1
Q
Guided Release:
No IP
NAVs Drive on Blue Line
Successful release anywhere inside the Launch Acceptability Region (LAR)
LARs are DMPI fixed
Weapon Footprints move with the jet
A
JDAM targets have associated DMPIs
7000 # = Target
6000 # = DMPIs
2000 # = Created Targets and DMPIs
2
Q
1 JDAM per DMPI
4 JDAMs per GATS Precision Pattern
A Master targeted DMPI with up to 3 Slaved DMPIs spaced evenly about the master to aid GATS tactics
Up to 16 DMPIs per target
A
DMPI are individually AFMSS planned with coordinates and elevation
DMPI are linked to the target by NEDs (North / East / Down)
3
Q
SMP performs achievability checks & displays status
Achievable - a weapon can successfully hit the DMPI
Weapon Release
Unachievable – a weapon cannot successfully hit the DMPI
No Weapon Release attempted
Achievability status is displayed for each DMPI
A
SMP stops prosecuting on a target when:
all achievable weapons have been released
target is deselected (Target N-select)
skip-overfly is selected
NOTE: When the aircraft is outside the target’s PMT longer than 2 minutes and
distance is increasing from the target, the target will drop off the ATL.
4
Q
SMP ranges on as many as 4 JDAM targets simultaneously (ATL)
When one target enters periodic management (PM), it is the next target to be prosecuted
A
5
Q
Weapons that are fatal faulted are available for _______ .
jettison only
normal launch
launch in a degraded status
launch after a transfer alignment
A
jettison only
6
Q
Using manual launch procedures (MAN) and pressing the manual release button will release all weapons assigned to the JDAM target currently in PM, provided the target is in SAIR and all associated DMPIs are achievable.
True
False
A
true
7
Q
Using manual launch procedures (MAN) and pressing the manual release button will release all weapons assigned to the JDAM target currently in PM, provided the target is in SAIR and all associated DMPIs are achievable.
True
False
A
ture
8
Q
. How many guided targets can the SMP range on at any one time?
2
3
4
8
A
4
9
Q
JDAMs strike targets, not DMPIs.
a. True
b. False
A
false
10
Q
- Selecting no strike (NSTK) on the TSD TG ZOOM page will _______ .
delete the DMPI from the target record
issue a DMPI strike command to the SMP
issue a DMPI no-strike command to the SMP
issue a reject command to the SMP
A
issue a DMPI no-strike command to the SMP
11
Q
. What action is required to issue a strike command for DMPI 9?
A
press stk legend
12
Q
- The ready weapon cue indicates?
A weapon is ready for release.
The number of weapons powered.
The number of weapons to be powered.
The number of weapons that are in a GO status.
A
The number of weapons to be powered.
13
Q
- On the DEP, with the weapon priority set to GOOD FIRST, the SMP will
Select good weapons only.
Use only good weapons against the target.
Select good weapons based on bay and launcher position.
Select good weapons before degraded weapons
A
Select good weapons before degraded weapons
14
Q
- With the weapon priority set to GOOD ONLY, the SMP will select good weapons first, and then use degraded weapons.
a. True
b. False
A
false
15
Q
- On the TSD, the PMT indicates _______ .
the point when the guided store becomes SAIR
the point the SMP will start ranging on the target
where periodic pattern management begins
where aperiodic pattern management begins
A
where periodic pattern management begins
16
Q
. The GBU-28 attempts to maximize impact velocity rather than flying a set impact angle.
True
False
A
ture
17
Q
- The GBU-28, is different than the JDAM in that the GBU-28 uses the same 4 satellites as the B-2 .
True
False
A
true
18
Q
- The GBU-28B/B uses the _______ bomb body .
MK-84
UK-1000
BLU-97
BLU-113
A
BLU-113
19
Q
- Impact angles of up to 85 degrees may be achieved when delivering the GBU-28 by:
increasing the impact angle setting on DMPI format 2
increasing the LAR penetration percentage
delivering the weapon at higher than planned airspeed
deliver the weapon in a bank
A
increasing the LAR penetration percentage
20
Q
- The B-2 is capable of carrying _____ GBU-28’s loaded on the ______ stations .
