1
Q
Approach Speeds based on Category:
A
B
C
D
E
A
A: 90 kts
B: 91-120 kts
C: 121 - 140 kts
D: 141 - 165 kts
E: >165 kts
2
Q
Spec Vis for each Category of aircraft:
A
B
C
D
A
A: 1
B: 1 1/2
C: 2
D: 2
3
Q
Circling Minima prior to 2020
A
B
C
D
E
A
A: 1.3
B: 1.5
C: 1.7
D: 2.3
E: 4.5
4
Q
Speed Limitations for a Hold
At or Below 6000ft:
6000ft and up to and including 14,000ft:
Above 14,000ft:
A
At or Below 6000ft: 200
6000ft and up to and including 14,000ft: 230
Above 14,000ft: 265
5
Q
Standard Departure Criteria
Cross at least ____ft above the departure
Climb straight ahead to _____ ft above aerodrome elevation (AAE)
Maintain a climb gradient of at least_____
A
35ft above
400ft above
200 ft/NM climb gradient
6
Q
What to do if no visibility is published for a runway?
A
- Depart if takeoff will allow for obstacle avoidance
- Take-off vis cannot be below 1/2SM
7
Q
What to do if Aerodrome Operating Vis is less than the Aerodrome level of Service?
A
- Then vis is less than minimum taxi vis
- Except when the aircraft has commenced taxi for departure (Including de-icing)
8
Q
Aerodorme operating visibility Heirachy - With an active tower
A
- RVR
- Ground Vis (METAR)
- Tower Vis
- Pilot Vis
9
Q
Aerodorme operating visibility Heirachy - Without an active tower
A
- METAR
- Any reported RVR
- Pilot Vis
10
Q
What is the difference between Gorund and Tower Vis?
A
- When ground vis is reported, Tower vis is advisory
- When gound vis is not reported or reported from AWOS, tower vis can replace ground vis
11
Q
Take-off Visibilty Heirachry
A
- RVR - Unless fluctuating or less than ground
- Ground Vis :
- If no RVR is available
- RVR is fluctuating above and below the minimum
- RVR is less because of a local phenomena
* Local phenomena occurs if RVR is less than ground vis
12
Q
When is a take-off authorized?
A
- When RVR is at or above the minimum take-off vis
- Reported ground vis is at or above the minmum take-off vis
- Pilot Vis is greater
13
Q
What to do if cleared to follow a SID with no specific heading? (is drift correction applied)
A
Maintain the heading that corresponds to the extended runway centerline
*No drift correction is applied to SID’s
14
Q
SID Clearance will include____ from ATC
A
- Name of te SID
- SID termination fix (sometimes)
- Transition Information
- Time or Location fro the aircraft to expect further information (Expect further clearance time)
15
Q
Does a revision to a SID cancel it?
A
No, changes to an existing SID does not cancel it
16
Q
With regard to noise abatement procedures, what would you do if the ATC vectors conflict with published noise abatement procedures?
A
Always follow ATC vectors
17
Q
What is the minimum vis for Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODP’s)?
A
1/2 SM
18
Q
What does it mean if a departure as not been assessed?
A
- There is no gaurentee of obsactle clearance
- PIC is responsible for determining climb gradient, clearance and routing for obstacle clearance
19
Q
IFR Departure from Uncontrolled Aerodorome Procedure:
A
The pilot shall:
1. Obtain clearance if in controlled airspace
2. Report departure procedure and intentions on appropriate frequency
3. Ensure that no other aircraft or vehicle whill conflict with your aircraft upon departure
20
Q
IFR Departure from Uncontrolled Aerodorome - Listening Watch
A
- Duing take-off
- After take-off from an uncontrolled for which an MF has been assigned until clear of the zone
- As soon as possible after exiting the MF establish contact with the appropriae ATC unit
21
Q
What to do if departing IFR from an uncontrolled aerodrome in uncontrolled airspace?
A
- ATC clearance is not require as it is uncontrolled airspace
- Maintain a listening watch of appropriate frequencies
- Contact ATC for when needed
22
Q
What are instrument approaches governed by?
A
RVR
23
Q
What are IFR landings governed by?
A
DH/MDA
24
Q
What is a SID?
A
A Standard Instrument Departure
25
What is a STAR?
A Standard Arrival procedure
26
Does accepting a visual approach cancel a STAR?
Yes, automatically but it can be reinstated by ATC
27
What is an open STAR?
1. Does not automatically line up wiht the final approach
2. ATC will issue vectors from downwind to final
3. Must maintain STAR procedure until ATC vectors you for a straigh-in
4. Once cleared all speed and altitude restrictions still apply
28
Is a clearance required to descend when following a STAR?
