Diabetes RxPrep Flashcards

(41 cards)

1
Q

JB is a 59-year-old male who comes to the clinic after a recent hospitalization for a heart failure exacerbation. He states that he is feeling much better at today’s visit.

Past Medical History: dyslipidemia, hypertension, New York Heart Association (NYHA) class III heart failure, type 2 diabetes mellitus

Allergies: amoxicillin (rash)

Medications:
Atorvastatin 80 mg PO daily
Carvedilol 50 mg PO BID
Furosemide 40 mg PO QAM
Metformin 1,000 mg PO BID
Sacubitril/valsartan 97 mg/103 mg PO BID
Spironolactone 25 mg PO daily

Vital Signs: BP 116/72 mmHg, HR 60 bpm, Ht 5′ 10″, Wt 210 lbs

Laboratory Tests (Fasting, Taken in Office):
Sodium 142 mEq/L
Potassium 4.8 mEq/L
Chloride 102 mEq/L
Bicarbonate 26 mEq/L
Blood urea nitrogen 30 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.4 mg/dL
eGFR 68 mL/min/1.73 m2
Glucose 191 mg/dL
Hemoglobin A1C 8.2%

The primary care provider wants to add a drug to treat JB’s diabetes mellitus. Which of the following medications should be avoided?

A. Dapagliflozin

B. Glimepritide

C. Insulin glargine

D. Liraglutide

E. Pioglitazone

A

E. Pioglitazone

When selecting medications for type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), coexisting conditions should be evaluated to avoid drug-disease interactions. In patients with heart failure, two classes of T2DM medications should be avoided:

Dipeptidyl peptidase 4 (DPP-4) inhibitors
Thiazolidinediones (TZDs)
DPP-4 inhibitors have a warning for heart failure due to an increased risk seen with alogliptin and saxagliptin; these two drugs should be avoided in patients with heart failure. TZDs (eg, pioglitazone) are contraindicated in patients with New York Heart Association (NYHA) class III or IV heart failure and have a boxed warning for causing or exacerbating heart failure. TZDs increase sodium reabsorption, resulting in edema. The excess fluid puts more strain on the heart, causing or worsening heart failure.

(Choice A) Sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitors (eg, dapagliflozin) are recommended in patients with heart failure, with or without diabetes, because they improve morbidity and mortality. SGLT2 inhibitors are avoided in patients with recurrent vaginal candidiasis or urinary tract infections.

(Choice B) Sulfonylureas (eg, glimepiride) are not contraindicated in heart failure. These drugs should be used cautiously in patients who are at increased risk for hypoglycemia, such as the elderly.

(Choice C) Insulin (eg, glargine) is ultimately required in many patients with T2DM. There are no absolute contraindications to insulin therapy except for true hypersensitivity reactions.

(Choice D) Glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) agonists (eg, liraglutide) are beneficial in patients with a history of or at high risk for atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease. GLP-1 agonists should be avoided in patients with gastroparesis, pancreatitis, or a history of thyroid cancer.

Things to remember:
Thiazolidinediones have a boxed warning for causing or worsening heart failure and are contraindicated in patients with New York Heart Association class III or IV heart failure

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2
Q

An 11-year-old female is brought to the office due to recent weight loss, frequent urination, and thirst. Her blood glucose in the office is 389 mg/dL, hemoglobin A1C is 10.4%, and C-peptide is 0.1 ng/mL. She has a normal BMI for her age. Which of the following medication regimens would be appropriate to start?

A

E. Humalog + Lantus

Type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) is characterized by insulin deficiency due to autoimmune destruction of the pancreatic beta-cells. Therefore, patients with T1DM require consistent insulin administration, typically as a basal plus bolus regimen.

Basal insulin is usually long-acting insulin given once daily (eg, glargine) or intermediate-acting insulin given twice daily (eg, NPH).

Bolus insulin is usually rapid-acting insulin (eg, lispro, aspart), and is given before meals.

Noninsulin medications [eg, metformin, sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitors] are used in type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) to control blood glucose when endogenous insulin is present. These medications are occasionally used to treat T1DM but only in addition to insulin; they offer limited benefits in T1DM since endogenous insulin production is deficient and long-term safety has not been established.

(Choice A) Thiazolidinediones [eg, pioglitazone (Actos)] increase insulin sensitivity. Dipeptidyl peptidase 4 inhibitors [eg, sitagliptin (Januvia)] increase insulin secretion with food, among other mechanisms. Because endogenous insulin is not present, these medications would not be beneficial.

(Choices B and C) Metformin (Glucophage) decreases gluconeogenesis, increases insulin sensitivity, and decreases intestinal glucose absorption. SGLT2 inhibitors [eg, dapagliflozin (Farxiga)] increase glucose excretion in the urine. Glucagon-like peptide 1 agonists [eg, liraglutide (Victoza)] increase insulin secretion with food, among other mechanisms. Since endogenous insulin is not present, these medications alone are insufficient.

(Choice D) Sulfonylureas [eg, glipizide (Glucotrol)] increase insulin release from the pancreas. They would be ineffective if endogenous insulin production is insufficient. Furthermore, use of sulfonylureas with insulin increases the risk of hypoglycemia.

Things to remember:
Type 1 diabetes mellitus is a result of autoimmune beta-cell destruction of the pancreas. Since the pancreas is unable to produce enough insulin, exogenous insulin is the primary form of therapy.

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3
Q

AMis a 19-year-old male ( 5’11”, 176 lbs) who was just diagnosed with type 1 diabetes. He eats 3 meals per day. The physician writes for an initial daily dose of insulin of 0.6 units/kg/day. Using a basal-bolus dosing strategy, calculate the amount of Lantus and the amount of HumalogAMshould take.

A

C. Lantus 24 units at bedtime and Humalog 8 units before meals

When using a basal and mealtime (also called bolus) insulin dosing strategy, it is initiated by taking the total daily dose of insulin and giving 50% of the insulin as the basal dose and 50% as the bolus, or mealtime, dose. The bolus dose will then need to be divided up by the number of meals the patient eats (in this case, AM eats 3 meals).

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4
Q

KH is a 34-year-old female who comes to the pharmacy with a new prescription for a glucometer kit, test strips, and lancets. She states that she was recently diagnosed with gestational diabetes and has never used a glucometer. Which of the following counseling points should the pharmacist provide to the patient?

A. Blood sample from the side of the fingerand not on the finger pad
B. Recalibrate the device prior to each use
C. Test strips can be removed from canister and stored in pocket of glucometer kit
D. The thigh can be used when hypoglycemia is expected
E. Used test strips should be disposed of in a sharps container

A

BGM frequency ranges from as needed (eg, in someone with type 2 diabetes mellitus well-controlled with lifestyle modifications) to multiple daily tests (eg, in someone with gestational diabetes or with multiple daily injections of insulin).

General counseling points apply to the majority of glucometers, although slight differences exist between devices (eg, calibration). BGM includes the following steps:

Wash hands and dry thoroughly; water will dilute the sample.

Insert a new test strip into the glucometer.

Prick the side of the finger (less painful than the finger pad) using a lancet/lancing device.

Apply a drop of blood to the test strip.

Record the reading.

(Choice B) Some devices require calibration to verify accuracy with each new container of test strips (not prior to each use) or with device concerns (eg, exposure to extreme temperatures, inconsistent readings).

(Choice C) Test strips must be stored in the original container to protect them from light and moisture. Do not use test strips after the expiration date.

(Choice D) Alternate testing sites (eg, forearm, palm, thigh) can be used with some devices. They are not recommended when blood glucose is changing (eg, after exercise or eating) or when hypoglycemia is suspected because the result may be approximately 20 minutes old compared to fingertip testing.

(Choice E) After testing, dispose of the lancet in a sharps container. The test strip does not require special disposal.

Things to remember:
Blood glucose is usually monitored by pricking the side of the finger. Some devices allow for use of alternate testing sites (eg, forearm, thigh) but only if the blood glucose is steady (ie, hypoglycemia not expected)

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5
Q

A 46-year-old female with type 2 diabetes mellitus is currently taking metformin 1,000 mg orally twice daily. Although the patient is adherent to metformin, her hemoglobin A1C is 7.7%. Her healthcare provider is adding Amaryl to her medication regimen. What is the primary mechanism of action of Amaryl?

A

E. stimulates insulin secretion from the pancreas

Sulfonylureas [eg, glimepiride (Amaryl)] and meglitinides are known as insulin secretagogues because they work in the pancreas to increase insulin secretion by blocking ATP-sensitive potassium channels on the beta cells. Therefore, secretagogues are effective only if the patient has some remaining beta cell function; if not, insulin injections may be needed for blood glucose control.

Secretagogues work independently of the blood glucose level. They stimulate insulin release whether the blood sugar is elevated or not, leading to an increased risk of hypoglycemia. For this reason, secretagogues must be taken with food or shortly before the start of a meal (ie, within 30 minutes before eating). Sulfonylureas are often taken daily whereas meglitinides have a faster onset and shorter duration of action and are taken before each meal.

(Choice A) Reducing hepatic glucose output is the primary mechanism of metformin. Thiazolidinediones (TZDs) also work in this manner but to a lesser extent.

(Choice B) Improving insulin sensitivity in fat and muscle cells is a mechanism of the TZDs and metformin.

(Choice C) Sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitors reduce renal glucose reabsorption and increase glucose excretion in the urine.

(Choice D) The primary mechanism of sulfonylureas is not related to glucagon secretion. Dipeptidyl peptidase 4 (DPP-4) inhibitors work in this manner; they prevent the breakdown of natural incretins (eg, glucagon-like peptide 1), which increases glucose-dependent insulin release from the pancreas and reduces hepatic glucagon secretion.

