Dose Mock Test Flashcards

(175 cards)

1
Q

What is the most radiosensitive lung cancer histology?

A.large cell
B small cell
C. squamous cell

A

B small cell

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2
Q

What type of applicator is used for esophagus/bronchus treatment?

A intraluminal
B intracavitary
C interstitial
D external applicator

A

A intraluminal

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3
Q

What is a group of computers/network devices connected together, usually within the same building, called?

A WAN (wide area network)
B MAN (metropolitan area network)
C LAN (local area network)
D parallel processing

A

C. LAN (local area network)

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4
Q

What is a primary advantage of MV CBCT vs. KV CBCT?

A. superior bony contrast
B. MV images don’t suffer from streaking artifacts caused by metallic implants
C. less dose to the patient
D. none of the above

A

B. MV images don’t suffer from streaking artifacts caused by metallic implants

•KVs have better contrast
but MV images don’t suffer from streaking artifacts caused by metallic objects
•MVs are better for soft tissue (useful in breast treatment)

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5
Q

What material is useful for neutron shielding?

A. lead
B. concrete
C. steel
D. borated polyethylene

A

D. borated polyethylene

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6
Q

TMR depends on:
Choose only ONE best answer.
A
field size, energy
B
field size, energy, depth
C. field size, energy, depth, SSD
D. none of the above

A

B. field size, energy, depth

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7
Q

What is the minimum distance a compensator should be placed from the patient’s skin surface without eliminating the skin sparing effect?

A. 10 cm
B. 20 cm
C. 25 cm
D. 30 cm

A

20cm

Beam modifying devices should be placed at least 20 cm from the patient’s skin surface because secondary electrons are scattered before reaching the patient

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8
Q

Does CT tend to overestimate or underestimate the size of the prostate?

A. underestimate
B. overestimate
C. neither

A

B. Overestimate

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9
Q

After 84 months, the activity of a 30 mCi Cs-137 source will be:

A. 25.5 mCi
B. 27 mCi
C. 23.5 mCi
D. 20 mCi

A

A 25.5 mCi

Here’s how to calculate it:
Convert the time to years: 84 months / 12 months/year = 7 years.
Determine the number of half-lives: 7 years / 30 years/half-life = 0.23 half-lives.
Apply the decay formula:
Activity = Initial Activity *e)^(- decay constant x t)

decay constant =ln(2)/t1/2
=.693/30.2 years=0.002297 years ^-1

Activity=A0 x e^(-decay constant x t) A=30mCix e^0.002297 years ^-1 x 7 years

Activity = 30 mCi * e^ -0.16079
Activity = 30 mCi * 0.8514
A=2554 mCi

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10
Q

The factor the results in the largest decrease in x-ray output from a tube is:

A. reducing the mAs by 1/3
B. halving the KV
C removing the filter
D double the anode angle

A

B halving the KV

There is a linear relationship between x-ray output and tube current. The output varies approximately as the square of kV, so halving the kV would have the larger impact on output.

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11
Q

In order to deliver the same prescription dose, if you changed from an SAD to an 100 cm SSD setup, you would have to _________ your MUs.

A. increase
B. decrease
C. use the same MUs

A

A. increase

If the patient is treated using a fixed 100 cm SSD technique rather than SAD, the patient is farther away from the source. You would have to increase the MUs to deliver the same prescription dose.

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12
Q

What is the most common prostate histology?

A. squamous cell carcinoma
B. adenocarcinoma
C. intraductal carcinoma

A

B. adenocarcinoma

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13
Q

According to QUANTEC, what is the single fraction SRS tolerance of the spinal cord?

A. 45 Gy
B. 9 Gy
C. 13 Gy
D. 15 Gy

A

C. 13 Gy

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14
Q

The dose rate from a 6 MV linac is 150 cGy/min at 100 cm from the source. A piece of material equal to 6 half value layers (HVL) placed in the beam will change the dose rate to:

A

2.3 cGy/min

You will divide 150/2, 6 times to get the answer or 150/2^6

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15
Q

Isotopes are elements with the same number of _________

A

Protons

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16
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered in shielding calculations?

A. workload
B. use factor
C. occupancy
D. number of patients

A

D.number of patients

1.Workload factor (W) is
weekly dose delivered at 1 m from the source
2.Use factor (U): fraction of operating time that radiation is directed toward a particular barrier
3.Occupancy Factor (T): fraction of operating time during which area is occupied by the individual
4.Distance (d): distance in meters from the radiation source to the area to be protected

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17
Q

What group is the main governing body of dosimetrists in America?

A

AAMD

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18
Q

A patient receives a permanent implant using an isotope with a 30-day half-life. The initial dose rate is 0.50 cGy/hr, resulting in an approximate total dose of _________.

A

518 cGy

T=1.44x T 1/2 x Do
T=1.44 x(30day)x (0.50cGy/hr)
30days x 24 hr/1 day=720 hr
T= 1.44 x (720 hrs) (0.50 cGy /hr)

T=518.4 c6y

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19
Q

Which of the following would not require a density correction in treatment planning?

A. Streaking Artifacts in tissues near a metal prosthesis
B. bright calcification
C.Wire markers outlining the scar of an electron boost
D. Contrast medium in the GI tract
This answer is correct.

A

B. bright calcification

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20
Q

What’s the primary imaging modality of gamma knife?

A. CT
B. PET
C. MRI
D ultrasound
This answer is corr

A

C.MRI

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21
Q

Convert 21 mCi into MBq. Curies and becquerels are units of?
A. 612 MBq; exposure
B. 777 MBq; exposure
C. 612 MBq; activity
D. 777 MBq; activity

A

D. 777MBq, activity

1 Ci= 3.7x10^10 Bq
21 mCi= 1 Ci/1000mCi x 3.7x10^10 / 1 Ci x 1 MBq/ 10^6 Bq= 777MBq

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22
Q

What is the approximate HU value of muscle?
A. 40 HU
B. -50 HU
C. 150 HU
D. -300 HU

A

A.40 HU

HU Scale
-1000, -750, -50, 0, 40, 100, 750
air , lung, fat, water, muscle, soft tissue, bone

Most importantly,

Lung= -750
water=0
soft tissue=100
bone=750

https://theaisummer.com/medical-image-python/

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23
Q

The Winston Lutz test:

A. verifies couch isocentricity
B.verifies MLC position
C.verifies coincidence between mechanical and radiation isocenters
D. verifies beam symmetry

A

C. verifies coincidence between

Winston-Lutz Test

•MV imaging: plastic cube will small metal ball in the center can be aligned by the lasers using the marks on the cube surface
•verifies coincidence between mechanical and radiation isocenters

https://f428e81e74.cbaul-cdnwnd.com/0444d78b8b56bc7bab1be8a83d5ea4f1/200000179-240a8240aa/Winston-Lutz%20IGRT%20Manual%20QA.pdf