Yes, ATC must clear you to descend
29
Do ATC altitudes supersede a STAR?
No, altitude restrictions must still be followed
30
Do ATC speed restrictions supersede a STAR?1.
Yes, ATC speed restricitons supersede any STAR restrictions
31
When is straight-in landing minima published?
1. When normal rate of descent can be made from the FAF
2. When the final apporach track intersects the extended runway centerlie within 30 Deg
32
What happens to straigh-in landing minima when the published requirements are not met?
1. Only circling minma apply
2. Pilot can still land straigh-in using a circling procedure
33
What happens what the High Intensity Aerodrome Lighting fails?
Advisory vis changes to 1 RVR 5,000 and DH ust increase to 50 ft
34
What is the approach ban?
It is a rule that prevents pilots from continuing an approach if certain visibilty requirements are not met
35
What are the conditions for the approach ban?
Cannot go passed the FAF if:
1. RVR A only is below 1200
2. RVR A and B are below 1200/600
3. RVR B only is below 1200
36
What are the exceptions to the approach ban?
1. If you are passed the FAF or have intercepted the final approach course
2. It is a training flight which intendes to conduct a missed approach
3. RVR is fluctuating above and below minimums
4. RVR is less than ground but ground is at least 1/4 SM
5. PIC is conducting a precision apporach to CAT III minimums
37
What does ILS stand for?
Instrument Landing System
38
What frequency and range does ILS operate in?
VHF & 108.1 - 111.9MHz
39
ILS localizer width is between __ and __
3 degrees and 6 degrees
40
What is the full deflection of an ILS instruments and what does each dot represent?
Full deflection is 2.5 degrees
Each dot is 0.5 degrees
41
What is the reliable coverage of an ILS LOC?
18NM within 10 degrees of either side of the course centerlnie
10 NM within 35 degress of either side of the course centerline
42
Where is the ILS lOC positioned?
At the end of the runway
43
What are the two LOC Freq ID's and what do they mean?
X: LOC exceeding 3 degrees of runway heading
I: LOC back courses with an alignment of 3 degrees of less
44
What frequency does the Glide path operate on and range?
UHF & 329.3 - 335 MHz
45
What is the beam width of the Glide Path?
1.4 degrees
46
Where is the Glide Path positioned?
At the touchdown zone
47
What do you do if you lose visual reference to the ground while circling?
1. Iniate a climb towards the center of the aerodrome
2. Fly as closely as possible to the missed approach procedure of the approach runway
*Not the landing runway
48
What is the circling MDA above all abstacles within the visual manoeuvering area?
300 ft above al obstacles
49
What is a contact approach?
A visual approach without clear reference to the ground
50
Contact Approach Requirements:
1. Pilot must request it and ATC must give clearance
2. Remain clear of cloud
3. Have at least 1 NM flight visibility
4. Must maintain 1,000ft obstacle clearance form the estimated position of the aircraft until ground reference is made
* may deviate from the IAP and proceed to the destinatino airport by visual reference
51
During a contact apporach___
The PIC must follow all noise abatement procedures and Class F airspace
52
Missed approach procedures for contact approach
PIC responsibilty for obstacle and terrain avoidance even if ATC issues instructions
53
What are ATC's responsibilities during a contact approach?
1. IFR seperation from other IFR flights
2. specific missed approah instructions
54
When will ATC grant clearance for a contact approach?
1. When the pilot asks for it
2. If there is a functioning instrument apporach or GNSS approach for the airport
55
Visual Approach Requirments
1. Reported Ceiling is 500ft or more above IFR minimums
2. Ground vis is 3 SM or more
3. Pilot reported sighting the airport
4. At controlled airports, pilot reports having preceeding aircraft in sight
*If the pilot reports preceeding plane in sight, ATC will direct to follow. If pilot doesnt report, ATC will ensure separation until the other plane has landed
56
What is a visual approach?
An IFR approach made within VMC that the pilot or ATC can initiate
57
Pilots responsibilities during a visual approach:
1. Visual seperation of preceeding aircraft if within controlled airport
2. navigation to the final approach course
3. Noise abatement and Class F airaspace avoidance
58
Missed approach procedures for a visual approach
1. No specific procedures for visual approaches as they are not IAP
2. No turn before the MAP
3. At a controlled airport:
- fly runway heading and listen to ATC
4. At uncontrolled airport:
- Remain clear of clouds
59
What is the MEA?
The MInimum Enroute Altitude
60
How long is the MEA protected for?