Things to remember:
Sulfonylureas and meglitinides work primarily in the pancreas, where they increase insulin secretion from the beta cells. This mechanism of action lowers blood glucose but also increases the risk of hypoglycemia.

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6
Q

AR is a 51-year-old female who comes to the primary care clinic for her six-month follow-up visit. She states that she has been experiencing “tingling” and “numbness” in her legs and feet recently. She has also had trouble sleeping and is worried because she is becoming “forgetful.”

Past Medical History:
Hypertension
Gastroesophageal reflux disease
Type 2 diabetes mellitus
Dyslipidemia
Stage 3 chronic kidney disease

Social History: vegetarian diet × 2 years, former cigarette smoker (quit 5 years ago), sedentary lifestyle

Allergies: NKDA

Medications:
Metformin 1,000 mg PO BID
Crestor 40 mg PO daily
Enalapril 20 mg PO daily
Amlodipine 10 mg PO daily
Pantoprazole 40 mg PO daily
Lantus 10 units SQ HS

Vital Signs: BP 122/80 mmHg, HR 70 bpm, Ht 5′ 4″, Wt 140 lbs

Laboratory Tests:
eGFR 58 mL/min/1.73 m2
Glucose 131 mg/dL
Hemoglobin A1C 7.2%

Which of the following tests should be ordered based on the patient’s symptoms?

A

E. Vit B

Metformin reduces vitamin B12 intestinal absorption in up to 30% of patients, which can lead to deficiency with long-term treatment (ie, ≥ 5 years). For this reason, metformin-treated patients should have vitamin B12levels monitored periodically (eg, every 1–2 years), especially when additional risk factors exist (eg, vegan or vegetarian diet) or when symptoms of deficiency are present.

Vitamin B12 is required for myelin sheath formation, which is why neurological symptoms such as peripheral neuropathy, symmetric paresthesias of the lower extremities, and cognitive impairment (eg, insomnia, forgetfulness) can precede other clinical manifestations (eg, macrocytic anemia).

(Choice A) Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry is a diagnostic tool used to assess bone mineral density and risk or presence of osteopenia or osteoporosis. This patient does not meet the criteria for screening (eg, age ≥ 65 years, history of fragility fracture).

(Choice B) Serum b-type natriuretic peptide is released from myocardial cells to promote sodium and water excretion in response to fluid overload. A level would be warranted if the patient had symptoms of heart failure (eg, peripheral edema, shortness of breath).

(Choice C) Because folic acid is added to many foods (eg, pasta, cereal, rice), deficiencies are rare in the absence of other risk factors, such as alcohol use disorder, malabsorption, or use of certain medications (eg, methotrexate).

(Choice D) Lipase is often elevated in acute pancreatitis, the symptoms of which include acute, persistent abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting.

Things to remember:
Long-term use of metformin can result in vitamin B12 deficiency. Vitamin B12 levels should be monitored periodically (eg, annually) or when concerning symptoms develop (eg, peripheral neuropathy, neurocognitive changes)

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7
Q

A patient injects 52 units of Novolin N in the morning and 36 units at bedtime using a vial and syringes. Which of the following syringe sizes are the most appropriate for this regimen?

A

E. 1mL for morning and 0.5 mL for bedtime dose

When using insulin vials, selecting the appropriate syringe size improves measurement accuracy and helps reduce dosing errors. Most insulin is supplied in a concentration of 100 units/mL. Higher insulin doses (larger volumes) require a larger syringe than smaller doses (smaller volumes), which require a smaller syringe. Commonly used syringe sizes include:

0.3 mL, used for ≤ 30 units, marked in 1-unit increments

0.5 mL, used for 31–50 units, marked in 1-unit increments

1 mL, used for 51–100 units, marked in 2-unit increments

U-500 (for regular insulin U-500 only), used for ≤ 250 units, marked in 5-unit increments

This patient’s morning dose is 0.52 mL (52 units × 1 mL/100 units = 0.52 mL). Therefore, a 1 mL syringe is needed; the other sizes are too small. The 0.3 mL syringe is too small for the evening dose (0.36 mL). The 0.5 mL and 1 mL syringes are large enough, but the smallest syringe that holds the number of units needed should be selected, making a 0.5 mL syringe the appropriate choice.

(Choice A) The 0.3 mL syringe is too small to hold either the patient’s morning or evening dose.

(Choice B) The 0.5 mL syringe is too small for the morning dose, and the 0.3 mL syringe is too small for the evening dose.

(Choice C) The 0.5 mL syringe is large enough for the evening dose but too small for the morning dose.

(Choice D) The 1 mL syringe is appropriate for the morning dose, but the 0.3 mL syringe is too small for the evening dose.

Things to remember:
Select the smallest insulin syringe that will hold the required dose to improve dosing accuracy and reduce error risk

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8
Q

A pharmacist is counseling a patient on a new prescription of exenatide (Byetta).

A

Glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) agonists come as pen injections for subcutaneous administration. Patients require counseling on proper handling and storage. General counseling points are applicable to all GLP-1 agonist injectables, although subtle differences exist for each (eg, priming, stability).

Exenatide immediate release (Byetta) is administered twice daily within 60 minutes before meals. One Byetta pen will last 30 days, after which it should be thrown away. New pens require a one-time setup (eg, inspecting the cartridge, priming). Administration includes the following:

Wash hands.

Attach a new pen needle with each injection. Remove the outer and inner needle shields, keeping the outer shield for later use (Choice A).

Dial the pen to the dose.

Insert the needle at 90 degrees in the abdomen, thigh, or upper arm. Rotate injection sites (Choice C).

Press and hold the injection button while counting slowly to five (Choice D).

After use, replace the outer shield and remove the pen needle. Never store a pen with a needle attached (Choice E).

Discard used needles in a sharps disposal container (Choice B).

Replace the pen cap before storing. The pen in use can be stored at room temperature, while unused pens should be stored in the refrigerator (Choice F).

Key counseling points for injectable glucagon-like peptide 1 agonists include the following: attaching a new pen needle with each injection; inserting the needle at 90 degrees in the subcutaneous tissue of the abdomen, thigh, or upper arm; pressing and holding the injection button for five seconds; removing the used pen needle and discarding it in a sharps disposal container; and storing the pen with the pen cap in place.

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9
Q

FM is a 68-year-old female with type 2 diabetes mellitus. She is in the office today for a follow-up appointment and does not report any symptoms. The patient takes metformin 1,000 mg BID, Lantus 30 units at bedtime, and Humalog 6 units TID with meals. Below is her self-monitored blood glucose log from the past week.

Based on these blood glucose readings, which adjustment to her medications is most appropriate?

A. Decrease breakfast, lunch, and dinner Humalog to 4 units
B. Decrease Lantus to 26 units at bedtime
C. Increase breakfast Humalog to 8 units
D. Increase dinner Humalog to 8 units
E. Increase Lantus to 34 units at bedtime

A

B. Decrease Lantus to 26 units at bedtime

The goals of treatment for diabetes mellitus are to maintain blood glucose (BG) levels in the target range (while avoiding hypoglycemia) and to reduce complications. In nonpregnant adults, the goal preprandial BG level is between 80–130 mg/dL. Hyperglycemia can lead to long-term complications, whereas hypoglycemia can lead to immediate morbidity/mortality. Hypoglycemia (BG < 70 mg/dL) is a common adverse effect of insulin treatment.

For patients on a basal/bolus insulin regimen, fasting plasma glucose (FPG) is most impacted by basal insulin. If FPG is trending low, the basal insulin dose should be decreased; for high trends, the dose should be increased. In this case, the patient’s BG readings are all within the target range except for FPG. Decreasing the dose of basal insulin [eg, insulin glargine (Lantus)] would be best to prevent hypoglycemia.

(Choices A, C, and D) BG level trends before lunch and dinner or at bedtime are usually reflective of the bolus insulin (eg, regular or rapid-acting) dose prior to that reading. For example, an elevated BG reading before dinner reflects that the bolus insulin dose before lunch was not adequate for control. In this case, the patient’s BG readings before lunch and dinner and at bedtime are all within normal range; therefore, insulin lispro (Humalog) does not require adjustment.

(Choice E) Increasing the basal insulin dose would further decrease FPG, putting the patient at an even higher risk of hypoglycemic events.

Things to remember:
Fasting plasma glucose highs or lows should be addressed by adjusting the basal insulin dose for patients on a basal/bolus insulin regimen.

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10
Q

A patient is going to convert from his U-100 regular insulin to U-500 insulin. He currently uses 100 units of U-100 regular insulin with his evening meal. How many mL of U-500 insulin will he need with his evening meal to get the same dose? (Answer must be numeric; no units or commas; include a leading zero when the answer is less than 1; round the final answer to the nearest TENTH.)

A

U-500 insulin (500 units/mL) is five times as concentrated as regular insulin (100 units/mL), so 1/5 the volume of U-100 is required to provide the same number of units of U-500 insulin.

The patient was using 100 units (1 mL) of U-100 regular insulin.
500 units/mL = 100 units/X mL
X = 0.2 mL of U-500 provides 100 units of insulin

Alternatively, 1 mL x 1/5 = 0.2 mL of U-500

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11
Q

Where within the kidney does Invokana exert its mechanism of action?

A. Ascending limb of the loop of Henle
B. Collecting duct
C. Distal convoluted tubule
D. Efferent arteriole
E. Proximal tubule

A

E. Proximal tubule

Sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) is found in the proximal tubule of the nephron, where it is responsible for glucose and sodium reabsorption. Inhibiting SGLT2 lowers the amount of glucose reabsorbed into the bloodstream, increasing urinary glucose for excretion. This mechanism is glucose-dependent: more glucose is eliminated when blood glucose levels are elevated, and as blood glucose levels fall less glucose is excreted, resulting in a low risk of hypoglycemia.

