Directors Flashcards

(37 cards)

1
Q

What is a de factor director?

A

Someone who acts as director although they have never been appointed

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2
Q

What is a shadow director?

A

A person not formally appointed but with whose directions or instructions the directors of the company are accustomed to act

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3
Q

What is the significant element with regards to apparent authority?

A

The company’s acts / omissions as opposed to the directors actions

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4
Q

What are the requirements where the company proposes to enter in to a service contract of 2+ years?

A

It must be passed as an ordinary resolution where there is no clause allowing for termination with 2 years notice

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5
Q

How can SH remove a director?

A

By ordinary resolution at a GM with special notice

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6
Q

What is special notice in relation to removal of a director?

A

28 days notice before the GM must be given for the ordinary res to be effective

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7
Q

What are the notification requirements at Companies House for the company in terms of directors?

A

a) register of directors
b) directors residential addresses
c) change in particulars for director
d) appointment of a director within 14 days of appointment

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8
Q

What is a directors duty to act within their powers under s.171 CA?

A

a) D must act in accordance with the constitution
b) only exercise powers for the purposes they are conferred

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9
Q

What 6 things must a director have regard to when promoting the success of the company?
“Caring Individuals Foster Communities, Respect Fairness”

A

a) consequences of decisions
b) interests of employees
c) need to foster business relationships
d) impact on the community & environment
e) reputation of the business
f) need to act fairly between members

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10
Q

What is the test applied by the court to decide whether D acted in good faith?

A

Subjective - D can act in a way which seems inconsistent with one of the 6 factors but will not be in breach if they considered their actions would likely promote success of the company

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11
Q

When will D act with a duty to exercise independent judgement?

A

a) if they act in accordance with an agreement that limits their ability to exercise judgement
b) if they act in a way authorised by the company’s constitution

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12
Q

What is the test for D’s duty to act with reasonable care and skill?

A

A director must use:
(a) the level of knowledge, skill, and experience that would reasonably be expected from someone in their role, and
(b) the actual knowledge, skill, and experience they personally have

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13
Q

How must D avoid conflicts of interest?

A

They must avoid situation in which they have a direct or indirect interest that conflicts / may conflict with the interests of the company

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14
Q

When is a duty to avoid conflicts of interest not infringed?

A

a) it cannot reasonably be regarded as likely to give rise to a conflict
b) it has been authorised by the directors

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15
Q

What is D’s duty not to accept benefits from 3rd parties?

A

D must not accept a benefit from a 3rd party conferred by reason of them being director

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16
Q

What is D’s duty to declare an interest in a proposed transaction?

A

They must declare the nature and extent of their interest in a proposed transaction before the company enters in to it

17
Q

What are the exceptions to D’s duty to declare interest in a proposed transaction?

A

a) D is not aware of the interest
b) the interest cannot reasonably regarded as likely to give rise to conflict
c) other D’s are already aware
d) it concerns the terms D’s service contract

18
Q

How can SH ratify D’s breach?

A

By ordinary resolution

19
Q

How must D declare their interest in a transaction which has already been entered in to?

A

As soon as reasonably practicable at a meeting of the directors / by notice in writing / general notice

20
Q

What is the punishment for D’s failure to declare interest in a transaction already entered in to by the company?

A

Criminal offence punishable by fine

21
Q

When might the court order a claim for wrongful trading?

A

a) company has gone in to insolvent liquidation
b) D ought to have known there was no reasonable prospect of avoiding liquidation
c) D was a director at the time

22
Q

What is the defence to wrongful trading?

A

D took every step with a view to minimising the potential loss

23
Q

How is D tested in relation to whether they took every step to minimise loss to the company?

A

Whether they used:
(a) the level of knowledge, skill, and experience that would reasonably be expected from someone in their role, and
(b) the actual knowledge, skill, and experience they personally have

24
Q

What steps can D take to minimise the likelihood of a successful claim for wrongful trading?

A

a) seek professional advice early on
b) limit spending
c) check accounts regularly
d) keep record of their own actions

25
What is fraudulent trading?
Where, in the court of the company being wound up, D carries on the business with the intent to defraud creditors
26
Who brings a claim of fraudulent trading?
Liquidator or administrator
27
When can a claim for misfeasance be brought against D?
For breach of fiduciary duty
28
What is the remedy for misfeasance?
D may be ordered to contribute to the company's assets by way of compensation
29
What is a substantial property transaction?
Where D (or a connected person) buys from or sells to the company, a non-cash asset of a substantial value
30
How are SPT's approved?
Ordinary resolution
31
Who is a person connected with D for the purposes of a SPT?
a) family member b) company in which D owns 20% of the shares / 20% of the voting power
32
When is an asset classed as substantial?
a) over £100k or; b) over £5k & more than 10% of the company's net asset value
33
What if D proceeds with an SPT without approval?
Transaction is voidable
34
How can the company make a loan to D?
Via ordinary resolution
35
What is the requirement for a memorandum in relation to director loans?
It must be made available for inspection at the registered office 15 days before theGM
36
When will an ordinary resolution not be necessary for a director loan?
a) expenditure on company business b) for defending proceedings in relation to the company d) for defending regulatory proceedings e) < £10k on business transactions
37
What are grounds for disqualification?
a) conviction of indictable offence b) breaches of company legislation c) unfit D of insolvent company d) wrongful / fraudulent trading