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24
Q

The prescribed dose at midplane is 300 cGy using equally weighted AP/PA beams at 100 cm SAD. Patient separation is 22 cm. If the AP field is accidentally treated at an SSD of 90 cm, but the PA field is treated correctly, what is the approximate dose delivered to the prescription

A. 303 cGy
B. 297 cGy
C. 286 cGy
D. 254 cGy

A

The correct answer is ‘B’

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25
If half-life of parent is longer than that of daughter, after a certain time, a condition of equilibrium will be achieved. (The ratio of daughter activity to parent activity becomes constant.) _______________ is when the half life of the parent is much greater than the daughter. A. transient equilibrium B. Secular equilibrium C. stable equilibrium D. radioactive decay
The correct answer is 'B' https://nucmedtutorials.com/wp-content/uploads/2016/12/radionuclide-generators.pdf
26
What is the cause of the "tail" in an electron PDD curve? A. the Photoelectric Effect B. Characteristic radiation C. Bremsstrahlung contamination (xray contamination) D. Auger electrons
C. Bremsstrahlung contamination (xray contamination)
27
What should be the thickness of a lead shield for 12 MeV electrons? A. 4 cm B. 4 mm C. 6 cm D. 6 mm
D. 6mm minimum thickness of lead = E/2 in mm of lead, where E is the beam energy in MeV Remember it’s in mm
28
A beam spoiler brings surface dose to at least ______ of the prescribed dose in total body irradiation (TBI). A. 80% B. 85% C. 90% D. 95%
A bolus/beam spoiler brings surface dose to at least 90% of the prescribed TBI dose. It's a 1-2 cm acrylic screen placed as close as possible to patient surface to increase skin dose to treat blood vessels in the skin
29
Which of the following increases the energy of a photon? A. decreasing frequency B. increasing frequency C. increasing wavelength D. increasing speed
B. increasing frequency Explanation: The energy of a photon is directly proportional to its frequency, meaning that as the frequency increases, the energy also increases. This relationship is described by the equation E = hf, where E is energy, h is Planck's constant, and f is frequency.
30
Which treatment planning algorithm would be least recommended for SBRT lung planning because it doesn't model heterogeneity corrections well enough? Choose only ONE best answer. A. Collapsed Cone Convolution B. Anisotropic Analytical Algorithm C. Monte Carlo D. Pencil Beam
D. Pencil Beam Tier A-Monte Carlo- "Gold Standard" most accurate, but slow Tier B-Acuros (Eclipse) -Collapsed Cone (Pinnacle)--superposition convolution -based on Monte Carlo - math tricks to make calculation times faster, while maintaining good accuracy Tier C- Pencil Beam Algorithm (Brain Lab, Radcalc) -simpler, faster, less sophisticated algorithm - over-predicts measured dose in lung Tier D- Hand Calculations (no heterogeneity corrections) -assumes treatment through water -the OG, quick, least accurate
31
What is the least optimal energy to use in fields near a pacemaker? Choose only ONE best answer. A. 6 MV B. 10 MV C. 18 MV D. We should not treat patients with a pacemaker.
The correct answer is C. The dose to a pacemaker should be kept below 2 Gy. Recommendations: Use 6 MV photons whenever possible. Avoid 10 MV and higher energies (though recent reports consider 10 MV acceptable; avoid 15 MV and above). Important information to gather: Determine whether the patient is pacemaker-dependent. Facilitate communication between dosimetry, physics, and the physician to ensure proper planning.
32
33
At depths shallower than Dmax, kerma is ___________ absorbed dose. A. greater than B. equal to C. less than This answ
A. greater than Remember the graph https://radiologykey.com/quantification-and-measurement-of-dose/
34
What causes the "horns" phenomenon seen in beam cross-profiles? A. scattering foil B. flattening filter C. penumbra D. off axis factors
B. flattening filter Flattening Filters are cone-shaped pieces of metal commonly used to normalize the dose distribution laterally. These filters are designed to attenuate the central axis of the beam leaving a very uniform dose distribution at a given depth, usually 10cm. Shallower than this depth, the lateral region will have the highest dose rate which appear as "horns" on the dose distribution. Beyond 10cm depth, the dose distribution again becomes forward peaked.
35
Rank from smallest to largest: Irradiated Volume, GTV, Treated Volume, PTV, ITV, CTV A. GTV, CTV, PTV, ITV, Treated Volume, Irradiated Volume B. GTV, CTV, ITV, PTV, Irradiated Volume, Treated Volume C. GTV, CTV, ITV, PTV, Treated Volume, Irradiated Volume D. GTV, CTV, PTV, ITV, Irradiated Volume, Treated Volume
C. GTV,CTV, ITV, PTV Treated Volume ,Irradiated Volume The radiation therapy volumes, from smallest to largest, are: GTV (Gross Tumor Volume): The smallest volume, which is the visible, palpable, or demonstrably diseased area. It represents the known extent of the tumor. CTV (Clinical Target Volume): The GTV plus a margin for potential microscopic disease that cannot be detected by imaging. The CTV is a purely clinical concept. ITV (Internal Target Volume): An optional volume used in some treatment plans. The ITV is the CTV plus an internal margin to account for physiological tumor motion (e.g., due to breathing or digestion). PTV (Planning Target Volume): A geometrical volume designed to ensure the CTV (or ITV, if used) receives the prescribed dose. It includes the CTV and margins for patient setup errors and geometric uncertainties. Treated Volume: The volume of tissue that actually receives the dose considered significant for cure or palliation. It is generally larger than the PTV. Irradiated Volume: The largest volume, representing all tissue that receives a dose considered significant relative to normal tissue tolerance. It is larger than the treated volume and depends on the treatment technique used.
36
While reviewing a port film taken at a source to film distance of 127 cm, the radiation oncologist indicates a block position correction measuring 2.5 cm on the film. Assuming that the patient was filmed at an SSD of 100 cm with the target to block tray distance of 75 cm, the distance which the block must be shifted on the blocking tray to obtain the required correction is: A 3.5 cm B 2.5 cm C 1.5 cm D 0.5 cm
C 1.5 cm X/75=25/127 X =1.48
37
Which treatment planning algorithm would be least recommended for SBRT lung planning because it doesn't model heterogeneity corrections well enough? A Collapsed Cone Convolution B Anisotropic Analytical Algorithm C Monte Carlo D Pencil Beam
D Pencil Beam This answer is correct. Tier A is Monte Carlo- "Gold Standard" most accurate but slow Tier B -Acuros (Eclipse) Collapsed Cone--superposition convolution base on Monte Carlo. Math tricks to make calculation run faster while maintaining good accuracy Tier C Pencil Beam Algorithm (Brain Lab, Radcalc) --simpler, faster, less sophisticated algorithm -over-predicts measured dose in lung Tier D-Hand Calculations (no heterogeneity corrections)- -assumes treatment through water quick, least accurate
