Cybersecurity Flashcards

(57 cards)

1
Q

What is the primary function of an advanced cloud sandbox in cybersecurity?

A

It provides a safe, isolated virtual environment for opening suspicious files, running untrusted programs, or downloading URLs without affecting local devices or the company network.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is a key advantage of cloud sandboxing over on-premise sandboxing for remote workers?

A

Cloud sandboxing can protect users both on and off the corporate network, unlike on-premise solutions that run on physical appliances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Why is cloud sandboxing considered superior to appliance-based sandboxing for inspecting SSL traffic?

A

Cloud sandboxing offers the ability to inspect SSL traffic, a frequent hiding place for malware, which many physical appliances cannot do effectively.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A _____ is a deep-packet inspection firewall that adds application-level inspection and intrusion prevention.

A

next generation firewall (NGFW)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What fundamental capability distinguishes a Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW) from a traditional firewall?

A

An NGFW’s ability to filter packets based on applications, not just ports and protocols.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the term for intercepting SSL/TLS encrypted internet communication between a client and server, a technique also used in man-in-the-middle (MiTM) attacks?

A

SSL/TLS Inspection or HTTPS Interception.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define an Advanced Persistent Threat (APT).

A

An attack where an unauthorized person gains access to a network and stays there undetected for a prolonged period.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In an APT, what is the role of the command-and-control (C&C) servers?

A

The malware is in regular communication with C&C servers to send stolen data or receive new instructions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the purpose of Advanced Threat Protection (ATP) solutions?

A

They defend against sophisticated malware or attacks that are designed to evade traditional security protections like antivirus and firewalls.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the function of anti-virus protection as defined in the glossary?

A

It checks files downloaded from the internet against a database of known malicious files.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The practice of allocating available bandwidth to optimize performance for mission-critical applications over recreational ones is known as _____.

A

Bandwidth Control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a botnet?

A

A number of internet-capable devices that have been hijacked by malicious users and infected with code without the owners’ knowledge.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the goal of Branch Transformation in IT?

A

To enable traffic in a branch office to be routed directly and securely to the internet, rather than backhauling through a central data center.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How does browser isolation enhance security?

A

It separates browsing activity from the endpoint hardware by loading webpages on a remote browser and streaming only pixels to the user, preventing malicious code download.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a Content Delivery Network (CDN)?

A

A distributed system of servers that copies and delivers web content to users based on their geographic location to speed up page loads.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In cloud terminology, what does ‘the cloud’ generically refer to?

A

Any software and services that run on servers in data centers, as opposed to running on a user’s local computer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the main distinction between a public cloud and a private cloud?

A

A public cloud is a multi-tenant environment shared by many organizations, while a private cloud is a single-tenant environment dedicated to a single organization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is Cloud Application Visibility?

A

The ability to see all the cloud applications being used throughout an organization, enabling control and data protection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Cloud architecture consists of a front-end and a back-end. What does the back-end encompass?

A

It consists of all the infrastructure required for the cloud service, including servers, data storage, virtual machines, and security mechanisms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the three main categories of cloud computing?

A

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), Platform as a Service (PaaS), and Software as a Service (SaaS).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a cloud firewall?

A

A firewall that provides network security and application control features delivered from the cloud, without requiring physical hardware.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How is cloud security different from traditional on-premise security?

A

Cloud security is delivered from the cloud, unlike traditional security which uses stacks of appliances at the gateway to scan traffic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A _____ is an incident where sensitive data has potentially been viewed, stolen, or used by an unauthorized individual.

24
Q

What is the primary goal of Data Loss Prevention (DLP) systems?

A

To prevent end users from sending sensitive information to unauthorized devices or recipients based on administrator-set policies.

