DEVNET 5-6 Flashcards

(56 cards)

1
Q
  1. Which statement describes the ping and tracert commands?
    Tracert shows each hop, while ping shows a destination reply only.
    Tracert uses IP addresses; ping does not.
    Both ping and tracert can show results in a graphical display.
    Ping shows whether the transmission is successful; tracert does not.
A

Tracert shows each hop, while ping shows a destination reply only.

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2
Q

Which IPv6 address is most compressed for the full FE80:0:0:0:2AA:FF:FE9A:4CA3 address?​

FE80:::0:2AA:FF:FE9A:4CA3​
FE8::2AA:FF:FE9A:4CA3​
FE80::0:2AA:FF:FE9A:4CA3​
FE80::2AA:FF:FE9A:4CA3

A

FE80::2AA:FF:FE9A:4CA3

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3
Q

Which command can be used on Linux and MAC hosts to get IP addressing information?
networksetup -getinfo
ipconfig
ip address
ifconfig

A

ifconfig

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4
Q

What type of IPv6 address is FE80::1?
global unicast
loopback
link-local
multicast

A

link-local

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5
Q

Which two statements are true about NTP servers in an enterprise network? (Choose two.)
There can only be one NTP server on an enterprise network.
NTP servers control the mean time between failures (MTBF) for key network devices.
NTP servers at stratum 1 are directly connected to an authoritative time source.
All NTP servers synchronize directly to a stratum 1 time source.
NTP servers ensure an accurate time stamp on logging and debugging information.

A

NTP servers at stratum 1 are directly connected to an authoritative time source.
NTP servers ensure an accurate time stamp on logging and debugging information.

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6
Q

A small-sized company has 30 workstations and 2 servers. The company has been assigned a group of IPv4 addresses 209.165.200.224/29 from its ISP. The two servers must be assigned public IP addresses so they are reachable from the outside world. What technology should the company implement in order to allow all workstations to access services over the Internet simultaneously?
static NAT
dynamic NAT
DHCP
port address translation

A

port address translation

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7
Q

Which statement describes a stateful firewall?

It can determine if the connection is in the initiation, data transfer, or termination phase.
It can expand the number of IP addresses available and can hide network addressing design.
It can filter packets based on information at Layers 3, 4, 5 and 7 of the OSI reference model.
It can only filter packets based on limited Layer 3 and 4 information.

A

It can determine if the connection is in the initiation, data transfer, or termination phase.

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8
Q

Which impact does adding a Layer 2 switch have on a network?
an increase in the number of dropped frames
an increase in the size of the broadcast domain
an increase in the size of the collision domain
an increase in the number of network collisions

A

an increase in the size of the broadcast domain

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9
Q

Data is being sent from a source PC to a destination server. Which three statements correctly describe the function of TCP or UDP in this situation? (Choose three.)
The source port field identifies the running application or service that will handle data returning to the PC.
The UDP destination port number identifies the application or service on the server which will handle the data.
UDP segments are encapsulated within IP packets for transport across the network.
TCP is the preferred protocol when a function requires lower network overhead.
The TCP source port number identifies the sending host on the network.
The TCP process running on the PC randomly selects the destination port when establishing a session with the server.

A

The source port field identifies the running application or service that will handle data returning to the PC.
The UDP destination port number identifies the application or service on the server which will handle the data.
UDP segments are encapsulated within IP packets for transport across the network.

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10
Q

What is the function of the MIB element as part of a network management system?
to send and retrieve network management information
to change configurations on SNMP agents
to store data about a device
to collect data from SNMP agents

A

to store data about a device

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11
Q

Which two devices allow hosts on different VLANs to communicate with each other? (Choose two.)
Layer 3 switch
hub
Layer 2 switch
repeater
router

A

Layer 3 switch
router

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12
Q

What is obtained when ANDing the address 192.168.65.3/18 with its subnet mask?
192.168.32.0
192.168.64.0
192.168.0.0
192.168.16.0

A

192.168.64.0

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13
Q

What command can a technician use on a computer to see if DNS is functioning properly?

ipconfig
net share
nslookup
net use

A

nslookup

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14
Q

Which two OSI model layers have the same functionality as two layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)

physical
data link
network
transport
session

A

network
transport

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15
Q

What is one advantage of using the cut-through switching method instead of the store-and-forward switching method?
provides the flexibility to support any of Ethernet speeds
has a lower latency appropriate for high-performance computing applications
makes a fast forwarding decision based on the source MAC address of the frame
has a positive impact on bandwidth by dropping most of the invalid frames

A

has a lower latency appropriate for high-performance computing applications

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16
Q

Which solution improves web response time by deploying multiple web servers and DNS servers?
memcaching
distributed databases
sharding
load balancing

A

load balancing

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17
Q

What will a host on an Ethernet network do if it receives a frame with a unicast destination MAC address that does not match its own MAC address?
It will remove the frame from the media.
It will forward the frame to the next host.
It will strip off the data-link frame to check the destination IP address.
It will discard the frame.