38
39
What is the most common metastatic site for colorectal cancer? A brain B bone C pancreas D liver
D liver For metastatic colorectal cancer patients, the most common sites of metastasis were the liver (70% in colon cancer/70% in rectal cancer) and the thorax (32%/47%). In colon cancer, the third most common site was the peritoneum (21%) whereas in rectal cancer it was the bone (12%).
40
QUANTEC recommended mean dose to cochlea for <30% sensory-neural hearing loss is: A 20 Gy B 35 Gy C. 45 Gy D 50 Gy
C. 45 Gy
41
While reviewing a port film taken at a source to film distance of 127 cm, the radiation oncologist indicates a block position correction measuring 2.5 cm on the film. Assuming that the patient was filmed at an SSD of 100 cm with the target to block tray distance of 75 cm, the distance which the block must be shifted on the blocking tray to obtain the required correction is: A.3.5 cm B.2.5 cm C. 1.5 cm D.0.5 cm
C.1.5 Take 2.5 know shift devided by known distance 127 = x unknown divided by 75 known distance of target to block 2.5/127=x/75 X= 2.5*75/127 X=1.48
42
Which treatment planning algorithm would be least recommended for SBRT lung planning because it doesn't model heterogeneity corrections well enough? Choose only ONE best answer. A. Collapsed Cone Convolution B. Anisotropic Analytical Algorithm C. Monte Carlo D. Pencil Beam
D. Pencil Beam Tier A-Monte Carlo- "Gold Standard" most accurate, but slow Tier B-Acuros (Eclipse) -Collapsed Cone (Pinnacle)--superposition convolution -based on Monte Carlo - math tricks to make calculation times faster, while maintaining good accuracy Tier C- Pencil Beam Algorithm (Brain Lab, Radcalc) -simpler, faster, less sophisticated algorithm - over-predicts measured dose in lung Tier D- Hand Calculations (no heterogeneity corrections) -assumes treatment through water -the OG, quick, least accurate
43
44
45
46
What is the most common metastatic site for colorectal cancer? A. brain B. bone C. pancreas D. liver
D. Liver For metastatic colorectal cancer patients, the most common sites of metastasis were the liver (70% in colon cancer/70% in rectal cancer) and the thorax (32%/47%). In colon cancer, the third most common site was the peritoneum (21%) whereas in rectal cancer it was the bone (12%).
47
QUANTEC recommended mean dose to cochlea for <30% sensory-neural hearing loss is: A 20 Gy B. 35 Gy C. 45 Gy D. 50 Gy
C. 45Gy
48
Which of the following is a random error? A. Incorrect isocenter placement in simulation B. miscalibrated lasers, 5 mm from true isocenter C. daily bladder filling in treatment of prostate cancer D. incorrect shift from isocenter on the treatment machine
C. daily bladder filling in treatment of prostate cancer
49
The recommended annual limit for occupational exposure to an extremity is: A. 5 mSv B. 50 mSv C. 150 mSv D. 500 mSv
D. 500 mSv Remember the Occupational Exposures (Annual) Effect dose-equivalent limit (stochastic effects) -50mSv non-stochastic: lens of eye -150 mSv extremities -500 mSv cumulative exposure- 10 mSv x age (in years)
50
The most sensitive phase of cell cycle is: A. M/G2 B. G1 C. early S D. late S
A. M/G2 Remember the Definition and Phases of Cell CycleThe M-phase (mitosis), and the G2 phase of the cell cycle are generally considered the most sensitive phases to radiation damage, with cells in these stages being more vulnerable to DNA damage due to condensed chromosomes and the reduced ability to repair damage, leading to cell death or genetic instability.
51
Proton plans should be robust, which means they should: A. have a sharp dose fall-off B reduce integral dose to the patient C. maintain target coverage and OAR sparing despite range uncertainty and setup variation D. optimize dose distributions using multi-field beam geometry
C. maintain target coverage and OAR sparing despite range uncertainty and setup variation
52
The active length of a source is the: A the distance between the actual ends of the source B. the distance between the ends of the radioactive material C. the activity or strength of the source D. filtration
B. the distance between the ends of the radioactive material
53
In electron beam therapy, if the prescription specified coverage to a 4 cm depth with the 90% IDL, what energy should be used? A. 6 MeV B. 9 MeV C. 12 MeV D. 16 MeV
C. 12MeV R90 = E/2.8
54
According to AAPM TG-66 guidelines for image performance, CT simulator field uniformity should be A +/- 1 HU B +/- 5 HU C +/- 10 HU D +/- 15 HU
B +/- 5 HU
55
Tissue air ratio (TAR) = A TMR / BSF B BSF / TMR C TMR x BSF D TPR x TMR
C. TMR x BSF Because TMR=TAR/BSF U will find all the explanation here https://oncologymedicalphysics.com/dose-calculation-hand-methods/
56
In a photon-electron field match, the hot spot will occur on the _____________. A photon side B electron side C the dose will be homogeneous
A. photon side The electron isodose curves bulge outward, and overlap with the photon field at a certain depth, depending on electron energy used. The hotspot will be on the photon side
57
On a cell survival curve, the D0 is the A where all cells are capable of repair and survival B the sublethal dose: the dose at which survival becomes exponential C The dose that reduces surviving fraction to 63% D The dose the reduces surviving fraction to 37%
D The dose the reduces surviving fraction to 37% https://www.astro.org/ASTRO/media/ASTRO/AffiliatePages/arro/Yuan%20Lecture%20PDFs/Chapter3_Lecture2.pdf Initial slope (D1) – Dose to lowers SF to 37% of its previous value on initial portion of the curve Final slope (D0) – Dose to lovers ̄ SF to 37% of its previous value on straight line portion of the curve Quasi-threshold dose (Dq) – Almost a threshold dose, dose below which radiation purportedly has no effect
58
A large field "hockey stick" portal may be used for radiation therapy for _______________. A. endometrial cancer B kidney cancer C bladder cancer D seminoma
D seminoma
59
Which of the following is non-ionizing radiation? A. ultraviolet rays B x rays C microwaves
C microwaves Non-Ionizing vs. Ionizing Radiation •Non-ionizing radiation DOES NOT have enough energy to remove electrons from atoms. For example, microwave radiation heats food. •Ionizing radiation, like x-rays and gamma rays, have enough juice to remove electrons from atoms. We use ionizing radiation to treat cancer.
60
Compton-scattered photons can be emitted at ________ with respect to the direction of the incident photon. A any angle B 0-90 degrees C 0-180 degrees D 0-270 degrees
A any angle Compton-scattered electrons can only be emitted at 0-90 degree angles with respect to the direction of the incident photon. Photons can be emitted from any angle.
61
To deliver the same prescription dose, if you were changing from an 100 cm SSD setup to an SAD setup, you would ____________ the MU. A increase B decrease C keep the same