25
How does a Distributed Denial-of-Service (DDoS) attack work?
Hundreds or thousands of hijacked computers (a botnet) are used to overwhelm a single system or network with traffic, making its services unavailable.
26
The adoption of digital technologies across an organization to improve flexibility, speed, and efficiency is broadly described as _____.
Digital Transformation
27
How does a Denial of Service (DoS) attack differ from a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack?
A DoS attack originates from a single compromised computer, while a DDoS attack uses an army of remotely controlled computers (a botnet).
28
In Data Loss Prevention, what does Exact Data Match (EDM) allow an organization to do?
It allows 'fingerprinting' of sensitive information from a structured data source to identify and prevent it from being shared inappropriately.
29
What do the terms 'elasticity' and 'scalability' mean in the context of cloud computing?
Elasticity means resource allocation can change on demand, which enables scalability to handle peak loads and lighter demand.
30
Why do many organizations leave SSL inspection turned off despite its security benefits?
Because it is compute-intensive and can negatively impact network performance.
31
What is 'fingerprinting' as a data security technique?
A technique that maps large data items to short, identifiable text strings (fingerprints) to track sensitive information across a network.
32
HTTPS is an aggregate of HTTP and which security protocol?
The Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)/Transport Layer Security (TLS) protocol.
33
What type of environment uses a combination of on-premises, public, and private cloud platforms?
A hybrid cloud.
34
The interconnection of a wide range of devices like thermostats and security cameras, each with a unique IP address, is known as the _____.
Internet of Things (IoT)
35
What is the term for monitoring, detecting, and preventing attempts to interrupt or gain control of an application or service?
Intrusion Detection and Prevention.
36
What is malware?
Any program or file, such as a virus or spyware, that is designed to compromise a computer or network.
37
What is the purpose of micro-segmentation in network security?
It logically divides a data center into distinct security segments, down to the individual workload level, to apply granular security controls.
38
An architecture in which multiple systems or applications from different enterprises are hosted on the same physical hardware is called _____.
Multi-tenancy
39
What is the primary goal of Network Transformation?
To move away from traditional hub-and-spoke architectures to new, secure direct-to-cloud architectures for better efficiency and user experience.
40
An NGFW is a hardware- or software-based network security system that enforces security policies at the application level as well as at the _____ and _____ level.
port, protocol
41
In security, what is a 'payload'?
The part of the malware that is delivered to a victim's system and carries out malicious activities.
42
What is the recommended first step in preventing ransomware delivered via email, besides user training?
Implementing multi-layered security with tools to block malicious traffic, decrypt and scan messages, and prevent C&C contact.
43
What is a Software-Defined Wide Area Network (SD-WAN)?
A technology that applies software-defined networking (SDN) principles to WAN connections, used to connect enterprise networks over large distances.
44
A _____ prevents users from accessing infected websites and prevents unwanted traffic from entering an organization’s internal network.
Secure Web Gateway
45
What is Security as a Service (SECaaS or SaaS)?
A model for delivering security technologies, traditionally deployed as hardware, as a cloud service.
46
In Deep Security, how do child policies relate to their parent policies?
Child policies inherit their settings from their parent policies, allowing for the creation of a hierarchical structure with progressively specific rules.
47
What is a Software-Defined Perimeter (SDP)?
A cloud-based approach to secure access that mediates the connection between users and internal applications without placing users directly on the network.
48
What is the purpose of the SSL protocol?
To provide secure, encrypted communications over a computer network.
49
How does an Intrusion Protection System (IPS) act as a first line of defense?
It is proactive and inspects the payload of network traffic for known malicious code or irregularities before it reaches the system.
50
What is a major limitation of antivirus (AV) software?
It is reactive and lacks the capacity to stop zero-day malware, modified exploits, and targeted attacks that have no known signature.
51
What is the function of a TLS Decryption Service?
It decrypts incoming encrypted packets, allowing other security functions like IDS and antivirus to inspect the content for threats.
52
The process of screening and blocking access to web content that is deemed inappropriate or malicious is called _____.
URL Filtering
53
What is a Unified Threat Management (UTM) system?
A single system that combines multiple security features, such as a firewall, malware detection, and intrusion prevention, into one appliance.
54
What is a Virtual Private Network (VPN)?
A connection that establishes a secure network between a user and the internet, routing all traffic through an encrypted virtual tunnel.
55
The _____ security model is built around the idea that enterprises should never inherently trust any user on or off the network.
Zero Trust
56
What is the core principle of Zero Trust Network Access (ZTNA)?
Access is granted on a 'need-to-know,' least-privileged basis defined by granular policies, where trust is never implicit.
57
ZTNA is also known by another name, which is _____.
Software-Defined Perimeter (SDP)