30 min to allow decsent to the MOCA and return to the MEA
If ATC does not hear back they will extended protection for another 30 min after alternate ETA
61
What are the required visual references:
1. The runway or runway markings
2. The runway threshold or markings
3. The touchdown zone
4. The approach lights
5. The approach slope indicator
6. The runway identification lights
7. The threshold and runway end lights
8. The touchdown lights
9. The parrellel runway edge lights
10. The runway centerline lights
62
What do the "Y" and "Z" mean on an approach plate procedure ID?
RNAV (GNSS) Y RWY 24
RNAV (GNSS) Z RWY 24
Y: There are 2 RNAV procedures for RWY 24 and this is not the predominant one
Z: There are 2 RNAV procedures and this is the predominant one
63
What is a lead bearing (radial)?
It is a bearing/radial that provides 2 NM or lead to assist in intercepting the intermeiate course. It is only shown when a turn exeeds 90 degrees.
64
What is a CDA? And why is it used?
1. A Continuous Descent Arrival
2. It is used to prevent the need to level off on and approach, decreasing noise, fuel burn and keeping the plane and high as possible for as long as possible
65
Where is a CDA projected from?
1. 50 ft above the aligned runway threshold for straight-in alignment
2. 50 ft above the aerodrome elevation abeam the earliest landing surface for circling only
3. the lowest MDA at the missed apporach point for helicopter point-in space approach procedures
66
When are CDA's provided?
CDA's are charted for every non-precision approach that meets NAV canada standards
67
When is timing provided with a CDA?
When there is a specific distance between the MAP and the FAF
*flown based on ground speed
68
What is a P1?
Papi lighting system with an eye to wheel height of: 0<10ft
69
What is a P2?
Papi lighting system with an eye to wheel height of: 10<25 ft
70
What is a P3?
Papi lighting system with an eye to wheel height of: 25 < 45 ft
71
What is an APAPI?
An abreviated papi lighting system with an eye to wheel height of: 0<10 ft
72
Turns in a hold should:
Achieve an average bank angle of at least 25 degrees or a rate run turn of 3 degrees per second whichever is lesser
73
What direction is a standard hold?
Right
74
When holding on a VOR radial what heading do you fly:
Example: RAD 180
Heading would be the reciprical of the RAD - 270
75
When holding using an NDB what heading do you fly if given an inbound track fo 180?
You would fly heading 180
76
How long are outbound legs:
Below 14,000ft ASL
Above 14,000ft ASL
Below: 1 min
Above: 1.5 min
77
Maximum shuttle climb speed for all altitudes
310 KIAS
78
Which GPS TSO uses RAIM?
TSCO C129/129a
79
Where a satelitte-based approach is planned at both the destination and the alternate, aerodromes must be serparated by:
_____ 56 degrees north lattitude in Quebec and Labrador & ____ anywhere else in Canada
75 NM in Quebec etc and 100 NM everywhere else
80
RNP Approach requirments
1. no credit can be taken for LPV or LP lines of minima
2. Credit may be takn for LNAV/VNAV only if certified for barometric LNAV/VNAV
3. Credit may be taken for LNAV lines of minima
81
Weather Requirements using GFA:
1. No cloud lower than 1000ft above lowest HAT/HAA
2. No CB's
3. Vis 3 SM or more
82
What is the serparation from surface to FL290 & FL290 to FL410?
Surface to FL290:
- 1000ft vertical separation
FL290 to FL410:
- 2000ft vertical separation
83
Altimeter Setting & Lowest FL
29.92 or higher
29.91 to 28.82
28.91-27.92
FL180
FL 190
FL 200
84
Minimum IFR Altitudes - 1000ft is applicable to:
1. Airways and air routes
2. Safe Altitudes 100 NM
3. All MSA (regardless of mountainous region)
4. Instrument Approach Transitions ( regardless of mountainous region)
85
Minimum IFR Altitudes - 15000ft
1. 5 NM for mountainous regions 2,3, &4
2. Airways and air routes in those regions
3. Safe altitude 100 NM in those regions
86
Minimum IFR Altitude- 2000ft
1. 5 NM for mountainous regions 1 and 5
2. Airways and airroutes on those regions
3. 100 NM safe altitudes in those regions
4. AMA within those regions
87
What is the difference between DA and MDA?
DA is a specific altitude used for precision approaches or an approach with vertical guidance upon which a missed approach would be conducted
MDA is an altitude used for non-precison approaches of which descent should not be made until visual reference to the ground is made
88
Cold Weather calculations MDA/DA below and above 1,000 ft
Below: round up to 100 ft
Above: round up to 10 ft
89
Which altitudes do not require cold weather calculations:
1. IFR assigned altitudes by ATC
2. Vectoring altitudes by ATC
90
Altitudes that require cold weather corrections:
1. MSA
2. Intial segment
3. Intermediate Segment
4. Final segment
5. MDA/DA
6. Missed approach segment
91
What is Class A airspace?
