Part VI.1: Broad definition of “state” -first q what is state for vertical direct effect- 1st box here in handout = marshall case?
Broad definition of “state” for the purposes of vertical direct effect
Case 152/84, Marshall:
marshal was public health aurtoirt y= vertical case employed by them - she had to retire 62 mand 65 - clear case discrim based on gender
Part VI.1: Broad definition of “state”- what was held?
CT SAID
HELD: A person can enforce an EU right enshrined in a directive in national proceedings against the state “regardless of the capacity in which the [state] is acting, whether employer or public authority” [49]
In Marshall, the state (public health authority) acted as employer. Art. 5 Equal Treatment Directive met the van Gend criteria.
Part VI.1: Broad definition of “state”-Take home message for this case?
Individuals can enforce EU right enshrined in directive against the state in any capacity
Part VI.1: Broad definition of “state”- what could you see
Ms. Marshall could rely on her EU right not to be discriminated against, and the UK court had to disapply the conflicting UK law.
what u can see here is again how direct effect and supremacy work together- = direct effect and the eu uk ct had to disapply the conflciting uk law - this is supreamcy
Criticism: Additional protection given to public sector employees is unfair
Arg.: Public health authority has no control over correct implementation of directive
criticm for wide interp of the state !! above! lets assume u work for tesco or uber or another private company, in that case u cannot rely on ur eu rights, agaaisnt ur emplyoer only sit of hortizontal direct effect- if u have right in directive u cannot enforce it against tesco, uber or other private entity- but if your employer public u can eforce e.g like HEALTH AUTHORITY and deom pwrsoecive of employer- that is not fair bc public health authority is not at fault public health authoirt haev nnothing to do with implemtation of directive and still they have to suffer conseuqnces
so the fairness comes from the perspecitve of the employer if you compare it to another private entity- that is 1 cirt agaisnt this case law - bc if you think about ratti what was basis argument for why we have vertical - it was the estoppel argument bc ms at fault for not impleetn it
the public health authority in marshall is not at fault it just doesnt implent a directive AND STILL CT PUSH THE UNDERTSANDING OF WHAT THE STATE IS FURTHER OUT IN MARSHALL = ACADEMIC CRIT OF THIS CASE
Part VI.1: Broad definition of “state”- 2ND CASE? foster v british gas?
where ct showed us an extended understanding of what state means and this is foster v british gas- again if u look at handout = emination of state - vertical direct effect in handout box
Broad definition of “state” for the purposes of vertical direct effect
Case C-188/89, Foster v British Gas: - facts in foster similar to facts in marshall
Mrs. Foster was forced to retire by British Gas because she had reached the company’s retirement age for females (60) which was lower than the retirement age for men (65). UK legislation allowed this. British Gas was a nationalised industry with a monopoly of the gas-supply system in the UK. UK court asked the CJEU whether Mrs. Foster can rely on art. 5 Equal Treatment Directive.
could she rely on her right?
Part VI.1: Broad definition of “state”- what did court say?
CJEU extended vertical direct effect from “state body” to “emanation of the state” - the body is STATE FOR PRUPOSE OF DIRECT EFFECT IF THESE CONDITIONS ARE MET - it needs to provide public service- be under control of stae and have powers above those held by private parties- the so called foster test - remebr it
Foster test [20]: The body must
Provide a public service
Be under the control of the state
Have powers above those held by private bodies
remeber this test - so if u have problem q and bod is british gas - monoplosied national industry and u have to apply foster test to see if u can enforce ur right british gas- does british gas provide public service? yes running gas - is it under control of the state in our case? - if u play with the facts - back then it was nationalised - does it have powerrs above those held by private parties - is there something british gas employee can do that amazon employee cannot do
another arg if theres a gas leak in your house, they are allowed by stat to come into fix it - also meter readings have stat right to enter ur premises to check it , so u hace special powers which is why when case returned to uk courts the hol said that britsh gas FULFILLED FOSTER TEST
-Part VI.1: Broad definition of “state”- question is what?
question is : why did uk cts check if met why not eu cts
On return of the case to the UK courts, the House of Lords held that British Gas fulfils the Foster test. Mrs. Foster could enforce art. 5 Equal Treatment Directive against British Gas.