SGLT2 inhibitors [eg, canagliflozin (Invokana)] increase glucose and sodium in the urine, causing water to remain within the nephron and increasing urination (called osmotic diuresis and natriuresis). The diuretic effect of SGLT2 inhibitors can lead to volume depletion, which can cause hypotension and acute kidney injury. Excess glucose in the urine increases the risk of urinary tract and genital mycotic (fungal) infections.

(Choice A) Loop diuretics (eg, furosemide) exert their action in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle, where they inhibit sodium reabsorption. This results in excess water remaining in the filtrate, causing diuresis.

(Choice B) Aldosterone antagonists (eg, spironolactone) block aldosterone receptors in the collecting duct, increasing sodium and water excretion and reducing potassium elimination.

(Choice C) Thiazide diuretics (eg, hydrochlorothiazide) inhibit the sodium-chloride pump in the distal convoluted tubule, causing diuresis due to extra sodium and water remaining within the filtrate.

(Choice D) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors (eg, lisinopril) and angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) lower pressure within the glomerulus by dilating the efferent arterioles, slowing the progression of kidney disease in patients with albuminuria.

Things to remember:
Sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitors act in the proximal tubule to increase urinary glucose excretion, which leads to decreased blood glucose concentrations and other beneficial effects (eg, diuresis)

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12
Q

A 37-year-old female is seen in the clinic for follow-up of type 2 diabetes mellitus. She was diagnosed with diabetes 10 months ago and started metformin at that time. Her point-of-care hemoglobin A1C is 8.2%. The prescriber would like to start her on Trulicity. Which of the following is the correct route and frequency for this new medication?

A. Administer subcutaneously once daily
B. Administer subcutaneously once weekly
C. Administer subcutaneously twice daily
D. Take by mouth once daily in the morning
E. Take by mouth twice daily before meals

A

B. Administer subcutaneously once weekly

Dulaglutide (Trulicity) is a glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) agonist used for the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM). It is administered by subcutaneous injection via a prefilled pen, like other medications in this class (except for an oral formulation of semaglutide).

Because these medications require self-injection, a fear of needles can be a barrier for some individuals. However, select GLP-1 agonists are injected weekly (eg, dulaglutide) to decrease the number of injections and improve patient adherence. Others in the class are dosed daily or twice daily. The agents given as weekly injections come with pen needles.

(Choices A and C) Shorter-acting GLP-1 agonists are administered daily [eg, liraglutide (Victoza)] or twice daily [ie, exenatide immediate-release (Byetta)]. GLP-1 agonists with higher-frequency dosing (daily or twice daily) require needles to be purchased separately.

(Choice D) Semaglutide is available as an oral GLP-1 agonist (Rybelsus) administered once daily at least 30 minutes before the first meal of the day. These same dosing instructions apply to another class of medications for T2DM, the sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitors. Dipeptidyl peptidase 4 (DPP-4) inhibitors and thiazolidinediones are administered once daily without regard to meals.

(Choice E) None of the GLP-1 agonists are administered orally twice daily, but other medications for T2DM may have these instructions. Metformin is administered once or twice daily with meals to reduce adverse gastrointestinal effects. Sulfonylureas and meglitinides are administered 1–3 times daily before meals to reduce postprandial hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia risk.

Things to remember:
Most glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) agonists are administered as subcutaneous self-injections. The dosing frequency depends on the medication and can range from twice daily to weekly

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13
Q

MK is a 42-year-old female who currently takes semaglutide and metformin for type 2 diabetes mellitus. At initial diagnosis, her hemoglobin A1C was 9.5%. Two years later, her hemoglobin A1C is now 10.6% despite adherence to her current medications. The health care provider decides to initiate insulin therapy. Which of the following insulin options would be the best choice?

A. Humalog, administered via an insulin pump
B. Humalog, taken with meals and carbohydrate-heavy snacks
C. Lantus, taken with meals and carbohydrate-heavy snacks
D. Lantus, taken at bedtime
E. Novolin 70/30, dosed TID

A

Many patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) will not achieve adequate blood glucose control on oral medications alone. Glucagon-like peptide 1 agonists are typically recommended as the initial injectable medication. If these are not tolerated or do not provide adequate control, insulin should be started.

In T2DM, insulin can be added gradually because some pancreatic beta-cell function remains. Basal insulin [eg, insulin glargine(Lantus)] should be initiated first and given once daily. If basal insulin alone does not control blood glucose, prandial insulin [eg, insulin lispro (Humalog)] can be added before meals, starting with the largest meal of the day.

(Choice A) Insulin pumps are used for highly motivated patients who have been previously controlled on multiple daily injections. They are not first-line for insulin initiation in T2DM.

(Choice B) Rapid-acting insulins [eg, insulin lispro (Humalog)] are appropriate for prandial control in combination with basal insulin. In general, these would not be the first insulin started in a patient with T2DM.

(Choice C) Long-acting insulins [eg, insulin glargine (Lantus)] are given once (sometimes twice) daily as basal insulin (ie, to provide consistent insulin throughout the day). They should not be administered more than twice daily nor as prandial insulin.

(Choice E) Mixed insulin regimens containing intermediate-acting insulin and short- or rapid-acting insulin (eg, premixed Novolin 70/30) are dosed twice daily before meals. They are not preferred due to a higher incidence of hypoglycemia but may be used if barriers to a basal/bolus regimen exist (eg, cost, nonadherence due to frequent injections).

Things to remember:
Basal insulin is recommended as the first-line insulin for patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus

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14
Q

ML is a 53-year-old male who comes to the office for follow-up of chronic medical conditions and smoking cessation. He reports symptoms of frequent thirst and fatigue.

Past Medical History: alcohol use disorder, chronic pancreatitis, tobacco use disorder, type 2 diabetes mellitus

Medications:
Acetaminophen 500 mg PO every 4–6 hours PRN
Metformin ER 1,000 mg PO BID
Naltrexone 380 mg IM every 4 weeks
Varenicline 1 mg PO BID

Laboratory Tests:
Hemoglobin A1C 8.2%

Which of the following medications should be avoided in this patient? (Select ALL that apply)

A. Exenatide
B. Glipizide
C. Invokana
D. Janumet
E. Linagliptin

A

A. Exenatide
D. Janumet
E. Linagliptin

Acute pancreatitis is commonly due to chronic alcohol use, gallstones, hypertriglyceridemia, and, sometimes, medications. It can present with sudden severe upper abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Persistent alcohol use and the resulting acute pancreatitis can progress to chronic pancreatitis, which can cause lasting damage to the pancreatic insulin-producing cells.

Drug-induced pancreatitis is uncommon but can develop within weeks or months of beginning a drug. Dipeptidyl peptidase 4 (DPP-4) inhibitors (eg, linagliptin) and glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) agonists (eg, exenatide) have been associated with acute pancreatitis (Choices A and E). Metformin/sitagliptin (Janumet) should be avoided due to the DPP-4 inhibitor component (and, in this patient, would also result in a duplication of therapy with metformin) (Choice D). Medications associated with pancreatitis should be avoided in patients with current signs of or a history of pancreatitis.

(Choice B) Sulfonylureas (eg, glipizide) can be added to metformin and are not associated with pancreatitis. They should be used with caution in patients with a high risk for hypoglycemia or sulfa allergies.

(Choice C) Sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitors [eg, canagliflozin (Invokana)] are appropriate metformin add-on treatments. They are not associated with pancreatitis but should be used with caution in those with risks associated with SGLT2 inhibitors (eg, recurrent urinary tract infections).

Things to remember:
Dipeptidyl peptidase 4 (DPP-4) inhibitors and glucagon-like peptide 1(GLP-1) agonists have been associated with an increased risk of pancreatitis, and therefore should be avoided in patients with pancreatitis (current or past).

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15
Q

KT is a 15-year-old female brought to the emergency department by her father, who found her in the bathroom vomiting and unable to stand without assistance. The patient is drowsy but arousable. She states that she has had a sore throat and nasal congestion for the past week, as well as increased urination and thirst for the past 2 months. She now reports 4 episodes of vomiting in the past 24 hours and abdominal pain.

Past Medical History: none

Current Medications: multivitamin once daily

Vital Signs: BP 100/66 mmHg, HR 120 bpm, RR 28 bpm, T 98.8°F (37.1°C), Ht 5’7”, Wt 120 lbs

Laboratory Tests:
Sodium 140 mEq/L
Potassium 5.3 mEq/L
Chloride 100 mEq/L
Bicarbonate 16 mEq/L
Blood urea nitrogen 28 mg/dL
Serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
Calcium 9.2 mg/dL
Glucose 420 mg/dL
Hemoglobin A1C 10.1%
Urine albumin negative
Urine ketones positive
Urine beta-hCG negative

A. Dextrose 5% in water infusion
B. Metformin
C. Normal saline infusion
D. Oral potassium replacement
E. Subcutaneous insulin glargine

A

C. Normal saline infusion

Polyuria, polydipsia, vomiting, and abdominal pain are concerning for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), a hyperglycemic crisis common in type 1 diabetes mellitus. Clinical findings of hyperglycemia, ketonuria, metabolic acidosis, and dehydration (ie, hypovolemia caused by hyperglycemia and subsequent osmotic diuresis) further support a DKA diagnosis.