A

It will discard the frame.

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18
Q

What is the common term given to SNMP log messages that are generated by network devices and sent to the SNMP server?
auditing
warnings
acknowledgments
traps

A

traps

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19
Q

What is the function of the Nslookup utility?
to manually force a client to send a DHCP request
to display all cached DNS entries on a host
to view the network settings on a host
to manually query the name servers to resolve a given host name

A

to manually query the name servers to resolve a given host name

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20
Q

What type of address is 01-00-5E-0A-00-02?
an address that reaches every host in the network
an address that reaches every host inside a local subnet
an address that reaches a specific group of hosts
an address that reaches one specific host

A

an address that reaches a specific group of hosts

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21
Q

Refer to the exhibit. The PC is sending a packet to the Server on the remote network. Router R1 is performing NAT overload. From the perspective of the PC, match the NAT address type with the correct IP address. (Not all options are used.)

A
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22
Q

Match the OSI layer to the layer number (1-7).
_ Application
_ Session
_ Transport
_ Network
_ Presentation
_ Physical
_ Data Link

A

7 - Application
5 - Session
4 - Transport
3 - Network
6 - Presentation
1 - Physical
2 - Data Link

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23
Q

A high school in New York (school A) is using videoconferencing technology to establish student interactions with another high school (school B) in Russia. The videoconferencing is conducted between two end devices through the Internet. The network administrator of school A configures the end device with the IP address 209.165.201.10. The administrator sends a request for the IP address for the end device in school B and the response is 192.168.25.10. Neither school is using a VPN. The administrator knows immediately that this IP will not work. Why?
This is a link-local address.
This is a private IP address.
There is an IP address conflict.
This is a loopback address.

A

This is a private IP address.

24
Q

Refer to the exhibit. An organization is using static NAT to translate the private IP address of Host A to a single public IP address leased from the ISP. Which address is the inside global address of Host A?
209.165.202.129
203.0.113.2
192.168.2.253
192.168.1.1
192.168.1. 10