British Gas = emanation of the state Vertical direct effect
it is bc court of justice ONLY INTERPRETS EU LAW AND THE NATIONAL CTS APPLY EU LAW (PRELIM REF) national ct has quesiton e.g when is body a satet - the application of eu law to facts of case, is only done b national ct which is why it was uk cts applying foster critieria to the case - so british case was emination of state- and therefore we had case of vertical directeeffect- = improtant bc were in this box
again if u think about reasoning for vertical direct effect the ms being at fault it doesnt work for britsh gas- britsh gas does not implemetn directives tehy have nothin to do with it - this why u can be very critical of this case law- extends notion of state - adn why does ct do it e.g BECAUSE WE DONT HAVE HORIZTAONL DIRECT EFFECT SO CT IS TRYING TO UNDERMINE NO HORIZTOANL DIRECT EFFECT OF DIRECTIVES - nad 1 way is just have very wide notion of what state is and means! - this case law is very controversial
Part VI.1: Broad definition of “state”- what about update?
Update: CJEU clarified (and expanded?) the Foster test in Case C-413/15, Farrell- was referreend to ct jeu in 2015 but it takes time for cjeu to recite cases and decision as only made 3 ywars after and hear ct clarfied fostered test and again extended it so remebr in foster had 3 critiera, public service and here it aid u have si
Read: EU Law Analysis Blog
Part VI.1: Broad definition of “state”- what about emanations of teh state?
Emanations of the state “can be distinguished from individuals and must be treated as comparable to the State, either because they are legal persons governed by public law that are part of the State in the broad sense, or because they are subject to the authority or control of a public body, or because they have been required, by such a body, to perform a task in the public interest and have been given, for that purpose, such special powers.” [34]
COMPARABLE SUFFICENT FOR DIREDCT EFFECT- EITHER BC LEGAL PERSON GOVERNED BY PUBLIC LAW / ALTERNATIVE 2 BODY IS SUBJECT TO AUTH / CONTROL OF PUBLIC BODY AND LAST ONE THEY HAVE BEEN REQ BY SUCH BODY TO PERFORM TASK IN PUBLIC INTEREST AND BEEN GFIVEN FOR PURPOSE SUCH SPECIAL PURPOSE
SO IF LOK AT 1ST ONE - PUBLIC INTEREST AND GIVEN SPECIAL PWOERS - SO IF U LOOK AT LAST 1 - TASK AND PI AND SPECIAL POWERS THAT IS BASICALLY PUBLIC SERVERS AND SPECIAL PWOERS - THIS SECOND ONE ACC NOT MENTIONED
WHICH IS HWY I SAID WHICH WHY I SAID THE CTS SEEMS TO HAVE XTENDED FOSTER TEST EVEN FURTHER SO IF U HAVE PROBLEM Q - APPLY FOSTER TEST BUT IF ANY OF CRITERIA ON FOST NOT MET - THIS MAY GIV U AND EXTENSION OF IT
FOSTER AND MARASHLL- CT EXTENDED IDEA OF WHAT STATE IS AND MADE IT WIDE- THIS IS CONTROVERSILA DN REASON WHY WE HAVE IT - BC CT SAID - WE DONT HAVE HORITZONTALDIRECT EFFECT OF DIRECTIVES EFFECT AND EXTENDING THIS AREA HERE IS WAY TO UNDERMINE THIS BC IT SHRINKS- SO THAT WAS ALTERNATIVE 1
Part VI: Alternatives to the rule that directives do not have horizontal direct effect- what is alternative 2?
Part VI: Alternatives to the rule that directives do not have horizontal direct effect
-2. Direct effect of general principles of EU law concretised in a directive
Part VI.2: Direct effect of general principles of EU lawfacts in mangold?- key case
Mr. Mangold (56 years old) was employed by a ( private employer. He had a clause in his contract which, in accordance with German law, made it easier to end his employment relationship compared to younger workers. The Equal Treatment Directive prohibits this age discrimination, but the implementation period of the Directive had not expired at the time of the case.
PRICATE DIFFERENT FROM MARSHALL , FROM FOSTER AND BRITISH GAS AND THERE WAS BASICALLY DISCRIM ON GROUNDS OF AGE AND PROBLEM WAS THE EQUAL TREATMENET DRIECTIVE THAT PROHIB - wasnt yet in effect the implementation period had not expire at time of case
Mangold’s EU right = not to be discriminated against on grounds of age - THIS IS HIS RIGHT - CANT HE DO THAT
1. BC ITS A DIRECTIVE AND WE DONT HAVE HORITZONTL DIRECT EFFECT OF DIRECTIVE, EVEN WE HADF , tehres noather reason= implementaion period - 2 years and ct got around these 2 reasons in mangold
Part VI.2: Direct effect of general principles of EU law: what was held in mangold?
HELD: Dispute between two private parties: Horizontal direct effect of directive
Indirect effect? Here not possible according to German court
What did the Court do next?