DKA treatment includes:

IV normal saline (ie, an isotonic fluid) to expand intravascular volume
IV regular insulin infusion to lower blood glucose
Potassium monitoring and replacement to maintain serum concentrations of 4–5 mEq/L
Acid-base monitoring and correction with sodium bicarbonate if pH ≤ 6.9
(Choice A) Dextrose 5% in water does not provide adequate intravascular fluid resuscitation and can worsen hyperglycemia. Dextrose-containing fluid (eg, dextrose 5% with 0.45% sodium chloride) is recommended once blood glucose is < 200 mg/dL to prevent hypoglycemia from insulin administration.

(Choice B) Metformin has a boxed warning for lactic acidosis and is contraindicated in patients with metabolic acidosis caused by DKA. In addition, it is not appropriate for management of a hyperglycemic crisis due to its slower onset of action.

(Choice D) Potassium replacement is indicated in patients with a low potassium level (ie, < 5mEq/L) to overcome insulin-induced hypokalemia.

(Choice E) Regular insulin is preferred in the early management of DKA because it has a quick onset and can be administered IV. Subcutaneous long-acting insulin (eg, glargine) is appropriate when ketoacidosis has resolved and the IV insulin infusion is ready to be discontinued.

Things to remember:
A diabetic ketoacidosis presentation includes dehydration, blood glucose between 250–800 mg/dL, ketones in the urine or blood, and anion gap metabolic acidosis. Treatment includes IV normal saline, IV regular insulin, and correction of potassium and acid-base imbalances

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16
Q

A 56-year-old female is picking up a new prescription of Actos from her community pharmacy. Which of the following are possible risks with this prescription? (Select ALL that apply)

A. Fluid retention
B. Gastroparesis
C. Pancreatitis
D. Urinary tract infection
E. Weight gain

A

Thiazolidinediones (TZDs) (eg, pioglitazone) activate peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor-gamma (PPARγ) found in muscle, liver, and fat. This leads to decreased insulin resistance by increasing the uptake and utilization of glucose, ultimately lowering blood glucose. TZDs may benefit those with high insulin resistance or hypoglycemia risk, and pioglitazone has additional beneficial effects (eg, reduced inflammation, reduced steatosis) in nonalcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH).

TZDs are not the preferred treatment for type 2 diabetes mellitus because of limited efficacy, slow effect (ie, weeks or months), lack of cardiovascular benefit, and safety issues. Primary adverse effects include fluid retention due to sodium reabsorption in the collecting tubule of the kidney, which can cause or worsen heart failure, and weight gain, mainly due to fluid retention and increased adipose tissue (Choices A and E). TZDs should be used with caution in patients with osteoporosis due to risk of fractures.

(Choice B) Use caution or avoid drugs that can delay gastric emptying, such as glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) agonists and the amylin analog pramlintide, in severe gastrointestinal disease (eg, gastroparesis).

(Choice C) Dipeptidyl peptidase 4 (DPP-4) inhibitors and GLP-1 agonists should be avoided in patients with signs of pancreatitis (eg, severe abdominal pain) or a history of pancreatitis.

(Choice D) Sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitors should be used with caution in patients with recurrent urinary tract infections.

Things to remember:
Thiazolidinediones (eg, pioglitazone) are not the preferred treatment for type 2 diabetes mellitus because of safety issues such as fracture risk, weight gain, and fluid retention (which can cause or worsen heart failure).

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17
Q

LJ is a 41-year-old male who comes to the pharmacy to fill a new prescription. His hemoglobin A1C is 9.2% and his healthcare provider is starting him on Lantus 10 units daily at bedtime.

Past Medical History: asthma, type 2 diabetes mellitus, gastroesophageal reflux disease, obesity, generalized anxiety disorder

Allergies: penicillin (rash)

Medications:
-Metformin 1,000 mg PO BID
-Advair Diskus 250/50 mcg 1 inhalation PO BID
-Escitalopram 20 mg PO daily
-Farxiga 10 mg PO daily
-Proventil HFA 90 mcg 2 inhalations PO Q4–6H PRN SOB
-Pantoprazole 40 mg PO QAM

Which of the following counseling points about Lantus should the pharmacist provide? (Select ALL that apply)

A. Blood tests will be needed because Lantus can lower sodium levels
B. Monitor asthma symptoms because Lantus can worsen breathing problems
C. Monitor your weight because Lantus can cause weight loss
D. Rotate your injection sites to prevent skin abnormalities, such as redistribution of fat
E. Watch for sweating, hunger, and confusion; these are symptoms of low blood sugar

A

D. Rotate your injection sites to prevent skin abnormalities, such as redistribution of fat
E. Watch for sweating, hunger, and confusion; these are symptoms of low blood sugar

18
Q

A patient with type 2 diabetes injects herself with 30 units of NPH BID and 15 units of regular insulin BID before meals each day. Determine how many grams of carbohydrates are covered per 1 unit of insulin. (Answer must be numeric; no units or commas; round the final answer to the nearest WHOLE number.)

A

450/90 = 5
The ICR is calculated with the Rule of 450 because the patient is administering regular insulin

19
Q

A 42-year-old female is picking up a new prescription of Farxiga from her community pharmacy. Which of the following are possible risks with this prescription? (Select ALL that apply)

A. Hypertension
B. Urinary tract infection
C. Vaginal yeast infection
D. Weight gain
E. Worsening heart failure

A

B. Urinary tract infection
C. Vaginal yeast infection

Sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitors [eg, dapagliflozin (Farxiga)] block the reabsorption of glucose, along with sodium, in the proximal tubule of the kidney, thereby decreasing blood glucose levels. The resulting excess glucose is excreted through the urine. The glucose in the urine also causes extra water to collect in the urine, increasing urination in a process called osmotic diuresis.

Increased urinary glucose levels provide a favorable environment for bacteria and fungi, resulting in increased risk for:

Urinary tract infections (Choice B).
Genitourinary (eg, vaginal) yeast infections (Choice C).
(Choice A) Due to their diuretic effect, SGLT2 inhibitors can lead to volume depletion. Orthostatic hypotension may result, especially in patients with a higher risk (eg, older age, concurrent use of diuretics).

(Choice D) SGLT2 inhibitors can lead to weight loss and, along with glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) agonists, are preferred agents when weight loss is desired in patients who are overweight or obese. Other medications used for type 2 diabetes mellitus treatment (ie, insulin, meglitinides, sulfonylureas, thiazolidinediones) can lead to weight gain.

(Choice E) SGLT2 inhibitors have demonstrated benefits in heart failure (eg, reduced heart failure hospitalizations), likely due to their diuretic effect.

Things to remember:
Sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitors increase urinary glucose excretion, which decreases blood glucose levels but also increases the risk for urinary tract infections and genitourinary (eg, vaginal) yeast infections

20
Q

CP is a 62-year-old female who was discharged from the hospital two days ago after experiencing an ischemic stroke. She is at her primary care provider’s office today for a follow-up appointment post-discharge. She was also newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus while hospitalized.

Past Medical History: hypertension, tobacco use, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Allergies: NKDA

Discharge Medications:
Plavix 75 mg PO daily
Aspirin 81 mg PO daily
Lipitor 80 mg PO daily
Humulin N 6 units SQ BID
Hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg PO daily
Valsartan 80 mg PO daily
Spiriva Respimat 2.5 mcg/actuation inhale 2 puffs once daily

Vital Signs: BP 150/86 mmHg, HR 78 bpm, RR 18 bpm, O₂ sat 96% on room air, T 97.8°F (37.4°C), Ht 5’6”, Wt 178 lbs

Laboratory Tests (Fasting):
Sodium 140 mEq/L
Potassium 4.1 mEq/L
Chloride 102 mEq/L
Bicarbonate 25 mEq/L
Blood urea nitrogen 11 mg/dL
Serum creatinine 0.87 mg/dL
Glucose 171 mg/dL
Hemoglobin A1C 8.7%

Plan: Discontinue Humulin N. Start dual therapy for type 2 diabetes mellitus to include metformin. Consult clinical pharmacist for further recommendations. Continue all other discharge medications.

Which of the following medications should be added to the patient’s regimen to provide mortality benefit?

A. Amaryl
B. Januvia
C. Lantus
D. Repaglinide
E. Trulicity

A

E. Trulicity

Atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD), including coronary artery disease, peripheral artery disease, and cerebral vascular disease (stroke, transient ischemic attack), is the most common cause of death among patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM). To reduce cardiovascular morbidity and mortality, glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) agonists [eg, Trulicity (dulaglutide)] and sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitors are recommended first-line treatments for patients with T2DM and preexisting ASCVD or high ASCVD risk.

A GLP-1 agonist or SGLT2 inhibitor is recommended even when the hemoglobin A1C is at goal. More commonly, the hemoglobin A1C is above goal, and these drugs are used in combination with other glucose-lowering therapies (eg, metformin).

(Choices A, B, C, and D) Sulfonylureas [eg, Amaryl (glimepiride)], dipeptidyl peptidase 4 (DPP-4) inhibitors [eg, Januvia (sitagliptin)], insulin [eg, Lantus (insulin glargine)], and meglitinides (eg, repaglinide) do not provide cardiovascular benefits. In this patient with preexisting ASCVD, these drugs can be considered if additional glycemic control is needed after a GLP-1 agonist and/or SGLT2 inhibitor have been added to the patient’s regimen. Patient-specific safety issues, such as hypoglycemic risk with the secretagogues and insulin or heart failure risk with DDP-4 inhibitors, should be evaluated before use.