B decrease Switching from a 100 cm SSD setup to an isocentric setup means that the patient is closer to the gantry. If no changes were made, the patient would be overdosed. To deliver the same dose, you would need to decrease the MU.
62
The energy of I-125, with a half life of 60 days, is: A 21 keV B 35 keV C 380 keV D 660 keV
B 35 keV
63
Compared to 16 MeV, the surface dose of 9 MeV is ____________. A. Higher B. Lower C. The same
B. Lower Unlike photons, higher electron energies have higher surface dose. So, 9 MeV has a lower surface dose than 16 MeV
64
The most radiosensitive tumor type out of the following is ________________: A seminoma B sarcoma C adenocarcinoma D melanoma
A seminoma
65
What is the practical range of 10 MeV electrons in water? A. 3 cm B. 5 cm C. 7 cm D. 2 cm
B. 5cm The energy loss rate of electrons in water is 2 MeV per 1 cm. So the practical range is about E/2 so 10MeV/2=5
66
What is the approximate density of compact bone? A. .95 g/cc B. 1 g/cc C 1.03 g/cc D. 1.65 g/cc
D. 1.65 g/cc
67
Which of the following applies to treatment planning of an SBRT plan? A. intensity modulation is not acceptable for achieving the dosimetric goals for SBRT B. The dosimetric goals of SBRT are dose conformality and gradual dose fall off C. Daily kV imaging will produce enhanced delineation of the target volume D. Multiple noncoplanar beam arrangement is optimal for dose conformality.
D. Multiple noncoplanar beam arrangement is optimal for dose conformality.
68
A patient is to receive 55 Gy to the mediastinum using 3D-CRT. What should be done in order to meet the 45 Gy max dose to spinal cord? A. use a BID treatment technique to achieve greater repair time for normal tissue cells B. Use 2 laterals to minimize spinal cord dose and ignore hotspots C. After nearing spinal cord tolerance, use an off-cord beam arrangement to limit spinal cord dose D. Use higher energy photons greater than 10 MV
C After nearing spinal cord tolerance, use an off-cord beam arrangement to limit spinal cord dose A traditional lung/mediastinal technique in dosimetry was off-cord AP/PA. The patient was planned to receive a certain number of fractions AP/PA, and once the spinal cord was near tolerance, the remaining fractions would be delivered in an off-cord plan.
69
The Manchester System specifies point A, point B, a bladder point, and a rectum point. How is point A defined? A. 2 cm superior to the external cervical os (or cervical end of the tandem) and 2 cm lateral to the cervical canal B. 2 cm superior to the external cervical os and 1 cm lateral to the cervical canal C. 2 cm inferior to the prescription point, 2 cm lateral to the cervical canal D. 2 cm inferior to the cervical os, 2 cm lateral to the cervical canal This answer is correct.
A. 2 cm superior to the external cervical os (or cervical end of the tandem) and 2 cm lateral to the cervical canal •doses to 4 points: point A, point B, a bladder point, and a rectum point o Point A: the point of dose prescription  2 cm superior to the external cervical os (or cervical end of the tandem) and 2 cm lateral to the cervical canal  represents the location where the uterine vessels cross the ureter.  believed that the tolerance of these structures is the main limiting factor in the irradiation of the uterine cervix o Point B: 3 cm lateral to point A o Bladder Point  localized by using a Foley catheter, with the balloon filled with a contrast material  On the frontal radiograph, the bladder point is marked at the center of the balloon; on the lateral radiograph, the bladder point is obtained on a line drawn anteroposteriorly through the center of the balloon, at the posterior surface o Rectal Point  identified on the frontal radiograph at the midpoint of the ovoid sources (or at the lower end of the intrauterine source)  On the lateral radiograph, the rectal point is located on a line drawn from the middle of the ovoid sources, 5 mm behind the posterior vaginal wall https://www.aapm.org/meetings/05SS/program/MANCHESTER_SYSTEM_FOR_GYNECOLOGICAL_APPLICATIONS_sharma.pdf
70
The LD 50/60, the dose to which 50% of those exposed would die within 60 days, is ______________. A. 12 Gy whole body B. 8-9 Gy whole body C. 3-4 Gy whole body D. 1 Gy whole body
C. 3-4 Gy whole body
71
What connects the stomach to the duodenum? A. fundus B. body C. pyloric sphincter D. jejunum
C. pyloric sphincter
72
DICOM stands for: A. Digital Images and Connections in Media B. Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine C. Digital Integration of Communication in Medicine D. Digital Imaging and Communication in Media
B. Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine
73
Prophylactic whole brain irradiation (PCI) became the standard of care for _______________. A. non-small cell lung cancer B. small cell lung cancer C. mediastinal cancer D. astrocytoma
B. small cell lung cancer
74
Which of the following is a disadvantage of optical surface tracking? A. additional radiation B. inability to verify gross alignment of setup to initial capture C. external surface is not a valuable parameter in setup of breast patients D. obstruction of surface can reduce the ability to track an external target
D. obstruction of surface can reduce the ability to track an external target Say you are tracking an abdomen surface. If the patient is obstructed by a blanket, then the tracking will not be accurate.
75
What is the most common childhood CNS tumor? A. astrocytoma B. glioblastoma C. ependymoma D. medulloblastoma
A. astrocytoma
76
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a thimble chamber wall? A. shell wall is solid B. wall is made of a material that is air equivalent (same atomic number as air) C. wall is thick enough for electronic equilibrium to occur inside the cavity D. wall should act as an effective filter, attenuating low energy X-rays
D. wall should act as an effective filter, attenuating low energy X-rays •a spherical volume of air with an air cavity in the center •shell wall is solid and air equivalent (atomic number is the same as air) •wall is thick enough for electronic equilibrium to occur inside the cavity •wall is about 1 mm, but sometimes a build-up cap (plastic) is needed to bring the wall thickness up to maintain electronic equilibrium https://radiologykey.com/ionization-chamber/
77
What instrument is used to measure surface dose or dose in the buildup region where dose gradients are high? The AAPM recommends using these to calibrate 6 MeV electron beams. A. thimble chamber B. free-air ionization chamber C. parallel-plate chamber D. farmer chamber
C. parallel-plate chamber https://oncologymedicalphysics.com/ionization-chamber-design-and-operation/
78
Which of the following is a stochastic effect of radiation? A. organ atrophy B. lens opacification C. decrease in sperm count D. development of cancer
D. development of cancer https://www.nrc.gov/docs/ML1117/ML111711087.pdf#:~:text=Hereditary%20effects%20and%20cancer%20incidence%20are%20examples,which%20a%20threshold%20is%20believed%20to%20exist.