It developed the principle of non-discrimination on grounds of age = general principle of EU law [75]
Directive does not establish this principle, but only lays down a framework for its application [74] - very controviersial ct said in mangold
general pricniples= [priamry eu law- no implemntation is needed- os there is no transposition period - and court said - directive does not establish pricniple of course it doesnt bc principcile is primary eu law but only lies down framweork for its sapplication, noone know what that actually means- and as result - germany ct has to dissaplply -= supremacy - thats what ct said - but why is this reasoning dodogy
Part VI.2: Direct effect of general principles of EU law : result of mangold?
Result: German court has to disapply any German law contrary to that general principle [77-78]
Part VI.2: Direct effect of general principles of EU law: why courts reasoning dodgy?
Why is the Court’s reasoning dodgy?
Transposition deadline of Directive had not expired when discrimination occurred
Court: doesn’t matter [76]
Effect: Use of general principle got around the Ratti criterion!
reason is dodgy bc transpotion deadline had not expired, and ct said that doesnt matter bc im not relying on directive, im relying on general pircniple that i just inveneted so - it got around the ratti criterion by inventing and relyng on principle
Part VI.2: Direct effect of general principles of EU law : what about mangold ?
Mangold is NOT a case of horizontal direct effect of directives
im not relying on directive, im relying on general p - so does that mean gerneal principle
Does that mean that the general principle of non-discrimination on grounds of age is capable of having horizontal direct effect? Unclear in Mangold…
CT WAS CLEAR THIS IS NOT CASE OF HORIZONTAL DIRECT EFFECT OF DIRECTIVE, BUT IT WASNT CLEAR ABOUT, WHAT IS IT THEN
Part VI.2: Direct effect of general principles of EU law -what is the next case?
… clarified in Case C-555/07, Kücükdeveci [51]
Part VI.2: Direct effect of general principles of EU law: take home message?
General principle of non-discrimination on grounds of age “as given expression” in the Equal Treatment Directive = capable of having horizontal direct effect, even before transposition deadline for directive has expired
Part VI.2: Direct effect of general principles of EU law - what about kuk critiscm?
ct has been heavily critisiced - said ct was trying to simply create grounds of age - and substance of obligation was found in directive- so directive is clearly more specific - existence of pricniple v contro - what is unclear is when privison and directive gives expression - when is that level reached? - so u end up with very uncleatr and messy scenario after mangold so no legal certainity
Criticism:
Substance of obligation was found in terms of directive
Existence of such a general principle is controversial
Unclear when provisions in a directive give expression to a general principle
Law is unclear and messy No legal certainty
CT WAS TRYING TO GET AROUND HOW THERE WAS NO HORIZONTAL DIRECT EFFECT OF DIRECTIVES- SO A INVENT A GENERAL PRICNIPLE AND THEN I SAY WHCIH GETS ME AROUND TRASNPOTITON PERIOS THEN I SAY THE COMBINATION OF BOTH - GENRAL PRINCIPLE AND DIRECTIVE - IS WHAT U CAN RELY ON IN NATIONAL COURTS - WHOCH IS WHY ON THE HANDOUT WHEN U SEE THIS HERE - gernal p eu law horizental direct effect there is blue and grey but half box blue and greay means blue primary eu law and grreay is directive - u need the combination of both
Has the ct ever extended mangold to another general pricniple e.g gernal principe not to be discrim agaisngt based on gender= no never - tell us - ct realisies that that is not good case but has stuck with - which why ct probsnever extended genral p csse alw to others in directives - VERY COMPLEX CASE LAW WHICH DOESNT MAKE SENSE BUT WE HAVE TO LIVE WITH IT CT CREATED THAT CASE LAW ITSELF
Part VI: Alternatives to the rule that directives do not have horizontal direct effect: what is easier territory ?
Part VI.3: Indirect effect of Directives-what does it mean?
Part VI.3: Indirect effect of Directives
Indirect effect = doctrine of consistent interpretation = interpretative obligation - not in TEXT OF TREATIES it is case law not explciitly mentioned in traties and its
Origin: CJEU case law (Case 14/83, von Colson); not explicitly mentioned in the Treaties
Part VI.3: Indirect effect of Directives- whats the defintion?
Definition:
Duty of a national court to interpret the national law, as far as possible, in the light of an applicable directive Case C-212/04, Adeneler [108]
ASTON LAW STUDENT A - UBER
going to look at what is as far as possible
Part VI.3: Indirect effect of Directives - what can u see ?