Things to remember:
A glucagon-like peptide 1 agonist or sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 inhibitor is recommended for patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus and preexisting atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD) or high ASCVD risk

21
Q

Which of the following are macrovascular complications of diabetes mellitus? (Select ALL that apply)

A. Cerebrovascular accident
B. Gastroparesis
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Nephropathy
E. Peripheral artery disease
F. Peripheral neuropathy
G. Retinopathy

A

A, C, E

Poorly controlled diabetes mellitus (DM) can cause several long-term complications that can be broadly divided into two categories: microvascular and macrovascular disease. Macrovascular complications result from damage to large blood vessels (eg, atherosclerosis) and encompass the same conditions that define atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD). These include:

Cerebrovascular accident (ie, stroke) and transient ischemic attack (Choice A).

Coronary artery disease, such as myocardial infarction or angina (Choice C).

Peripheral artery disease (Choice E).

The macrovascular complications of DM are a leading cause of death; prevention of complications with glycemic control and diabetes comprehensive care (eg, management of blood pressure, dyslipidemia) is critical.

(Choices B, D, F, and G) Gastroparesis, nephropathy, peripheral neuropathy, and retinopathy are all examples of microvascular complications. These and other autonomic neuropathies, such as erectile dysfunction and urinary incontinence, occur due to damage to small blood vessels. Microvascular complications are strongly correlated with poor blood glucose control and therefore are best prevented by achieving tight glucose control.

Things to remember:
Macrovascular complications of diabetes mellitus arise from damage to large blood vessels and include coronary artery disease, cerebrovascular disease, and peripheral artery disease. Management of contributing risk factors (eg, blood pressure, lipid control) and achieving glycemic targets can help minimize complications

22
Q

AS is a 58-year-old male who comes to the clinic for an evaluation of his blood pressure. He monitors his fasting blood glucose daily (range: 122–180 mg/dL) and blood pressure occasionally (range: 134–142/86–90 mmHg) at home. His 10-year cardiovascular disease (CVD) risk, according to the PREVENT calculator, is 11%.

Past Medical History: dyslipidemia, type 2 diabetes mellitus

Medications:
Atorvastatin 10 mg PO daily
Dapagliflozin 5 mg PO QAM
Metformin ER 2,000 mg PO daily
Vitamin B12 1,000 mcg PO daily

Vital Signs: BP 138/86 mmHg, HR 82 bpm, Ht 5’9”, Wt 200 lbs

Laboratory Tests:
eGFR 70 mL/min/1.73 m²
Hemoglobin A1C 7.6%
Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio 22 mg/g

Which treatment is most appropriate to manage this patient’s blood pressure?

A. Atenolol/chlorthalidone
B. Lifestyle modifications only
C. Metoprolol
D. Valsartan
E. Verapamil

A

Hypertension is a common comorbid condition in individuals with diabetes mellitus, and treatment to a blood pressure goal of < 130/80 mmHg decreases the risk of atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD) and microvascular complications (eg, chronic kidney disease).

The presence of select comorbidities guides antihypertensive drug selection. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) are recommended in individuals with coronary artery disease (CAD) or albuminuria (eg, urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio ≥ 30 mg/g). The preferred drug classes for hypertension without albuminuria or CAD include:

ACE inhibitors (eg, lisinopril) or ARBs (eg, valsartan)

Dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers (eg, amlodipine)

Thiazide diuretics (eg, chlorthalidone)

(Choices A and C) Beta-blockers (eg, atenolol, metoprolol) are recommended first line when certain comorbid conditions (eg, myocardial infarction) are present. Although chlorthalidone is appropriate, initiating two drugs at baseline is recommended only when systolic blood pressure is ≥ 140 mmHg and diastolic blood pressure is ≥ 90 mmHg; dual therapy should include agents from the preferred drug classes.

(Choice B) Lifestyle modifications (eg, dietary salt restriction) are recommended in all individuals with hypertension, but drug treatment should also be initiated for stage 2 hypertension (ie, blood pressure ≥ 140/90 mmHg) or stage 1 hypertension (ie, blood pressure ≥ 130/80 mmHg) with added risk (eg, ASCVD, diabetes mellitus, chronic kidney disease, 10-year cardiovascular disease risk ≥ 7.5%).

(Choice E) Nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers (eg, verapamil) are not preferred for hypertension. These are used primarily for heart rate control in atrial fibrillation and angina (eg, chest pain).

Things to remember:
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs), dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers, and thiazide diuretics are the preferred antihypertensive drugs to treat hypertension without albuminuria or coronary artery disease

23
Q

What diabetes medications are at a higher risk for hypoglycemia?

A. Empagliflozin
B. Glimepiride
C. Hydrochlorothiazide
D. Lisinopril
E. Metformin

A

B. Glimepiride

Hypoglycemia initially presents with symptoms such as anxiety, tremor, and sweating primarily due to activation of the sympathetic nervous system. As hypoglycemia worsens, life-threatening symptoms can develop including confusion, loss of consciousness, and seizures. Hypoglycemia risk increases with age, certain diabetes medications (eg, insulin, sulfonylureas, meglitinides), use of multiple diabetes medications, exercise, or inconsistent eating patterns (eg, skipping meals).

Sulfonylureas (eg, glimepiride) and meglitinides stimulate insulin release from the pancreas independent of blood glucose levels and food intake; therefore, they have a high risk for hypoglycemia. Longer-acting sulfonylureas (eg, glimepiride, glyburide) are more likely to cause hypoglycemia and are not preferred drugs in older individuals. They are on the American Geriatric Society Beers Criteria for Potentially Inappropriate Medication Use in Older Adults (ie, Beers Criteria) due to the risk for severe, prolonged hypoglycemia.

(Choices A and E) Diabetes medications such as metformin and sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitors (eg, empagliflozin) have a lower risk for hypoglycemia when used alone. However, the risk increases when multiple blood glucose–lowering medications are combined.

(Choices C and D) Hypotension can present with dizziness, lightheadedness, and syncope and is an adverse effect of antihypertensive medications (eg, hydrochlorothiazide, lisinopril). Nausea, tremor, and sweating are not common symptoms of hypotension.

Things to remember:
Insulin and insulin secretagogues (ie, sulfonylureas, meglitinides) have a higher risk for hypoglycemia compared to other diabetes medication classes.

24
Q

A 54-year-old male with type 2 diabetes mellitus has a hemoglobin A1C of 8.1%. Metformin therapy is initiated. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?

A. Decreased intestinal carbohydrate digestion
B. Delayed gastric emptying
C. Increased beta-cell insulin secretion
D. Increased insulin uptake by muscles
E. Inhibition of hepatic gluconeogenesis

A

Type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) is characterized by insulin resistance and progressive insulin deficiency. Insulin resistance is when cells cannot effectively use insulin and therefore do not allow glucose entry from the bloodstream. This condition plus a decrease in insulin production from the pancreas leads to elevated blood glucose levels. Medications target these and other mechanisms that contribute to hyperglycemia.

Metformin decreases hepatic glucose production (ie, gluconeogenesis), increases insulin sensitivity in muscle and fat (ie, increased uptake and utilization of glucose), and, to a lesser extent, decreases intestinal absorption of glucose. These three mechanisms make metformin highly efficacious at treating T2DM without causing hypoglycemia.

(Choice A) Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors (eg, acarbose) slow the hydrolysis, or breakdown, of carbohydrates and disaccharides (eg, sucrose) in the small intestine. This slows glucose absorption, thereby decreasing postprandial blood glucose levels.

(Choice B) Dipeptidyl peptidase 4 (DPP-4) inhibitors (eg, sitagliptin), glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) agonists (eg, liraglutide), and the amylin analog (pramlintide) delay gastric emptying (ie, slow movement of food from the stomach to the intestines), among other mechanisms. This decreases carbohydrate absorption, thereby reducing postprandial blood glucose levels.

(Choice C) Sulfonylureas (eg, glipizide) and meglitinides (eg, repaglinide) are known as insulin secretagogues and stimulate the beta-cells in the pancreas to release insulin.

(Choice D) Muscles do not uptake insulin; therefore, no medications increase insulin uptake by the muscles. Medications that increase insulin sensitivity (eg, thiazolidinediones, metformin) increase the uptake of glucose into muscle and fat cells.

Things to remember:
Metformin decreases glucose production from the liver, increases peripheral insulin sensitivity, and decreases intestinal glucose absorption