A

209.165.202.129

25
Consider the following routing table entry for R1:
D 10.1.1.0/24 [90/2170112] via 209.165.200.226, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/0
What is the significance of the Serial0/0/0? It is the interface on the final destination router that is directly connected to the 10.1.1.0/24 network. It is the R1 interface through which the EIGRP update was learned. It is the interface on the next-hop router when the destination IP address the 10.1.1.0/24 network. It is the interface on R1 used to send data that is destined for 10.1.1.0/24.
It is the interface on R1 used to send data that is destined for 10.1.1.0/24.
26
A device has an IPV6 address listed as 2001:0DB8:75a3:0214:0607:1234:aa10:ba01. What is the interface ID of the device? 2001:0DB8:75a3 ba01 0607:1234:aa10:ba01 2001:0DB8
0607:1234:aa10:ba01
27
In what two situations would UDP be the preferred transport protocol over TCP? (Choose two.) when applications need to guarantee that a packet arrives intact, in sequence, and unduplicated when a faster delivery mechanism is needed when delivery overhead is not an issue when applications do not need to guarantee delivery of the data when destination port numbers are dynamic
when a faster delivery mechanism is needed when applications do not need to guarantee delivery of the data
28
Refer to the exhibit. A computer that is configured with the IPv4 address as shown in the exhibit is unable to access the internet. What is the problem?​ The gateway address is in the wrong subnet. The IP address is a network address. The settings were not validated. The IP address is a broadcast address.
The gateway address is in the wrong subnet.
29
What IPv4-related DNS record type is used by a DNS server in response to a host requesting for a web server address via the URL? AAAA record NS record A record MX record
A record
30
In what two situations would UDP be better than TCP as the preferred transport protocol? (Choose two.) when applications need to guarantee that a packet arrives intact, in sequence, and unduplicated when a faster delivery mechanism is needed when delivery overhead is not an issue when applications do not need to guarantee delivery of the data when destination port numbers are dynamic
when a faster delivery mechanism is needed when applications do not need to guarantee delivery of the data
31
In serverless computing, which term refers to the ability for resources surrounding an app to change and adjust capacity as needed? extensible scalable elastic flexible
elastic
32
Which Linux-based platform is used to create, run, and manage containers in a virtual environment? Docker Hyper-V KVM Bash
Docker
33
What is Bash? a Linux script engine that allows commands to be entered on the command line a code injection technique used to attack data-driven applications a web application framework written in Python a philosophy for software deployment that figures prominently in the field of DevOps
a Linux script engine that allows commands to be entered on the command line
34
Which load balancing technique will check the load status of multiple hosting servers and send the next incoming request to the server with the lowest load? least connections IP hash canary blue-green
least connections
35
Which web application attack involves an attacker accessing, and potentially changing, serialized versions of data and objects? broken authentication insecure deserialization security misconfiguration cross-site scripting
insecure deserialization
36
Which social engineering technique is carried out by someone attempting to gain access to a building by wearing a delivery service uniform? phishing impersonation vishing smishing
impersonation
37
A company has remote employees who need to connect to the company network in order to participate in meetings and to share the data and progress of application development. Which data transportation security technique can be implemented to allow remote employees to securely connect to the company private network? SSL SSH VPN TLS
VPN
38
Which two attacks target web servers through exploiting possible vulnerabilities of input functions used by an application? (Choose two.) port scanning SQL injection trust exploitation cross-site scripting port redirection
SQL injection cross-site scripting
39
Which statement describes the term containers in virtualization technology? a group of VMs with identical OS and applications a subsection of a virtualization environment that contains one or more VMs isolated areas of a virtualization environment, where each area is administered by a customer a virtual area with multiple independent applications sharing the host OS and hardware
a virtual area with multiple independent applications sharing the host OS and hardware
40
A threat actor has used malicious commands to trick the database into returning unauthorized records and other data. Which web front-end vulnerability is the threat actor exploiting? security misconfiguration broken authentication SQL injections cross-site scripting
SQL injections
41
What are three characteristics of a virtual machine? (Choose three.) It includes a guest OS. It leverages the kernel of the host OS for quick starts. It is a virtualized physical server. It shares the underlying resources of the host OS. It is an isolated environment for applications. It requires a hypervisor.
It includes a guest OS. It is a virtualized physical server. It requires a hypervisor.
42
What is a characteristic of the development environment in the four-tier deployment environment structure? It is where coding takes place. It is structurally similar to the final production environment. It is where users will interact with the code. It contains code that has been tested and is error free.
It is where coding takes place.
43
What is CI/CD? It is a malicious code injection technique which is used to attack data-driven applications. It is a web application development framework that is written in Python. It is a script engine that allows users to execute commands from the command line. It is a philosophy for software deployment that is often used in the field of DevOps.
It is a philosophy for software deployment that is often used in the field of DevOps.
44
Which technique is used to help mitigate SQL injection attacks? using the same owner or admin account in the web applications to connect to the database limiting the read access to specific fields of a table or joins of tables using stored procedures with the “db_owner” default role assigning DBA or admin access rights to the application account
limiting the read access to specific fields of a table or joins of tables
45
Which security device is used to make responses to client requests look like they all come from the same server? stateful firewall forward proxy reverse proxy jump box
reverse proxy
46
What is a characteristic of a virtual machine running on a PC? A virtual machine needs a physical network adapter to connect to the Internet. A virtual machine runs its own operating system. The number of virtual machines that can be made available depends on the software resources of the host machine. A virtual machine is not susceptible to threats and malicious attacks.
A virtual machine runs its own operating system.
47
What is a characteristic of the blue-green upgrade deployment strategy? A new environment is created with the new code in it, while the old environment is held in reserve in case users experience problems. The code changes are periodically rolled out in such a way that they do not impact current users. The new code is deployed all at once to the old environment. If users experience no issues, it is then moved to the new environment. The new code version is first rolled out to a subset of users. Changes can then be rolled back if the users experience any problems.
A new environment is created with the new code in it, while the old environment is held in reserve in case users experience problems.
48
Which mitigation method is effective against cross-site scripting? requiring multifactor authentication consistent hardening of systems and applications sanitizing untrusted content using only necessary features and secure packages downloaded from official sources and verified with a signature
sanitizing untrusted content
49
Which attack involves the insertion of malicious code into SQL statements? SQL injection cross-site scripting brute force local file inclusion
SQL injection
50
In software development, what is the purpose of a jump box? to act as a single trusted machine used to launch connections to sensitive systems to make all requests originating from within a network look like they come from the same source IP address to filter packets based on Layer 3 and Layer 4 addressing to receive incoming requests and forward them to multiple servers
to act as a single trusted machine used to launch connections to sensitive systems
51
Which characters are used to separate batched SQL statements? semicolons ; colons : parentheses () pound signs #
semicolons ;
52
What is a philosophy for software deployment used in the field of DevOps? OWASP DevNet SOAP CI/CD
CI/CD
53
Which statement is a characteristic of the broken access control threat to web applications? It allows attackers to access, and potentially change, serialized versions of data and objects. It allows an attacker to use the dynamic functions of a site to inject malicious content into the page. It allows users to circumvent existing authentication requirements. It allows attackers to steal sensitive information such as passwords or personal information.
It allows users to circumvent existing authentication requirements.
54
Which technology is used to containerize applications and allows them to run in a variety of environments? Docker GitHub VirtualBox Cisco DNA
Docker
55
What is used to isolate the different parts of a running container? wrappers namespaces control groups union file systems
namespaces
56
What is used to isolate the different parts of a running container? wrappers namespaces control groups union file systems
namespaces