Which two algorithms can ensure a file can only be opened with a daily code?
AES and 3DES — Provide data confidentiality through encryption.
35
Which security plan tracks the location and configuration of devices and software?
Asset management.
36
Which risk strategy stops performing the risky activities?
Risk avoidance.
37
Which secure communication aspect ensures a hash is recalculated only with a secret code?
Origin authentication — Ensures validity of data source.
38
Match network profile element: Total throughput
The amount of data passing between a source and destination per time.
39
Match network profile element: Session duration
Time between establishing and ending a data flow.
40
Match network profile element: Ports used
List of TCP/UDP processes that can accept data.
41
Match network profile element: Critical asset address space
IP addresses or logical locations of essential systems or data.
42
Which three services are provided by digital signatures?
Authenticates the source; Guarantees data integrity; Provides nonrepudiation.