25
A 36-year-old female with type 2 diabetes mellitus is picking up refills of her two insulin vials.  She administers Novolin N 20 units and Novolin R 6 units before breakfast and again before dinner.  She asks the pharmacist how she can mix the insulins to inject fewer times.  Counsel the proper way to mix the insulins. 
Mixing insulins allows multiple insulin products to be delivered in a single subcutaneous injection, thereby reducing the number of daily injections.  If using insulin vials, intermediate-acting insulin (ie, NPH) can be mixed with short-acting (ie, regular) or rapid-acting (eg, aspart, lispro) insulins.  Most long-acting insulins (eg, glargine) are not suitable for mixing. When drawing up multiple insulins, there is a risk for contaminating the shorter-acting vials with the longer-acting insulin, which would slow the action of later doses withdrawn from the shorter-acting insulin vial.  Clear insulin (short-acting or rapid-acting) should be drawn before cloudy insulin (NPH).  Counseling steps on mixing and administering multiple insulins in one syringe include the following: Wash hands. Clean the vial tops with alcohol swabs (Choice A). Inject air (the same volume of air as units prescribed) into the NPH insulin and then into the regular insulin vial, respectively (Choice C). Invert the regular insulin vial and pull down the syringe to the needed dose (Choice F). Insert the needle into the NPH insulin, invert the vial and continue to pull down the syringe to the needed dose (Choice E). Insert the syringe needle at 90 degrees in the abdomen (alternatively, in the thigh or upper arm) (Choice D). Inject the total units of insulin and count 5−10 seconds before removing the needle. Discard the entire syringe properly in a sharps disposal container (Choice B). Things to remember: When mixing insulins into a single syringe, the shorter-acting insulin (clear) should be drawn into the syringe first.  Then, the intermediate-acting insulin (cloudy) should be drawn into the same syringe
26
A 58-year-old female comes to the primary care clinic because of fatigue. She has a past medical history significant for hypertension, but she has not been seen in clinic for several years. Laboratory Tests Sodium 140 mEq/L Potassium 3.6 mEq/L Chloride 98 mEq/L Bicarbonate 26 mEq/L Blood urea nitrogen 54 mg/dL Creatinine 2.2 mg/dL eGFR 28 mL/min/1.73 m² Glucose 194 mg/dL The patient is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. At this time, what medication should be avoided in this patient? A. Dulaglutide B. Glipizide C. Insulin glargine D. Linagliptin E. Metformin
Lactic acidosis is a rare but potentially fatal complication of metformin.  The risk of lactic acidosis increases with renal insufficiency, other conditions with decreased lactate clearance (eg, heart failure, hepatic impairment), and excessive alcohol use.  Metformin is also held temporarily for any procedure that involves administration of iodinated contrast dye due to the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy. Metformin is contraindicated in patients with an eGFR < 30 mL/min/1.73 m2 due to the increased risk for lactic acidosis.  In a patient with an eGFR of 30–45 mL/min/1.73 m2, metformin should not be started; however, it can be continued (typically at a reduced dose) if it was already being taken. (Choice A)  With the exception of exenatide, glucagon-like peptide-1 agonists (eg, dulaglutide) are safe to use in renal dysfunction.  Initiation and dose titration should be done cautiously due to adverse effects of the drug (eg, diarrhea, vomiting) that can lead to volume depletion and new-onset or worsening renal dysfunction. (Choice B)  Metabolites of sulfonylureas are cleared renally.  In renal dysfunction, the accumulation of active metabolites can increase the risk of hypoglycemia.  Glipizide and glimepiride are considered safe in renal dysfunction, as they have mainly inactive metabolites.  Glyburide is a longer-acting sulfonylurea with active metabolites and is not recommended in renal dysfunction. (Choice C)  Insulin is safe to use in chronic kidney disease, although clearance may be reduced.  Dose adjustments may be needed to prevent hypoglycemia. (Choice D)  Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors are safe to use in renal disease.  All DPP-4 inhibitors except linagliptin require renal dose adjustments to prevent accumulation and adverse effects. Things to remember: Metformin is contraindicated in patients with an eGFR < 30 mL/min/1.73 m2 due to an increased risk of lactic acidosis
27
A pharmacist is providing education on a new insulin regimen to a patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The patient currently administers Lantus 80 units SC BID and Novolog 50 units SC TIDAC. The physician is switching these to Toujeo and Humalog U-200. Which of the following statements is appropriate to make regarding the new concentrated insulin regimen? (Select ALL that apply) A. Humalog U-200 50 units provides the same insulin dose as Novolog 50 units but in less volume B. Humalog U-200 has 200 units of insulin in each pen C. Humalog U-200 pens are dialed to the number of units to be administered D. One unit of Lantus equals three units of Toujeo E. Toujeo has 300 units of insulin in 1 mL
A, C, E Large daily doses of U-100 insulin (ie, > 100 units/day) require multiple injections.  Concentrated insulins can provide the same number of insulin units but in less volume, improving patient comfort and reducing the number of injections. Concentrated insulins have a greater risk for medication errors, especially insulin regular U-500, because it is available in both a pen and a vial.  If the vial is dispensed, U-500 insulin syringes (marked in 5-unit increments) must also be dispensed to reduce errors.  All other concentrated insulins come only as prefilled pens, which reduce the risk of dosing errors. Rapid-acting insulins are converted 1:1 (eg, 10 units of lispro = 10 units of aspart).  Concentrated insulin lispro (Humalog U-200) would provide the same number of units as aspart (Novolog) but in less volume (Choice A). Prefilled pens are dialed to the number of units to be administered; no calculation or adjustment is needed.  If the dose is 50 units, then the pen is dialed to 50 units (Choice C). Insulin glargine is available in two concentrations: U-100 (Lantus) and U-300 (Toujeo).  Toujeo has 300 units of insulin in 1 mL (Choice E). (Choice B)  Insulin pens contain 3 mL (except Toujeo SoloStar is also available in a 1.5-mL pen).  Therefore, Humalog U-200 has 600 units of insulin in each pen (200 units/mL × 3 mL). (Choice D)  One unit of Lantus is the same as one unit of Toujeo but in less volume.  When switching between these insulins, the conversion is not always 1:1. Things to remember: Concentrated insulins provide the same number of insulin units but in less volume.  These are beneficial for patients requiring high doses of daily insulin
28
A 52-year-old male with type 2 diabetes mellitus currently takes Lantus 70 units daily and insulin lispro 22 units with breakfast, lunch, and dinner. Which of the following is the most appropriate insulin regimen if he is started on pramlintide? A. Lantus 35 units daily and insulin lispro 22 units with meals B. Lantus 70 units daily and insulin lispro 11 units with meals C. Lantus 70 units daily and insulin lispro 22 units with meals D. Lantus 70 units daily and insulin lispro 33 units with meals E. Lantus 105 units daily and insulin lispro 22 units with meals
Pramlintide (Symlin) is an amylin analog that slows gastric emptying, suppresses glucagon secretion, and increases satiety.  This decreases postprandial glucose levels but minimally impacts fasting glucose.  Pramlintide is indicated for patients with type 1 (T1DM) or type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) who use prandial insulin.  In both types of diabetes, the dose of pramlintide is gradually titrated to reduce the risk of nausea. Pramlintide is administered as a subcutaneous injection before each meal, but it cannot be mixed (ie, given in the same syringe) with mealtime insulin.  Pramlintide alone does not cause hypoglycemia, but it increases the risk for severe hypoglycemia due to coadministration with insulin.  As a result, the prandial insulin dose must be reduced by 50% when starting pramlintide (Choice B).  The dose should be skipped if a meal is skipped. (Choices A and E)  The dose of basal insulin [insulin glargine (Lantus)] does not need to be adjusted when starting pramlintide.  Basal insulin mainly impacts fasting blood glucose levels, whereas pramlintide has little effect on fasting glucose levels.  However, the dose of prandial insulin (insulin lispro) should be decreased to reduce the risk for severe hypoglycemia. (Choice C)  Failure to reduce the dose of prandial insulin when starting pramlintide increases the risk for severe hypoglycemia. (Choice D)  When starting pramlintide, the dose of prandial insulin should be decreased, not increased. Things to remember: Due to the risk of severe hypoglycemia, the dose of prandial insulin must be decreased by 50% in patients with type 1 or type 2 diabetes mellitus who are starting therapy with pramlintide
29
Which of the following patients have a laboratory test result that meets the criteria for diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus? (Select ALL that apply) A. 33-year-old male with a hemoglobin A1C of 7.2% B. 35-year-old female with a fasting plasma glucose of 145 mg/dL C. 36-year-old postpartum female with a 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test result of 206 mg/dL D. 57-year-old male with frequent urination and a random blood glucose of 163 mg/dL E. 62-year-old male with a hemoglobin A1C of 5.9% F. 63-year-old female with a fasting plasma glucose of 118 mg/dL
A, B, C The diagnosis of diabetes mellitus (DM) includes identifying elevated blood glucose (BG) with the following tests:  hemoglobin A1C, which indicates the average BG over approximately the past three months; fasting or random BG; or the oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), where the BG is drawn after drinking a glucose solution.  The diagnostic thresholds include: Hemoglobin A1C ≥ 6.5% (Choice A) Fasting plasma glucose ≥ 126 mg/dL (Choice B) 75-gram oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) 2-hour BG ≥ 200 mg/dL (Choice C) Random BG ≥ 200 mg/dL with classic symptoms of hyperglycemia (eg, polyuria, polydipsia) No single test is preferred.  The OGTT is used infrequently due to poor palatability of the oral solution and a longer time needed to complete the test, although it is preferred when the hemoglobin A1C may be less reliable (eg, pregnancy, postpartum, sickle cell disease, cystic fibrosis).  A positive test should be confirmed with a second abnormal result unless the patient is symptomatic with a random BG ≥ 200 mg/dL (this is considered a clear clinical diagnosis). (Choice D)  Although this patient has symptoms (ie, frequent urination), a random BG ≥ 200 mg/dL would be needed to make a clinical diagnosis of DM. (Choices E and F)  A hemoglobin A1C 5.7–6.4% and a fasting plasma glucose 100–125 mg/dL are indicative of prediabetes, a condition with increased risk of developing type 2 DM. Things to remember: The diagnostic criteria for diabetes mellitus includes a hemoglobin A1C ≥ 6.5%, a fasting plasma glucose ≥ 126 mg/dL, an oral glucose tolerance test 2-hour blood glucose ≥ 200 mg/dL, or a random blood glucose ≥ 200 mg/dL with classic symptoms of hyperglycemia