6, odd
6, even
8, odd
8, even
A
8, even
21
Q
- The GBU-28 has only one GPS antenna.
True
False
A
false
22
Q
. The minimum time between releases when GBU-28’s are released from the same bay is:
10 seconds
5 seconds
4 seconds
2.5 seconds
A
10 seconds
23
Q
- In order to launch GBU-28’s from both RLAs with a minimum interval, the GBU-28’s must be powered-up individually _______ .
on one RLA before power-up on the other
near the launch zone
as close to the target as possible
No special procedures, normal weapons power-up
A
No special procedures, normal weapons power-up
24
Q
- The GBU-28C/B uses the _______ bomb body .
BLU-121
BLU-122
BLU-97
BLU-113
A
blu-122
25
1. The statistical summation or error associated with GPS-only targeting and the guided stores supports a CEP of
a. less than 40 ft.
b. less than 30 ft.
c. less than 20 ft.
d. less than 10 ft.
a. less than 40 ft.
26
2. The ready-weapon cue indicates which of the following?
a. A weapon is ready for release.
b. The number of weapons powered.
c. The number of weapons to be powered.
d. The number of weapons that are in a green G status.
c. The number of weapons to be powered.
27
3. On the DEP with the weapon priority set to good first, the SMP will
a. select good weapons only.
b. only use good weapons against the target.
c. select good weapons based on bay and launcher position only.
d. select good weapons before degraded weapons.
d. select good weapons before degraded weapons.
28
4. The purpose of the N-select is to
a. select the next weapon on the rotary launcher for release.
b. deliver guided stores against the next selected target
c. skip over the next target in the targeting sequence.
d. deliver guided stores against the next target in the ATL.
b. deliver guided stores against the next selected target
29
5. The PWR legend will be only be displayed
a. only when on the ground when the JET legend is selected.
b. when any weapons are designated, including different weapon types.
c. when all designated weapons are in the same powered state.
d. when the guided store to be powered gets within the prescribed mission plan time.
c. when all designated weapons are in the same powered state.
30
6. On the weapons display, a TTG of 59:59 indicates that
a. a selected weapon has entered a launch countdown hold condition.
b. all powered weapons are in a degraded status.
c. all DMPIs have been flagged as unachievable.
d. guided stores have not been powered.
c. all DMPIs have been flagged as unachievable.
31
7. On the TSD, the PMT indicates a point where the
a. aircraft enters periodic pattern management.
b. aircraft enters aperiodic pattern management.
c. guided-stores target comes into range.
d. guided stores are to be powered.
a. aircraft enters periodic pattern management.
32
8. A maneuver advisory displayed on the weapons display means that
a. the target is in range , but is not safe.
b. the target is in SAIR, but is not safe.
c. a DMPI is in range, but is not safe.
d. the target is safe, but is not in range.
a. the target is in range , but is not safe.
33
9. The JPF’s primary advantage over other conventional fuzes is its \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
a. large number of fuze settings.
b. cockpit programmability
c. safe separation time
d. tail fuze mount
b. cockpit programmability
34
The most important factor in the penetrating capability of weapon is its
a. shape
b. heading plane
c. explosive charge
d. terminal velocity at impact
d. terminal velocity at impact
35
2. Both the GBU-28 and the GBU-31 use one GPS antenna for GPS reception.
a. True
b. False
false
36
The GBU-28B/B power up sequence determines the order of launch off the RLAs.
a. True
b. False
false
37
To manually launch 4 GBU-28s against 1 target that is in SAIR,
a. no action is needed
b. the crew should set the manual auto switch to auto
c. the crew should press the manual release button once
d. the crew should press the manual release button 4 times
c. the crew should press the manual release button once
38
. The SMP keeps track of the number of weapons released on the target create display.
a. True
b. False
ture
39
The PWR legend is displayed
a. only when on the ground.
b. when the JET legend is selected.
c. when any weapons are designated, including different weapon types.
d. when all designated weapons are in the same powered state.
d. when all designated weapons are in the same powered state.