The doctrine explained: In situations where there is no direct effect, the applicable national law must still be interpreted in harmony with an applicable directive -
THAT PROTECTS UR RIGHTS IF THAT IS POSSIBLE - SO TALKING ABOUT UNIMPLEEMNTED OR INCORRECTLY IMPLEMENTED DIRECTIVES -SO ENGLISH LAW IN A GOOD CASE - ENGLISH CT HAS TO IMPLEMENT IT INTO ENGLISH LAW AND ENGLISH LAW SAYS X PLUS WHAT FR VARIOUS REASONS NOW Q CAN ENGLISH CT INTERPRET X PLUS 1 AS BEING X = ABSTRACT SCENARIO - LOOK AT VIEW EXAMPLES IN A SEC - IF THAT IS POSSIBLE THEN UR RIGHT IS PROTECTED AND IN THAT SCENARIO THE DIRECTIVE INDIRECTLY INFLUECES PUTCOME OF CASE- WHICH IS WHY ITS CALLED INDIRECT EFFECT- YOU DONT RELY ON DIRECTIVE ITSELF- U GET UR RIGHT OUT OF NATIONAL LAW BUT U INTERPRET NATIONAL LAW IN THE LIGHT OF THE DIRECTIVE- SO INDIRECTLY THE DIRECTIVE INFLUENCES OUTCOME OF CASE
Method to protect individual’s rights if there is no direct effect
Directive indirectly influences the outcome of the case
[Similar doctrine in UK law: rights-consistent interpretation under s. 3(1) Human Rights Act 1998] similar PROCEDURE HERE AS ABOVE - THIS AS FAR AS POSSIBLE GOES FURTHER THAN WHAT IS BEYOND NORMAL STAT INTERPRETATION IN ENGLAND - IT IS QUITE POWERFUL
Advantage of indirect effect for claimants: the interpretative obligation applies even if the provision in a directive does not meet the van Gend criteria (e.g. if provision is not clear enough)
r.a.w - so even if that scenario - the ct still has to apply this obligation here!!!
on hand out U CAN SEE THE RIGHT OF DIRECT EFFECT COMES FROM EU LAW - RIGHT X COMES FROM EU LAW - INDIRECT EFFECT WHERE DOES RIGHT COME FROM - IT COMES FROM INTERNATIONAL LAW - IN A SITUATION ON INDRIECT EFFECT U RELY ON NATIONAL LAW AND U WANT TO INTERP NATIOANL LAW IN LIGHT OF DIRECTIVE - KEY DIFFERENCE- DIRECT EFFECT U ERELY DIRECTLY ON UR EU RIGHT - INDIRECT EFFECT THE RIGHT U RELY ON COMES FROM NATIONAL LAW- GOING TO APPLY THIS IN A BIT
SO CAN COURT DO THIS - AND THAT IS ABOUT STRENGHT - the pwoerful application of doctrine
Part VI.3: Principle of indirect effect: A powerful doctrine – Case C-106/89, Marleasing?
Litigation was between two private parties. The case arose out of a conflict between the Spanish Civil Code and a company law directive which was unimplemented in Spain. Can the Spanish Civil code be interpreted in conformity with the directive?
WE HAD NATIONAL LAW AND EU LAW AND IT WAS CLEARLY A CASE BTW INDIVIDSM
Q WAS COULD U INTERPRET
Part VI.3: Principle of indirect effect-HELD:
The doctrine applies to national legislation that is adopted before or after the directive [8] THAT MEANS IF U HAVE ENLISH LAW MADE IN 1958 AND DIRECTIVE FROM 2014 THE OBLIGTION APPLIES- EVEN THOUGH PARL HAD NO IDEA ABOUT EU - EVEN IN THAT SCENARIO U HAVE TO APPLY OBLIGAATIION IN THAT CASE
-CJEU held that the Spanish court was precluded from interpreting national law in a way which did not comply with the directive [9, 13] - PRECLUDING - SOUNDS LIKE ACTUALLY NO LIMITS TO THE INTERPRETAIVE OBLIGATION - IF U READ ACADEMIC LIT THIS HELP ANALYUSES IT- SOUNDS LIKE LIMITLESS OBLIGATION - IF IT IS LIMITLESS OBLIGATION - WOULDNT MATTER ANYMORE BC IF U HAVE ANY KIND OF NATIONAL LAW ULL BE ABLE TO GET AROUND THIS- SO PEOPLE THOUGHT AFTER THIS CASE THIS IS ACC WHAT HAPPENED
It seems that the CJEU does not recognise any limitations to the interpretative obligation