30
Which of the following patients have a laboratory test result that meets the criteria for diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus? (Select ALL that apply) A. 44-year-old male with a hemoglobin A1C of 6.8% B. 60-year-old female with a fasting plasma glucose of 132 mg/dL C. 50-year-old male with a 2-hour OGTT result of 175 mg/dL D. 39-year-old female with polyuria and a random glucose of 215 mg/dL E. 71-year-old male with a hemoglobin A1C of 6.2% F. 56-year-old female with a fasting plasma glucose of 124 mg/dL
Correct Answers: A, B, D Rationale: Choice A (Correct): Hemoglobin A1C ≥ 6.5% meets diagnostic criteria for diabetes. Choice B (Correct): Fasting plasma glucose ≥ 126 mg/dL is diagnostic; 132 mg/dL meets this threshold. Choice C (Incorrect): OGTT result of 175 mg/dL is in the prediabetes range (140–199). ≥ 200 mg/dL is needed for diabetes diagnosis. Choice D (Correct): Random glucose ≥ 200 mg/dL with symptoms (polyuria here) is diagnostic of diabetes. Choice E (Incorrect): Hemoglobin A1C of 6.2% is in the prediabetes range (5.7–6.4%). Choice F (Incorrect): Fasting glucose of 124 mg/dL is also prediabetes (100–125).
31
History of Present Illness: KT is a 23-year-old female being seen in clinic on 2/10 for diabetes management. Of note, KT was hospitalized 2 months ago because she stopped taking her medications for a few days. Since then, she has attended a diabetes education class and met with her dietitian. She feels some tingling in her feet for which she takes gabapentin. She does not smoke and drinks alcohol only on special occasions. Allergies: NKDA Current Medications (2/10): Lantus 21 units QHS Insulin lispro 7 units TID before meals Gabapentin 300 mg TID Paxil 40 mg daily Past Medical History: Type 1 diabetes Depression Peripheral neuropathy Vitals (2/10): Height: 5’10” Weight: 155 lbs BP: 128/77 mmHg HR: 85 BPM RR: 20 BPM Temp: 98.6°F Pain: 1/10 12/11 to 2/10 Blood Glucose Value Ranges (self-monitored): Before breakfast: 95–120 mg/dL After lunch: 110–125 mg/dL After dinner: 200–225 mg/dL Calculate KT’s insulin-to-carbohydrate ratio and select the correct interpretation. A. 23 grams of carbohydrates are covered by 1 unit of insulin B. 15 units of insulin are needed to cover 1 gram of carbohydrates C. 12 grams of carbohydrates are covered by 1 unit of insulin D. 12 units of insulin are needed to cover 1 gram of carbohydrates E. 15 grams of carbohydrates are covered by 1 unit of insulin
C. 12 grams of carbohydrates are covered by 1 unit of insulin Using the Rule of 500 (for rapid-acting insulin), KT’s ICR is 1:12. This means that 12 grams of carbohydrates are covered by 1 unit of rapid-acting insulin.
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History of Present Illness: KT is a 23-year-old female being seen in clinic on 2/10 for diabetes management. Of note, KT was hospitalized 2 months ago because she stopped taking her medications for a few days. Since then, she has attended a diabetes education class and met with her dietitian. She feels some tingling in her feet for which she takes gabapentin. She does not smoke and drinks alcohol only on special occasions. Allergies: NKDA Current Medications (2/10): Lantus 21 units QHS Insulin lispro 7 units TID before meals Gabapentin 300 mg TID Paxil 40 mg daily Past Medical History: Type 1 diabetes Depression Peripheral neuropathy Vitals (2/10): Height: 5’10” Weight: 155 lbs BP: 128/77 mmHg HR: 85 BPM RR: 20 BPM Temp: 98.6°F Pain: 1/10 12/11 to 2/10 Blood Glucose Value Ranges (self-monitored): Before breakfast: 95–120 mg/dL After lunch: 110–125 mg/dL After dinner: 200–225 mg/dL When KT was in the hospital on 12/9 she was given a bolus of insulin and started on an insulin drip. What should the initial rate (units/hr) of her infusion have been? A. 1 unit/hr B. 2 units/hr C. 5 units/hr D. 7 units/hr E. 15 units/hr
D. 7 units/hr After a bolus of 0.1 units/kg, the initial insulin IV infusion rate is 0.1 units/kg/hr (155 lbs/2.2 lbs/kg X 0.1 units/kg) = 7 units/hr.
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History of Present Illness: KT is a 23-year-old female being seen in clinic on 2/10 for diabetes management. Of note, KT was hospitalized 2 months ago because she stopped taking her medications for a few days. Since then, she has attended a diabetes education class and met with her dietitian. She feels some tingling in her feet for which she takes gabapentin. She does not smoke and drinks alcohol only on special occasions. Allergies: NKDA Current Medications (2/10): Lantus 21 units QHS Insulin lispro 7 units TID before meals Gabapentin 300 mg TID Paxil 40 mg daily Past Medical History: Type 1 diabetes Depression Peripheral neuropathy Vitals (2/10): Height: 5’10” Weight: 155 lbs BP: 128/77 mmHg HR: 85 BPM RR: 20 BPM Temp: 98.6°F Pain: 1/10 12/11 to 2/10 Blood Glucose Value Ranges (self-monitored): Before breakfast: 95–120 mg/dL After lunch: 110–125 mg/dL After dinner: 200–225 mg/dL KT attended the grand opening of a restaurant this past weekend and sampled 8 different dishes. She tested her blood glucose when she got home and the reading was 246 mg/dL. KT's target blood glucose is 120 mg/dL. Calculate her correction dose. A. 1 unit B. 2 units C. 3 units D. 4 units E. 5 units
C. 3 units KT's correction factor (43) can be calculated using the rule of 1800 since she uses rapid-acting insulin. Her correction dose is (246 - 120) / 43 = 3 units.
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DT is a 57-year-old male who is brought to the emergency department by his partner, who states that the patient has been "very sleepy and confused for the past two days." Before he became confused, the patient "had a stomach virus that caused a lot of vomiting and diarrhea." Past Medical History: hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, benign prostatic hyperplasia Allergies: NKDA Home Medications: Chlorthalidone 25 mg PO QAM Metformin 1,000 mg PO BID Lantus 24 units SC HS Valsartan 80 mg PO daily Doxazosin 4 mg PO HS Vital Signs: BP 114/70 mmHg, HR 120 bpm, RR 22 bpm, O₂ sat 97% on room air, T 99.3°F (37.4°C), Ht 5’10”, Wt 201 lbs Physical Exam: ill-appearing and lethargic but responsive to commands and can move all limbs equally; skin is dry with poor turgor Laboratory Tests: Sodium 149 mEq/L Potassium 5.5 mEq/L Chloride 114 mEq/L Bicarbonate 28 mEq/L Blood urea nitrogen 40 mg/dL Serum creatinine 1.6 mg/dL Glucose 888 mg/dL Lipase 25 units/L Urine ketones negative What are the typical Pt characteristics, Signs and Sx, Labs, and treatment for HHS?
Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS) is a hyperglycemic crisis that occurs more often in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM).  HHS is typically preceded by another event (eg, infection, myocardial infarction, interruption of insulin therapy), which impairs skeletal muscle glucose utilization and hepatic gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis.  This results in severe hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis. The resulting clinical presentation of HHS includes blood glucose > 600 mg/dL, serum osmolality > 320 mOsm/L, severe dehydration, and altered mental status (eg, confusion, delirium, coma).  Because patients with T2DM produce enough insulin to avoid ketogenesis, the absence of ketoacidosis (eg, normal serum bicarbonate, negative urine ketones) is also consistent with HHS Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state is a life-threatening complication of type 2 diabetes mellitus.  The classic signs and symptoms include blood glucose > 600 mg/dL, severe dehydration, serum osmolality > 320 mOsm/L, and altered mental status.
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A 63-year-old female with a past medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus is hospitalized for community-acquired pneumonia. The admission medication orders include holding the home medications metformin and empagliflozin and initiating the following sliding-scale insulin protocol: Blood glucose (mg/dL) – Instruction < 60 – Hold insulin; contact physician 150–200 – Give 2 units of insulin 201–250 – Give 4 units of insulin 251–300 – Give 6 units of insulin 301–350 – Give 8 units of insulin 351–400 – Give 10 units of insulin >401 – Give 10 units of insulin; contact physician Which of the following insulins would be appropriate to use in this sliding scale insulin order? (Select ALL that apply) A. Aspart B. Glargine C. Glulisine D. Lispro E. Regular U-100 F. Regular U-500
A, C, D, E In the hospital setting, home oral blood glucose-lowering medications are often replaced with insulin because insulin can be quickly adjusted in patients with hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia.  Inpatient insulin regimens depend on patient-specific factors (eg, diabetes type, dietary changes) and usually consist of: Basal insulin for controlling fasting glucose and levels between meals Prandial bolus insulin for controlling expected postprandial hyperglycemia (not required if the patient is not eating) Correctional bolus insulin for correcting high glucose levels Correctional insulin, also referred to as sliding scale insulin (SSI), provides a progressively increasing dose of insulin in response to an elevated glucose level.  Rapid-acting insulins (eg, aspart, glulisine, lispro) are preferred for SSI (Choices A, C, and D).  Short-acting regular insulin U-100 is also acceptable for use (Choice E).  SSI does not provide consistent blood glucose control and is not recommended for prolonged use.  It is appropriate for initial or short-term control, especially in a noncritically ill patient previously treated with diet or oral medications alone. (Choice B)  Long-acting insulin (eg, glargine) is not recommended for SSI.  The slow onset would not address acute elevations in blood glucose, and the prolonged duration increases the risk for hypoglycemia. (Choice F)  Concentrated insulins, especially insulin regular U-500, have a higher risk for medication errors that could result in severe hypoglycemia.  Regular U-500 should only be considered for use in select individuals previously managed on large doses of daily insulin (ie, > 200 units/day). Things to remember: Sliding scale insulin uses increasing doses of rapid-acting (preferred) or short-acting insulin to correct elevated blood glucose levels.  Prolonged use of sliding scale insulin alone in a hospital setting is not recommended