79
An HDR source must be calibrated at each installation: installation must be traceable to _____________. A. NRC (Nuclear Regulatory Comission) B. NIST (National Institute of Standards and Technology) C. AAPM (American Association of Physicists in Medicine) D. none of the above
B. NIST (National Institute of Standards and Technology)
80
The LD 50/60, the dose to which 50% of those exposed would die within 60 days, is ______________. A. 12 Gy whole body B. 8-9 Gy whole body C. 3-4 Gy whole body D. 1 Gy whole body
C. 3-4 Gy whole body
81
A beam is planned to travel through 3 cm of soft tissue, then 9 cm of lung with heterogeneity correction on. If heterogeneity correction was turned off, what would happen to the patient? A. overdose B. underdose C. overdose in the soft tissue only D. none of the above
B. underdose Lung is about 1/3 the density of soft tissue, so traveling through 9 cm of lung is equivalent to about 3 cm of tissue. With the heterogeneity correction, the beam travels through 3 cm of soft tissue + 9 cm/3 = 6 cm total
82
According to the Law of Bergonie and Tribondeau, cells are most sensitive when they are A. actively mitotic, differentiated, short mitotic cycle B. actively mitotic, undifferentiated, short mitotic cycle C. actively mitotic, differentiated, long mitotic cycle D. actively mitotic, undifferentiated, long mitotic cycle
D. actively mitotic, undifferentiated, long mitotic cycle Law of Bergonie and Triboneau: cells are most sensitive when they are 1. actively mitotic 2. undifferentiated 3. long mitotic cycle
83
_______________ have the same mass number, but different numbers of protons A. isotopes B isotones C isobars D isomers
C isobars Isobars have the same mass number, but different numbers of protons. Isobars are atoms of different elements, meaning they have different atomic numbers (the number of protons) but the same total number of protons and neutrons. Here's a breakdown of the terms: Isotopes -: Atoms of the same element (same number of protons) but with different numbers of neutrons, leading to different mass numbers. Isobars- : Atoms of different elements that have the same mass number but different numbers of protons. isomers differ in their atom arrangement, leading to different physical or chemical properties Atomic Number (Z) : The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom. Mass Number (A) : The total number of protons and neutrons in an atom's nucleus.
84
85
_________________ are the result of radiative "collision" between a high-speed electron and a nucleus. Electrons incoming toward the nucleus are deflected, losing part of their energy, which is emitted as radiation. A. Characteristic rays B. Bremsstrahlung rays C. Auger electrons D. Compton photons
B. Bremsstrahlung rays
86
Which of the following is not an example of particulate radiation? A. alpha particles B. protons C. beta particles D. gamma rays
D. gamma rays
87
The threshold energy that an incident electron must possess in order to remove an electron from the atom is the ________________. A. Binding threshold B. critical absorption energy C. electronic equilibrium energy D. critical threshold energy
B. critical absorption energy
88
HU numbers and attenuation are linear, but they are not linear with electron density why? A. Electron density fluctuates over time in a patient B. different tissues have different atomic numbers (Z values), Compton interactions are not affected by Z, but Photoelectric interactions are C. The HU and attenuation correlation was established before electron density was discovered D. Electron density varies with beam energy, field size, and SSD. This answer is correct.
B. different tissues have different atomic numbers (Z values), Compton interactions are not affected by Z, but Photoelectric interactions are
89
What is the RBE of a clinical proton beam? A. .9 B. 1 C. 1.1 D. 1.5
C. 1.1
90
You are planning an electron case. If the gap increased between the cerrobend cutout and the patient surface, what adjustments to the plan would be necessary? A. a decrease in monitor units to achieve the same dose B. an increase in monitor units to achieve the same dose C. a decrease in physical penumbra at the patient surface D. a decrease of electron energy to achieve the same PDD
B. an increase in monitor units to achieve the same dose
91
The __________ is the tilt that an isodose curve makes with the central axis of the beam at a certain depth: A. hinge angle B. wedge factor C. wedge angle D. edge effect
C. wedge angle
92
Physicists often use water phantoms for dose measurements. These are solid blocks of water, composed of a material with the same _________________ as liquid water. A. physical density B. electron density C. chemical composition D. mass number
B. electron density
93
When increasing the source to collimator distance, the geometric penumbra: Choose only ONE best answer. A. increases B. decreases C. stays the same
B. decreases The geometric penumbra is given by the equation: P_geometric = s * (SSD + d – SDD) / SDD. Factors influencing geometric penumbra width Source Size (S): A larger source size increases the geometric penumbra. Source-to-Skin Distance (SSD): A larger SSD (distance from the source to the patient's skin) increases the penumbra. Depth (d): The geometric penumbra of interest increases with depth in the patient. Source-to-Collimator Distance (SCD): A smaller SCD (distance from the source to the collimator) reduces the penumbra.
94
The ion chamber within the head of the linear accelerator monitors: A. field symmetry B. field flatness C. field penumbra D beam energy
A. field symmetry
95
The SI unit of absorbed dose is the ____________, and the SI unit of equivalent dose is the ____________. A. Roentgen; rem B. rad; rem C. Gray; Sievert D. rad; Sievert
C. Gray; Sievert Activity-Curie (Ci) -Becquerel (Bq) Absorbed dose-rads-Gray (Gy) Exposure-Roentgen, Coulomb/kg (C/kg) Equivalent Dose-rem -Sievert (Sv)
96
A patient is normally treated with 15 MV photons on a linac. They receive 1 of 10 fractions. Then, because of a scheduling issue, the patient must switch to a new machine and treated using only 6 MV. What should a dosimetrist do to make sure the patient receives proper treatment? A. rescan the patient for a new simulation B. decrease the monitor units C. recalculate the monitor units D. increase the dose delivered
C. recalculate the monitor units
97
When irradiating high grade soft tissue sarcomas of the extremities, care should be taken to ensure: A. minimizing margins around the tumor bed B. sparing a strip of skin to prevent lymphedema C. using fractional doses of 250 cGy or higher D. eliminating any shielding in the treatment field
B. sparing a strip of skin to prevent lymphedema
98
You are planning a case, and need to know the volume receiving a dose within a specified dose range. How would you look this up? A integral DVH B. Cumulative DVH C. Differential DVH D. conformity index