Controlled IFR airspace that requires Mode C transponder and is from the base of all high level controlled airspace up to and including FL600
92
What is Class B airspace?
Controlled IFR or VFR (requires clearance) airspace which requires a Mode C transponder. Is all low-level controlled airspace above 12,500 ASL or at & above the MEA (whichever is higher) up to but not including 18,000 ft ASL
93
What is Class C airspace?
Controlled IFR or VFR (Requires clearance) Mode C transponder airspace. Terminal Control areas and control zones.
94
What is Class D airspace?
Controlled IFR or VFR ( requires two-way communication) airspace. May require Mode C transponder if specified and is any and all Terminal Control areas and control zones
95
What is Class E airspace?
Controlled IFR and VFR airspace. May require Mode C transponder if specified. Low level airways, control area extensions, transition areas or control zones without an operating tower
96
What is Class F airspace?
Can be controlled or uncontrolled. IFR or VFR. May require Mode C transponder if specified. Areas across Canada within which activities must be confined and have their own limitations
97
What is Class G airspace?
Uncontrolled IFR or VFR airspace. No Mode C required. All airspace that has NOT been designated as Class A, B, C, D, E or F. Includes all airspace above FL 600.
98
What is a DME arc and what does it do?
1. Provide 1000ft obstacle clearance
2. Can be joined anywhere on the arc
3. Provieds a transition to the indermediate fix
99
What can an RMI show?
It can show both VOR and NDB (LF and VHF)
100
What are the operating principles of a VOR?
1. Operates in the VHF range ( 112.0-117.95 MHz)
2. Measures the phase difference between 2 transmitted signals
3. Limited by line of sight
101
VOT on the gound measurments:
360 =
90 =
180 =
270 =
360 = FROM
90 = OFF
180 =TO
270 =OFF
* difference limit is 4 degrees
102
NDB operating principles:
1. Operates in the LF and MF range
2. Accuracy en-route = +/- 10 & App = +/- 5
3. Limitations:
- Affected by night and sky waves
- Refraction while crossing shorelines 30 degrees
- worst static when snow/ice crystals
103
DME operateing principles:
1. Operates in the UHF
2. Limted to line of sight
3. Sends out 2 pulses, an interogating and response signal
4. Distance is slant range
5. Accuracy is +/- 5 NM or 3 % whichever is greater
104
What is a skip zone?
The area between the end of a ground wave and the first sky wave
105
What is a low level air routes?
1. Uncontrolled
2. From the surface to controlled airspace
106
What are low level airways?
From 2,200 ft up to bu nt including 18,000 ft ASL
107
VOR to VOR low level airway dimensions:
1. 4 NM each side of centerline
2. Width diverges by 4.5 degreees ( 50.8NM) on each side
108
LF/MF dimensions:
1. 4.34 NM on each side
2. Width diverges by 5 degrees ( 49.66 NM) on each side
109
What is a T (tango) route?
Low level controlled fixed RNAV route
*Obstacle protection 4 NM primary, 2 NM secondary and then an additonal 4 NM
110
What is ABAS?
1. Aircraft Based Augmentation System
2. RAIM and FDE are ABAS
111
What is RAIM and what does it do?
1. RAIM improves GPS accuracy by comparing solutions between 5 satellites
112
What are the RAIM alert limits:
1. enroute (30 NM from destination) = 2 NM
2. Terminal (< 30 NM from destination) = 1 NM
3. NPA ( < 2 NM from final app waypoint) = 0.3
113
What does a RAIM alert mean?
1. It is unable to gaurentee integrity but will still provide navigation
2. Unless in cases of emergency, must discontinue using GNSS if RAIM alert is present
114
What are the RAIM availability checks?
1. Check NOTAM's covering ETA +/- 60 min
2. If < 1 satellites is out, procedure can continue
3. If > 2 satellites are out, procedure must be cancelled
* RAIM requirement is satisfied if the satellite is out for < 15 min during the ETA within +/- 60 min period
115
What does FDE do?
1. Allows for the avionics to detect a faulty satellite and exclude it from the navigation solutions
2. Requires 6 satellites
3. Uses TSO C145a/146a
116
What is SBAS?
1. Satellite Based Augmentation System
2. Uses ground based reference stations to monitor satellite signals
3. A masters staton improves accuracy and provides range corrections
4. SBAS GNSS can be used for vertical guidance
117
Which avionics use WAAS?
TSO 145a/146a
118
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