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A 48-year-old male is referred to the clinic pharmacist for patient education and management of his new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus. Allergies: NKDA Medications: none Vital Signs: BP 134/82 mmHg, HR 78 bpm, Ht 5’11”, Wt 182 lbs Laboratory Tests (Fasting): Sodium 142 mEq/L Potassium 4.2 mEq/L Chloride 100 mEq/L Bicarbonate 28 mEq/L Blood urea nitrogen 20 mg/dL Serum creatinine 1.2 mg/dL Calcium 9.4 mg/dL Glucose 320 mg/dL eGFR 68 mL/min/1.73 m² Hemoglobin A1C 11.8% In addition to lifestyle interventions, which initial regimen is preferred? A. Canagliflozin + pioglitazone B. Exenatide + sitagliptin C. Glimepiride + metformin D. Glipizide + insulin glargine E. Insulin glargine + metformin
Most noninsulin medications for type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) can take weeks to reach maximum effect and lower hemoglobin A1C by about 1%.  Therefore, insulin is required for the initial treatment of T2DM if blood glucose (BG) levels are significantly elevated or urgent glucose lowering is needed for severe T2DM, often in combination with a noninsulin drug (eg, metformin).  Once BG levels begin to improve, it might be possible to simplify the treatment regimen and discontinue the insulin. Basal insulin (eg, glargine) is preferred due to its once-daily administration, efficacy in lowering overnight hyperglycemia, and improvement of fasting BG level.  Insulin is recommended if any of the following are present: A1C > 10% BG ≥ 300 mg/dL Severe hyperglycemia with signs of catabolism (eg, weight loss, dehydration, ketonuria) (Choices A, B, and C)  A regimen with insulin is preferred with a baseline hemoglobin A1C > 10%.  Combination regimens without insulin (eg, metformin plus a sulfonylurea, such as glimepiride) can be used for a baseline hemoglobin A1C 8.5–10%.  Sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitors (eg, canagliflozin) and glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) agonists (eg, exenatide) are recommended in initial regimens for certain patients (eg, atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease, heart failure, chronic kidney disease). (Choice D)  Sulfonylureas (eg, glipizide) in combination with basal insulin (eg, glargine) are not recommended due to the additive hypoglycemia risk. Things to remember: Because it provides a rapid reduction in blood glucose (BG), insulin is preferred initially in type 2 diabetes mellitus for baseline hemoglobin A1C > 10% or BG ≥ 300 mg/dL, or if there are signs of severe hyperglycemia (eg, weight loss, ketonuria)
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Which of the following describes the physiologic role of glucagon in blood glucose regulation? A. Increases glucose uptake and storage in the muscle and adipose tissue B. Increases glucose uptake and storage in the pancreas C. Signals gluconeogenesis in the adipose tissue D. Signals gluconeogenesis in the pancreas E. Signals glycogenolysis in liver and muscle cells
E. Signals glycogenolysis in liver and muscle cells Blood glucose levels are closely regulated by insulin and glucagon, the glucoregulatory hormones.  They work in a reciprocal relationship to maintain the tight blood glucose control needed to keep the body functioning.  With normal regulation, an increase in blood glucose stimulates insulin release from the pancreatic beta cells.  Insulin causes the cells of the body (eg, liver, muscle, adipose) to take up blood glucose and either use it as energy or store it as glycogen for later use between meals. Glucagon, on the other hand, is released by the pancreatic alpha cells when the blood glucose level is low or between meals.  Glucagon signals glycogenolysis, thereby releasing the stored glucose (in the form of glycogen) from the liver and muscles.  To a lesser extent, it can stimulate gluconeogenesis in the liver.  Severe hypoglycemia can be treated with glucagon (available in intranasal, subcutaneous, and intramuscular formulations). (Choice A)  Insulin mediates the increased uptake and storage of glucose into glycogen in the liver, muscle cells, and adipose tissue. (Choices B and D)  The pancreas releases glucoregulatory hormones involved in glucose regulation.  It does not store or produce glucose. (Choice C)  Gluconeogenesis primarily occurs in the liver.  Glucagon signals lipolysis (breakdown of fats into free fatty acids) in the adipose tissue.  Free fatty acid metabolism results in ketones, an alternate energy source to glucose. Things to remember: Insulin and glucagon regulate blood glucose.  Glucagon is released from the pancreatic alpha cells in response to a low blood glucose level; it signals glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle cells and gluconeogenesis in the liver
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A hospitalized patient has been using Novolin 70/30, 46 units in the morning and 24 units at night. He is going to be switched to a regimen of lispro and glargine. How many units of insulin glargine will he need to take daily in order to maintain an equivalent dose of basal insulin? (Answer must be numeric; no units or commas; round the final answer to the nearest WHOLE number.)
ANS= 49 Take 70% of the total daily dose of Novolin 70/30 to get the amount of NPH daily (70% of 70 units = 49 units of NPH). Then reduce that amount by 20% to find the glargine dose.
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A hospitalized patient has been using Humulin 70/30, 60 units in the morning and 30 units at night. He is going to be switched to a regimen of aspart and glargine. How many units of insulin glargine will he need to take daily in order to maintain an equivalent dose of basal insulin? (Answer must be numeric; no units or commas; round the final answer to the nearest WHOLE number.)
ANS= 45 Premixed insulins such as Humulin 70/30 contain 70% basal (NPH) and 30% bolus (regular insulin). Morning dose: 60 units × 70% = 42 units basal Evening dose: 30 units × 70% = 21 units basal Total daily basal = 42 + 21 = 63 units basal When converting NPH (basal in premix) → long-acting insulin (like glargine), the dose is generally reduced by ~20–30% to decrease the risk of hypoglycemia during transition. 63 × 0.75 = 47 units (approx) 63 × 0.8 = 50 units (approx) Most guidelines recommend a conservative cut closer to 25%. Using 25% reduction: 63 × 0.75 = 47 units → round to 45 (common safe starting point).
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A 67-year-old female comes to the clinic for an annual checkup. She currently takes metformin 1,000 mg BID for type 2 diabetes mellitus; her hemoglobin A1C is 7.8%. The patient’s healthcare provider prescribes a new medication that promotes release of endogenous insulin. Which medication works by this mechanism? A. Canagliflozin B. Miglitol C. Pramlintide D. Rosiglitazone E. Saxagliptin
E. Saxagliptin The intestinal cells release incretin hormones [glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) and glucose-dependent insulinotropic polypeptide] in response to food intake.  GLP-1 slows gastric emptying and motility, increases insulin secretion from the pancreas, and suppresses glucagon secretion.  In patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) there is an impaired insulin response to GLP-1. T2DM medications that target the incretin system to increase GLP-1 include: GLP-1 agonists (analogs of GLP-1) Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors (eg, saxagliptin) DPP-4 inhibitors work by preventing the enzyme DPP-4 from breaking down incretin hormones.  This increases active GLP-1, which promotes endogenous release of insulin in a glucose-dependent manner.  DPP-4 inhibitors have lower hypoglycemic risk and are primarily used in patients without comorbid conditions, although impact on A1C is limited. (Choice A)  Sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitors (eg, canagliflozin) reduce renal reabsorption of glucose, which increases urinary glucose excretion and decreases blood glucose concentrations.  SGLT2 inhibitors do not increase the release of insulin. (Choices B and C)  Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors (eg, miglitol) prevent the metabolism of intestinal sucrose, delaying glucose absorption.  Pramlintide, an amylin analog, slows gastric emptying and suppresses glucagon secretion, causing increased satiety.  Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors and pramlintide are infrequently used due to adverse effects and minimal efficacy; they do not increase the release of insulin. (Choice D)  Thiazolidinediones (eg, rosiglitazone) increase uptake and utilization of glucose by peripheral tissues; hence, they are called insulin sensitizers.  Thiazolidinediones have a delayed onset of effect (weeks to months) and do not increase the release of insulin. Things to remember: The dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) enzyme degrades incretin hormones; DPP-4 inhibitors work by blocking this effect.  This increases active endogenous glucagon-like peptide 1, which promotes release of insulin in a glucose-dependent manner
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A 59-year-old male with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents for routine follow-up. He has been taking metformin 1,000 mg BID, but his most recent hemoglobin A1C is 8.1%. The physician adds a medication that works by preventing the breakdown of incretin hormones, thereby enhancing endogenous insulin release in a glucose-dependent manner. Which of the following medications was most likely prescribed? A. Pioglitazone B. Repaglinide C. Acarbose D. Linagliptin E. Dapagliflozin
D. Linagliptin Linagliptin (Choice D) is a DPP-4 inhibitor. It prevents the degradation of incretin hormones (GLP-1, GIP), which enhances glucose-dependent insulin release, decreases glucagon secretion, and slows gastric emptying. Pioglitazone (Choice A) → Thiazolidinedione; increases peripheral insulin sensitivity, but does not increase insulin secretion. Repaglinide (Choice B) → Meglitinide; stimulates pancreatic insulin release, but via closing K⁺ ATP channels, not incretin pathway. Acarbose (Choice C) → Alpha-glucosidase inhibitor; delays carbohydrate absorption in the intestine, no effect on insulin secretion. Dapagliflozin (Choice E) → SGLT2 inhibitor; reduces renal glucose reabsorption, increases urinary glucose excretion, no effect on incretin or insulin release. Key Point: DPP-4 inhibitors (linagliptin, saxagliptin, sitagliptin, alogliptin) prolong incretin action → ↑ endogenous insulin secretion in a glucose-dependent manner, with low risk of hypoglycemia.