C. Differential DVH Explanation Differential DVH (Option C): A differential DVH is a frequency histogram that plots the volume of a structure receiving a dose within a specific dose interval or bin. The height of each bar or column on the graph indicates the volume that received that exact range of dose. By adding up the volumes of the bins that cover your desired dose range, you can determine the total volume that received a dose within that range. Cumulative DVH (Option B): A cumulative DVH plots the volume of a structure receiving a dose greater than or equal to a certain dose. It is most useful for finding the volume that receives at least a certain dose threshold (e.g., V20 for the lungs, which is the volume receiving 20 Gy or more). However, a cumulative DVH cannot directly show the volume within a specific dose range. Integral DVH (Option A): This is another term for a cumulative DVH. It plots the integral of the differential DVH. Conformity Index (Option D): A conformity index is a single number that describes how well the shape of the prescription isodose line conforms to the shape of the target volume. It does not provide information about the volume receiving a specific dose range.
99
You are planning an electron case. The beam arrangement isn't exactly en face. Beam obliquity will ______________________? A. shift the dmax towards the surface B. shift the dmax deeper C. decrease side scatter at dmax D. change the degree of the lower isodose bulge
A. shift the dmax towards the surface
100
When matching two photon fields, what is one way to limit hot spots at the junction, while maintaining target coverage and dose homogeneity? A. decreasing the SSD B. shielding the junction of the two fields C. using the same photon energies for both fields D. feather the junctions periodically
D. feather the junctions periodically
101
Which of the following techniques can be used when treating a base of tongue cancer to preserve the swallowing function? A. brachytherapy B. chemotherapy C. SRS D. electron therapy
A. brachytherapy
102
When irradiating the liver, what is the most dose-limiting normal tissue? A. spinal cord B. kidneys C. bowel D. normal liver
D. normal liver
103
What is the 5 year survival rate for an esophagus cancer treated with primary radiation? A 0%. B. 5-10% C. 30-40% D. 50-60%
B. 5-10%
104
What imaging modality is commonly fused on CTs to help define the tumor extent in lung irradiation? A. MRI B. PET C. contrast enhanced CT D. none of the above
B. PET
105
What is a typical dose for prostate HDR using I-125, if used as a single modality treatment? A. 115 Gy B. 120 Gy C. 90 Gy D. 145 Gy
D. 145 Gy
106
In daily QA of linear accelerators, x-ray output constancy should be: A. +/- 2% B. +/- 3% C. +/- 1% D. +/- 5%
B. +/- 3%
107
Historically, physical wedges were not recommended in the treatment of breast cancer. This is because: A. wedges harden a beam, increasing the penetrating power B. wedges prevent the use of field in fields C. wedges do not produce a homogeneous dose distribution D. dose would scatter off the wedge onto the contralateral side
D. dose would scatter off the wedge onto the contralateral side
108
This curve represents a depth dose curve for: A. electrons B. photons C. protons D. none of the above
C. protons https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/169665/dose-depth-curve-of-photons-vs-protons
109
A patient receives a permanent implant using an isotope with a 17-day half-life. The initial dose rate is 0.50 cGy/hr, resulting in an approximate total dose of _________. A. 189 cGy B. 203 cGy C. 294 cGy D. 344 cGy
C. 294 cGy Dtotal= R0*T 1/2 /ln2 Step 2: Convert units T1/2= 17 days *24h/1 day=408 h D total= 0.5 cGy/hr * 408h/ .693 D total= 294 cGy
110
The exposure rate constant for an isotope is 1.9 Rcm2 / mCi-hr. The exposure rate at 3 m from a patient with a temporary insertion of 200 mCi (ignoring tissue attenuation) is _______________. A. .004 mR/hr B. 4 mR/hr C. .007 mR/hr D. 7 mR/hr
B. 4 mR/hr Er=A*£*(1/d^2) A=200mCi £= 1.9 Rcm2 / mCi-hr d= 3m=300cm A= 200mCi * 1.9Rcm2/ mCi-hr (1/300cm^2) 380 cm2/hr * (1/90 000cm) A=0.004 R/hr- the answer in in mili R so 0.004 R/hr * 1000m/1R= 4 mR/hr
111
An orthovoltage beam is used to deliver 180 cGy to a depth of 3 cm. Find the timer setting for an SSD of 55 cm, given an exposure rate of 125 R/min at 50 cm. cGy/R factor = .95 cGy/R and BSF =1.20%, PDD at 3 cm = .63. Timer error is 24 seconds. A. 2.4 min B. 2.8 min C. 3.5 min D. 4.1 min
B. 2.8 min
112
Find the geometric penumbra at 3 cm depth. Where source is 2cm, SCD source to collimator distance is 20cm and SSD is 100cm. A. 8.3 B. 5.2 C. 3.8 D 1.9
A. 8.3 Gp=S(SSD+d-SDD) / SSD 2 (100+3-20)/ 20= 8.3
113
The SI unit of absorbed dose is the ____________, and the SI unit of equivalent dose is the ____________. A. Roentgen; rem B. rad; rem C. Gray; Sievert D. rad; Sievert
C. Gray; Sievert
114
The radium equivalence of an isotope is .241 mgRaeq (the exposure rate constant for radium is .825 Rm2/Ci-hr). Find the exposure rate of 100 mCi of that isotope, 200 cm from the source. A. 1.5 R/hr B. 1 R/hr C. .005 R/hr D. 5 R/hr
C. 0.005 R/hr
115
Ir-192, with an activity of 3 mCi, is equivalent to _____ mg-Ra eq. (NOTE: exposure rate constant: Ra-226: 8.25 Rcm2/mg-h; Ir-192: 4.69 Rcm2/mCi-h) A. .5 B. 1.2 C. 1.4 D. 1.7
D. 1.7
116
Calculate the thickness of lead required to shield the dose from a source to 20%, if one HVL is 3.8 mm A. .88 cm B. 8.8 cm C. .54 cm D. 5.4 cm
A. .88 cm
117
An electron field defined by a Lipowitz metal cutout is filmed using 6 MV photons. The cutout material has a thickness of 1.27 cm and a half value layer of 1.6 cm for a 6 MV photon beam. What percentage of an incident 6 MV beam is attenuated through the cutout material? A. 55% B. 51% C. 58% D. 42%
D. 42%
118
The tangential fields in the diagram are angled so that their posterior borders are aligned. LAO gantry angle is 57°. Field width is 24 cm (symmetrical) at 100 cm SAD. Gantry angles are defined as 0°= anterior and 90° = patient left. Find the RPO gantry angle: A. 234 B. 228 C. 223 D. 215
C. 223 Tangent < = 180• + < - 2 tan^-1(1/2 *F width/100) =180+57-2 tan^-1 (1/2*24/100) =180+57-13.7 =223
119
Craniospinal irradiation is to be performed using a PA spine port (100 cm SSD, 26 cm long) and right/left lateral brain ports (100 cm SAD, 12 cm long). How many degrees must the collimator and table be rotated to make sure all beam edges match? A. collimator: 7.4 degrees couch: 3.4 degrees B. collimator: 10.4 degrees couch: 5.4 degrees C. collimator: 9.4 degrees couch: 4.4 degrees D. collimator: 11.4 degrees couch: 7.4 degrees