40
7. The most important factor in the penetrating capability of weapon is its \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
a. shape
b. heading plane
c. explosive charge
d. terminal velocity at impact
## Footnote
d. terminal velocity at impact
41
What navigational system (NSS) mode must be selected to satisfy the display requirements for a GATS legend on the top-level radar page?
Stellar-GPS-Inertial (SGI) Operation
Stellar-Doppler-Inertial (SDI) Operation
Stellar-Inertial (SI) Operation
Inertial (I) Operation
Stellar-GPS-Inertial (SGI) Operation
42
2. What is the total number of DMPIs available on any GAT sequence?
4
10
16
20
16
43
3. Which GATS radar mode automatically occurs after a second look/subsequent look?
Terminate
Designate
First Look
Batch
batch
44
4. To create a DMPI on the GAT radar display, the DMPI legend must:
have a valid DMPI number
have a valid target number
be in the NULL position
be in the scroll mode
be in the NULL position
45
5. GATS pattern recognition processing allows the RDP to ______ .
select the master DMPI for radar processing.
display designated DMPIs on the radar map.
automatically designate all DMPIs on the radar map.
## Footnote
automatically designate all remaining DMPIs on the radar image after two designations
automatically designate all remaining DMPIs on the radar image after two designations
46
6. If more than one MDU is required for GATS radar images, the first image must be the _______ .
offset aim point
map center (8xxx)
JDAM target (7xxx)
precision pattern
JDAM target (7xxx)
47
7. To what does the CEP map matching window data xxxx/Cyyy/Mzzz refer?
DMPI ID, CEP and map achievability level
Aimpoint ID, CEP and map matching confidence
DMPI ID, CEP and map matching confidence
Target ID, CEP and map matching confidence
DMPI ID, CEP and map matching confidence
48
8. Force correlation (FCOR) commands the radar to perform _______ .
map correlation based on the operator selected pixel, rather than the radar selected pixel
map correlation based on the map matching confidence level
pixel correlation on all DMPIs within the map image
map correlation based on radar map matched selection, rather than the pilot-selected DMPI
map correlation based on the operator selected pixel, rather than the radar selected pixel
49
9. Selecting no strike (NSTK) on the GATS radar image will _______ .
delete the DMPI from the target record
issue a DMPI strike command to the SMP
issue a DMPI no-strike command to the SMP
issue a reject command to the SMP
issue a DMPI no-strike command to the SMP
50
10. On the GATS radar image, the achievability status indicates T12S12A12, and you decide to no-strike DMPI 6010. What will the achievability status indicate on the radar and TSD target display?
T11S09A09
T09S09A09
T12S11A11
T12S11A08
T12S11A11
51
11. On the GATS radar image, the achievability status indicates T12S10A09 (DMPI 6011 is flagged as unachievable), and you decide to no-strike DMPI 6012P3. What will the achievability status indicate on the radar and TSD target display?
T11S09A08
T12S08A08
T12S07A06
T12S09A08
T12S07A06
52
1. For an auto GATS sequence, the execute legend must be selected before
a. the first-look destination point.
b. sequencing the second-look point.
c. the satellite select and freeze destination point.
d. GATS batch.
a. the first-look destination point.
53
2. The DMPI status message TxxSyyAzz refers to the
a. target number, total strike DMPIs, and total achievable DMPIs.
b. total number of strike targets, total strike DMPIs, and total achievable DMPIs.
c. total number of DMPIs, total strike DMPIs, and total achievable DMPIs.
d. total number of DMPIs, total selectable DMPIs, and total achievable DMPIs.
c. total number of DMPIs, total strike DMPIs, and total achievable DMPIs.
54
3. GATS pattern recognition processing allows the SMP to
a. select the master DMPI for radar processing
b. display designated DMPIs on the radar map.
c. automatically designate all DMPIs on the radar map.
d. automatically designate all remaining DMPIs on the radar image after two designations are complete.
d. automatically designate all remaining DMPIs on the radar image after two designations are complete.
55
4. The aircraft must have a _________ heading change between first-look SAR images and second-look SAR images to maintain proper geometry to support acceptable CEP requirements.
a. 90°
b. 45°
c. 30°
d. 25°
b. 45°
56
5. On the TSD target edit display, a parameter that can be changed is the:
a. number of weapons.
b. impact angle.
c. PMT.
d. weapon type.
c. PMT.
57
6. The CEP map matching window data xxxx/Cyyy/Mzzz refers to the
a. DMPI ID, CEP, and map achievability level.
b. aim point ID, CEP, and map matching confidence.
c. DMPI ID, CEP, and map matching confidence.
d. target ID, CEP, and map matching confidence.
c. DMPI ID, CEP, and map matching confidence.
58
7. Force correlation (FCOR) commands the radar to perform a
a. map correlation based on the crewmember-selected pixel, rather than the radar selected pixel.
b. map correlation based on the map matching confidence level.
c. pixel correlation on all DMPIs within the map image.
d. map correlation based on DMPI selection, rather than radar selected DMPI.
a. map correlation based on the crewmember-selected pixel, rather than the radar selected pixel.
59
8. How many GATS radar modes are used in a GATS sequence?
a. 7
b. 5
c. 3
d. 2
b. 5
60
9. All GATS mode-fail cues will be displayed/located in the background-status window position.
a. True
b. False
a. True
61
10. A GATS automatic sequence provides the crew with the capability to refresh either a first-look or subsequent-look radar image by selecting the
a. PWR legend and the AUTO legend.
b. page down and EXC legend.
c. AUTO legend and the EXC legend.
d. map orientation legend and the EXC legend.
c. AUTO legend and the EXC legend.
62
11. BFRINV is an advisory only, and does not prevent a subsequent radar image.
a. True
b. False
b. False
63
12. Which GATS radar mode automatically occurs after a second-look/subsequent mode?
a. Terminate
b. Designate
c. First-look
d. Batch
d. Batch
64
13. When SAR images are first displayed on the MDU, the OAP/TGT action point number/ID is removed from the display.
a. True
b. False
b. False
65
14. To which GATS display is the FCOR legend added?
a. The subsequent radar display after batch radar mode
b. The first-look display before AIMP designation
c. The first-look display after the AIMP designation
d. When the cursor is assigned to the MDU.
a. The subsequent radar display after batch radar mode
66
15. Which of the following actions may not terminate a GATS automatic sequence?
a. Crew-commanded IBIT
b. Crew-selected direct-to
c. Crew-commanded manual sequence
d. Crew-commanded side switch
c. Crew-commanded manual sequence
67
16. Which event does not cause termination of an automatic GAT sequence?
a. Radar processor failure
b. INS processor failure
c. Radar side switch due to a failure
d. MAGR failure due to loss of GPS
NS processor failure
68
17. In a manual GATS sequence, the crew initiates a second-look/subsequent radar map when they
a. designate one or more DMPIs and select the EXC legend.
b. select an AIMP, position the cursor, and select the EXC legend.
c. press the EXC legend twice.
d. no-strike a DMPI and selects the EXC legend.
a. designate one or more DMPIs and select the EXC legend.