A. collimator: 7.4 degrees Here's how to calculate this: Determine the beam width difference: The PA spine port is 26 cm long, while the lateral brain ports are 12 cm long. The difference in length is 26 cm - 12 cm = 14 cm. Calculate half the difference: Half of the difference is 14 cm / 2 = 7 cm. Calculate the table rotation: The table needs to be rotated by an angle where 7 cm represents the arc length at a given distance. In this case, the table is rotated by 7 degrees, resulting in a larger portion of the field. Calculate the collimator rotation: The remaining 4 cm needs to be accounted for, which comes from a 4-degree collimator rotation and the field shape. The collimator must be rotated by approximately 11.4 degrees to account for the remaining portion of the field.
120
Two adjacent 30 x 30 cm fields (100 cm SSD) are to be matched at a depth of 8 cm. What is the gap at the skin? A. 1.8 cm B. 2.1 cm C. 2.4 cm D. 3.2 cm
C. 2.4 cm L1/2 x d/SSD + L2/2x d/SSD 30/2 x 8/100 + 30/2 x 8/100 =1.2+1.2=2.4
121
An averaged ionization chamber reading for a 10x10 cm electron applicator is 99.5 and an averaged ionization chamber reading for an electron cut-out in a 8 cm x 10 cm applicator is 92. What is the MU setting if 250 cGy is prescribed to 88% IDL and the 8x10 cm cut-out is utilized (The output factor for 10x10 cm is 1 cGy/MU.) A. 285 MU B. 299 MU C. 309 MU D. 315 MU
C. 309 MU MU=250cGy/0.88 x 0.92
122
A patient is treated to the thoracic spine with a single posterior field, 100 cm SSD setup, 8x10 cm, 6 MV x-rays. The prescription is 180 cGy/field to a depth of 8 cm. There is no blocking. The MU setting per field is _____. A. 249 MU B. 252 MU C. 254 MU D. 259 MU
B. 252 MU
123
A patient is with isocentric AP/PA fields, 15x15 cm2, 6 MV xrays. The prescription is 200 cGy per field to the midplane depth of 8 cm. The treatment field is shaped to an equivalent field of 10x10 cm2 with MLC. The MU setting per field is _______. A. 234 MU B. 241 MU C. 252 MU D. 261 MU
A. 234 MU
124
What's the equivalent square field size of a 12x20 cm field? A. 10x10 cm B. 13x13 cm C. 15 x 15 cm D. 17 x 17 cm
C. 15x15 (2x12x20)/ (12+20)=480/32=15
125
The dose at the isocenter (100 cm SAD) at a depth of 4 cm is 200 cGy from a single photon field. Given the following TMRs, _____ is the dose at a depth of 7 cm. TMR (d=3) = .975 TMR (d=4) = .949 TMR (d=7) = .862 TMR (d=11) = .746 A. 182 cGy B. 171 cGy C. 256 cGy D. 271 cGy
B. 171 cGy 200 cGy/Ddmax = D(4 cm) = .949 Ddmax = 210.75 D(7 cm)/210.75 = .862 D(7 cm) = 181.7 cGy *add inverse square component. D(7 cm) is farther away than D(4 cm) so (100/103)^2 = .942 181.7 x .942 = 171 cGy
126
The Mayneord Factor corrects the _________ at extended distances. A. SSD B. TMR C. TAR D. PDD
D. PDD
127
A patient is treated with isocentric AP/PA, 10 MV fields. The AP is weighted .6, and the PA is weighted .4 and there is a wedge in the PA field only, with a wedge factor of .700. The total dose being delivered in the plan is 3000 cGy in 10 fractions. On the first treatment day, the therapists accidentally left out the wedge. What dose was actually delivered in that fraction? A. 295 cGy B. 312 cGy C. 351 cGy D. 399 cGy
C. 351
128
What is one advantage of a physical wedge over electronic wedge? A. decreases treatment time B. produce less scattered dose to peripheral areas C. allow for various wedge angles by changing the speed of the moving jaw or dose rate during treatment D. can function independently of collimator angle
D. can function independently of collimator angle
129
A patient is treated using parallel opposed equally weighted fields at 80 cm source to surface distance (SSD) on a 4 MV linear accelerator to a total midplane dose of 60 Gy. The patient diameter is 20 cm. The field size is 15x15 cm2. The total dose at a depth of 1.2 cm is: A. 59.8 Gy B. 64.7 Gy C. 71.3 Gy D. 74.5 Gy
B. 64.7 Gy
130
An orthovoltage beam is used to deliver 180 cGy to a depth of 3 cm. Find the timer setting for an SSD of 55 cm, given an exposure rate of 125 R/min at 50 cm. cGy/R factor = .95 cGy/R and BSF =1.20%, PDD at 3 cm = .63. Timer error is 24 seconds. A. 2.4 min B. 2.8 min C. 3.5 min D. 4.1 min
B. 2.8 min
131
Calculate the thickness of lead required to shield the dose from a source to 20%, if one HVL is 3.8 mm A. 0.88 cm B. 8.8 cm C. 0.54 cm D. 5.4 cm
A. 0.88 cm
132
An orthovoltage beam is used to deliver 180 cGy to a depth of 3 cm. Find the timer setting for an SSD of 55 cm, given an exposure rate of 125 R/min at 50 cm. cGy/R factor = .95 cGy/R and BSF =1.20%, PDD at 3 cm = .63. Timer error is 24 seconds. A. 2.4 min B. 2.8 min C. 3.5 min D. 4.1 min
B. 2.8 min
133
The dose at the isocenter (100 cm SAD) at a depth of 4 cm is 200 cGy from a single photon field. Given the following TMRs, _____ is the dose at a depth of 7 cm. TMR (d=3) = .975 TMR (d=4) = .949 TMR (d=7) = .862 TMR (d=11) = .746 A. 182 cGy B. 171 cGy C. 256 cGy D. 271 cGy
B. 171 cGy 200 cGy/Ddmax = D(4 cm) = .949 Ddmax = 210.75 D(7 cm)/210.75 = .862 D(7 cm) = 181.7 cGy *add inverse square component. D(7 cm) is farther away than D(4 cm) so (100/103)^2 = .942 181.7 x .942 = 171 cGy
134
The Mayneord Factor corrects the _________ at extended distances. A. SSD B. TMR C. TAR D. PDD
D.PPD
135
A patient is treated using parallel opposed equally weighted fields at 80 cm source to surface distance (SSD) on a 4 MV linear accelerator to a total midplane dose of 60 Gy. The patient diameter is 20 cm. The field size is 15x15 cm2. The total dose at a depth of 1.2 cm is: A. 59.8 Gy B. 64.7 Gy C. 71.3 Gy D. 74.5 Gy
B. 64.7 Gy
136
What is the MLC design called that minimizes the leakage by making their sides partially overlap? . A. picket fence B. tongue and groove C. sliding window D. interleaf shielding
B. tongue and groove
137
The prescribed dose at midplane is 200 cGy using equally weighted AP/PA beams at 100 cm SAD. Patient separation is 20 cm. If the AP field is accidentally treated at an SSD of 95 cm, but the PA field is treated correctly, what is the approximate dose delivered to the prescription point? A. 191 cGy B. 201 cGy C. 234 cGy D. 243 cGy
A. 191 cGy
138
The most accurate algorithm for electron beam calculations is: A. pencil beam B. Anisotropic Analytical Algorithm C. Collapsed Cone D. Monte Carlo
D. Monte Carlo
139
According to AAPM TG-34, the max dose to a pacemaker should be: A. <2 Gy per fraction B. <2 Gy for the entire treatment C. <150 cGy for the entire treatment D. <1 Gy for a single fraction
B. <2 Gy for the entire treatment
140
One goal of automatic segmentation is: A. contour target volumes B. eliminate to need to verify OAR contours C. Reduce variation of contours between users D. Eliminate the need to create "tuning structures" when planning This answer is correct.
C. Reduce variation of contours between users
141
Identify the structure, A. sphenoid sinus, ethmoid sinus B. ethmoid sinus; sphenoid sinus C. frontal sinus; ethmoid sinus
142
A type of non-changeable memory in computers. Data stored in this form cannot be electronically modified after the manufacture of the memory device. A. RAM B. MIPS C. ROM D. Parallel processing
C. ROM Read only memory Ram random access memory MIPS can stand for either "Million Instructions Per Second parallel processing refers to a technique where multiple processors or cores in a system work together to execute different parts of a computational task simultaneously