69
GBU-31v3 (BLU109)
GBU-31v1 (MK84)
Aircrew only indications of LAR are:
SAIR
Corridor
70
Pattern Management
Refers to the targeting function of the SMOFP
Provides release of up to 16 JDAMs
Minimizes time weapons bay doors are open
Calculates DMPI Achievability
PM triggered when crossing
Pattern Management Threshold (PMT)
71
Pattern Managment Algoerithim
INPUTS
Aircraft data (altitude, position, mach number, gnd track)
DMPI (mission) data
(elevation, lat/long, impact angle, heading plane)
OUTPUTS:
DAM achievability status:
(ACH, CMPLT)
Achievability advisories:
(DEGD, XRNG EXD, MAX DR EXD, CONFLT REL,
REL LATE, REL SOON, INSUF WPNS, TOO FAST, TOO SLOW, TOO HIGH, TOO LOW, IMPACT/HEAD, NO WPN DATA)
Launch corridor (white line)
Release sequence (green line)
SAIR
TTG
72
Pattern Management
A JDAM Pattern target is a target complex composed of DMPIs
JDAM targets have associated DMPIs
7000 # = Target
6000 # = DMPIs
2000 # = Created Targets and DMPIs
1 JDAM per DMPI
4 JDAMs per GATS Precision Pattern
A Master targeted DMPI with up to 3 Slaved DMPIs spaced evenly about the master to aid GATS tactics
Up to 16 DMPIs per target
73
DMPI are individually AFMSS planned with coordinates and elevation
DMPI are linked to the target by NEDs (North / East / Down)
74
Aperiodic:
Outside Pattern Management Threshold (PMT)
SMOFP uses mission planned data
PM Zone Vector – present (for achievability calculations in aperiodic)
Runs through data once on expansion
Runs again if triggered by DMPI / Target Edit, etc
Computes DMPI achievability
Periodic
Inside PMT
Real-Time data
½ HZ processing
PM zone vector disappears
Only one target at a time
Computes DMPI achievability
75
SMP ranges on as many as 4 JDAM targets simultaneously (ATL)
## Footnote
When one target enters periodic management (PM), it is the next target to be prosecuted
When inside the PMT a white P will appear and SAIR checks are made
If it passes SAIR for AT LEAST one DMPI in the target, the target ID will turn GREEN and say SAIR on top and countdown will start
ONLY ONE Target can be in SAIR at a time since only one target can be in Periodic Management at one time (regardless of how many targets are in PM Threshold rings)
76
At the RLA, the SMPs Know:
Present or Away
1760 Connection ID
Auto-Door Operation
Open at 4 TTG (10 TTG for Unguided)
Close ½ second after release (2 sec after BRA)
## Footnote
Manual Weapon Release
Push manual release when in SAIR (TTG = 0 recommended)
Doors will auto open for guided weapons (Crew must manually open prior to 7TTG for all unguided weapons)
Strike weapons are released
Doors auto close
77
Take COMD of the WPNS page
Select LWIU and RWIU
WIUs turn white and should box within 10 seconds
Power up for the WIUs takes 70 seconds
“A” (white) indicates the weapon is aligning
May take 6-7 minutes
Ready WPN cues (PWR) and NO WPN appear 30 minutes prior to first target
78
A” appears indicating Alignment complete
Maybe only momentary if on the target branch
PWR (Ready Weapon) cue displayed in yellow
3JD4 = # of WPNs Required
Target ID (7000) will replace 3JD4 when cursor is placed over the cue
If no weapon is assigned to a target, L0 appears for weapon position
NO WPN & Ready Weapon cues remain until target assignment
Normally, weapons are “G” when alignment and assignment have completed
If weapons are aligned and assigned but lack Ionospheric data, they show “D”
The aircraft has not yet sequenced an Ionospheric Save (IOS) destination
Once aircraft sequences an IOS, weapons will show “G”
NO WPN & Ready Weapon power cues are replaced by target IDs when weapons are assigned
79
G Aligned and Assigned
ION Save destination has been sequenced
Target IDs present
To get SAIR you must meet the following conditions:
B-2 must be inside PMT for that target
Target must be at the top of the ATL
First DMPI for that target is in LAR
Aircraft safe requirements are met
At least 200 KCAS (DMPI will still be ACH, but not SAIR)
Within weapon mach limits
RLA + 10° Bank
SBRA + 5° Bank
80
target is in range, but not safe, SAIR is removed and one of following maneuvers is advised
FASTER / SLOWER
ROLLOUT
CLIMB/DIVE
If all DMPIs are unachievable: TTG = 59:59
81
JDAM target expanded data
Must be in “True”
ZOOM option
EDT option
Action points
If in PM for a target (7001) and you expand on a subsequent target (7000)
**Subsequent target (7000) turns red,** indicating that 7000 is not currently the target at the top of the ATL
82
n this case there are 16 DMPIs associated with the target:
DMPIs 1 - 8 are achievable (white)
DMPI 9 is not achievable (yellow)
DMPI 10 is no strike (blue)
DMPI 11 is a Precision Pattern (DMPI 12 is slaved to 11 & is hidden)
DMPI 15 is complete (green)
DMPI 16 is complete but degraded (orange)
83
GBU-28B/B
5000lbs
BLU-113 Bomb Body
GBU-28C/B
5000lbs
BLU-122/B Bomb Body
84
Weapon will seek an impact velocity - GBU 28
LAR % Tables allow Mission Planners to set a LAR % that yields the desired Impact Angle (IA)
85
Precision Pattern: 1 - 4 DMPIs (Up to 3 slaved to one master)
Pattern Recognition: Designate on 2 DMPIs and RDPs auto designate remaining DMPIs on a map
All Impact Angle / Heading Plane changes must be accomplished prior to SSF or after all GAT2 designations are complete
86
Legend is displayed only if
NSS Is In SGI, GDR, or GI (GPS-aided modes)
GMT source select equals GPS
BFRINV
Indicates no DMPI designated
Removed after designation
Reappears if
All designated DMPIs are set to No-Strike
DMPI migration (DMPI is located close to map edge and has shifted to another GATS MDU after 1st look)
87
Displayed As T# S# A#
T# = total number of DMPIs in target, not just on this Map
S# = number of strike DMPIs
A# = number of achievable DMPIs (decreases if no-strike)
DMPI ID (13) color coded
Green if CEP 20 ft
White if CEP \> 20 ft
Yellow if CEP \> 60 ft
88
Back Designate FCOR (green)
Back designate performs a reverse Batch
Procedures:
Toggle FCOR off (to green FCOR)
Reposition Cursor
Designate
After Designation – use label PRE to view back designated GAT1 image
Used to correct operator/pilot error from GAT1 during GAT2
Force Correlation FCOR (white)
Commands radar to perform map correlation based on operator-selected pixel, NOT the radar-selected pixel
Overrides pixel contrast
Required If map matching values are unacceptable (\<30 or when batch solution is \> 1 pixel off)
What drives a FCOR?
To correct a Batch (computer) or Map Matching error
Can use GATS RECALL (PRE) to review GAT designations before deciding to FCOR or Back Designate
Toggle On / Off (FCOR/FCOR)
On – white (by default) FCOR
Off – green (Back Designate) FCOR
TO Force Correlate, reposition cursor with FCOR on
Redesignate
In the Aircraft, Map matching will indicate zeros (000)
Indicates pilot has overridden map matching
WST does not simulate this
89
Terminate GAT
Manually
GAT, GAT1 or GAT2 (lower right will show GATT (cyan) upon termination)
Cancel ALL (top-level radar display)
Radar side switch (SSW on top level radar display)
IBIT
Crew-selected Direct To, TSD re-plan, or DEP re-plan
## Footnote
Automatically
FMCP at end of 25-min
Longer than 15 b/w SSF and RDR FIRST
radar side switch
Failed radar processor
Failed GPS
90
3 map centers
16 dmpis GAT
91
optimum look is 45 degrees
refresh 1st look, hit auto and then EXEC, then it will switch back to Auto
92
after SFF can't edit until after 2nd look
unachievable measn can't calculate LAR for one or more parameters
93
GBU-28
looks for maximum velocity at impact
uses 4 sattelites, JDAMS use 12
94
Precision Pattern
1 master and 3 slaved DMPis
Ranging in:
Unguided just 1
Guided 4
95
Can you manually create autogat...no
Man target takes longer because it is doing ion save
Patern recognition...select 2 and it autopopulates
AFMSS or No-strick prior to SSf is only way to turn it off
96
5/16 on MDU...looking at 5th one
5/16 on DEP means 5 total out of 16 spots
no strike: TG, ZOOM, NSTRK and radar...dep
97
Red Target-expanded on wrong target
SAIR...safe and in range
only 1 dmpi activates sair
overlapping LARs gives corridor
can't delete dmpi but you can no-strike
98
can delete target... get it back from disk
list point
5001/c052/m86
dmpi...cmp...map matching
99
GAT
3 map auto
1 map manual
100