143
The hotspot in a plan is 300 cGy, at the 100% IDL. If the plan was normalized to the 90% IDL, what is the new hot spot? A. 290 cGy B. 310 cGy C. 333 cGy D. 350 cGy
C. 333 cGy To calculate 300x 0.9= 333
144
Identify the structures A. lateral ventricle B. fourth ventricle C. cerebellum D. midbrain
145
Which mode of interaction is responsible for bony contrast in imaging? A. Pair Production B. Compton Effect C. Photoelectric Effect D. Rayleigh Scattering
C. Photoelectric Effect
146
The electromagnetic waves used to accelerate electrons in a linac typically have a frequency of 3000 MHz. What is the corresponding wavelength in a vacuum? A. 5 cm B. 10 cm C. 20 cm D. 50 cm
B. 10 cm speed of light = wavelength x frequency Don't forget to convert the MHz into Hz.
147
When planning with a 10X-FFF (flattening filter free) beam vs. a regular 10X beam, the FFF beam will: A. have a longer beam on time than a regular 10X beam to deliver the same dose B. will have decreased average energy C. will have increased dmax depth (penetration) D. have a less forward peaked (aka flatter) dose distribution compared to a regular 10X beam
B. will have decreased average energy planning with a 10X FFF beam (flattening filter free) vs. a regular 10X beam. -The FFF beam will deliver dose faster (more photons getting through to the patient), which is nice for that 3000 MU SBRT plan that takes forever to deliver -An FFF beam will have decreased average energy and decreased dmax depth (penetration) because there's no filter to remove the lower energy photons -Again, filters are like sports tryouts! If you cut out the weakest players, your remaining team is higher quality overall
148
If elements have the same Z number (atomic number), then they have the same: A. number of protons and neutrons B. atomic weight C. number of protons and electrons D. atomic mass
C. number of protons and electrons
149
If the decay constant of an isotope is .00936 days-1, identify the isotope. A. I-125 B. Pd-103 C. Ir-192 D. Co-60
C. Ir-192 The decay constant = .693 / half life. The half life is about 74 days. so it's Ir-192.
150
Which instrument is delicate, bulky, and functions mainly in standardizing labs to calibrate field instruments? A. farmer chamber B. parallel plate chamber C. condenser chamber D. free air ionization chamber
D. free air ionization chamber
151
A patient was planned to be treated to the femur, 3000 cGy total, AP/PA, SAD technique. It does not clear, and you must change the setup to an extended 110 SSD for each field, still delivering the prescribed 3000 cGy. What will happen to the plan? A. The dose at isocenter will increase B. The MU will decrease for both fields C. The MU will increase for both fields D. The dose at isocenter will decrease
C. The MU will increase for both fields In order to deliver the same prescription dose, 3000 cGy in this case, you must INCREASE the MU because your new SSD setup puts the patient farther from the source. You can think of it as the machine needing more "juice" to deliver dose to the patient. The dose to the patient should not change.
152
What's the most common cancer in the United States? A. Lung Cancer B. Prostate Cancer C. Rectal Cancer D. Skin cancer
D. Skin cancer
153
Lateral clearance on the machine is the largest concern for ________ plans. A. static IMRT B. 3D-conformal C. full arc VMAT D. electron
C. full arc VMAT
154
Compared to MLCs, cones used for SRS have __________ penumbra. A. sharper B. larger C. the same
A. sharper • MLCs vs. Cones • The MLC has many advantages for cranial radiosurgery, namely that there are no field size or shape limitations for use of a single isocenter, and there is more flexibility in the technique (static, dynamic, conformal arc, IMRT, VMAT) • cones collimate the beam closer to the patient's head, they have a sharper geometric penumbra
155
QUANTEC specifies that the V20 for lung should be < ________%, for <20% pneumonitis. A. 15 B. 20 C. 30 D. 40
C. 30 V20 < 30%
156
The temperature-pressure correction factor will be larger than 1 if A. pressure is greater than 760 mmHg and temperature is less than 22 degrees celsius B. pressure is less than 760 mmHg and temperature is greater than 22 degrees celsius C. pressure is greater than 760 mmHg and temperature is greater than 22 degrees celsius D. pressure is greater than 760 mmHg and temperature is less than 22 degrees celsius This answer is correct.
B. pressure is less than 760 mmHg and temperature is greater than 22 degrees celsius
157
_____________ syndrome will occur at whole body doses greater than 12 Gy, usually resulting in death within a day. A. hematopoietic B. gastrointenstinal C. central nervous system D. prodromal
C. central nervous system Hematopoietic -2-3 Gy whole body-Survival months Gastrointestinal-5-12 Gy whole body-1 week Central Nervous System > 12 Gy 1 day
158
The beam weighting for a 3-field plan is 30:90:40 respectively. A daily dose of 300 cGy is being delivered. What is the dose being delivered from each beam respectively? (All values in cGy) A. 45: 150: 105 B. 56.3: 168.7: 75 C. 51.5: 172.5: 76 D. 60.1: 180.9: 59
B. 56.3: 168.7: 75
159
What method is used to calculate the dose of an irregular field? A. standard deviation B. Isodose shift method C. Clarkson method D Equivalent Square Sum
C. Clarkson method Isodose Distribution of an Irregular Field •The dose to an irregular field can be calculated using the Clarkson Method. It's basically like dividing the irregular field into easy-to-solve jigsaw pieces and adding it together. You do not have to know the math behind it, just be aware of the existence of this technique.
160
Which of the following statements about personnel monitoring is NOT true? A. required for use in controlled areas for occupationally exposed individuals B. wear on chest/abdomen to monitor whole body exposure, and there are special badges for particular procedures (hands) C. does not give information on beam quality. D. can be physically damaged
C. does not give information on beam quality.
161
You are doing a treatment plan for a left upper lobe cancer, but the CT scan cuts off a portion of the lung inferiorly. This will most impact: A. the max dose B. V5 C. the mean dose D. V20
C. the mean dose Because the lesion is located in the upper lobe, the maximum dose will still be delivered to the upper lobe and will not be affected if the inferior portion of the lung is excluded. The V5 and V20 values will also remain relatively consistent, since they represent the percentage of lung volume receiving a specific dose or higher. However, the mean lung dose will be the least accurate if part of the lung is excluded, as it depends on the total lung volume.
162
For which of the following rectangular fields is the equivalent square least accurate? A. 10x14 cm B 16x20cm C. 4x20 cm D. 10x12 cm
C. 4x20 The 4x20 is an elongated field. The equivalent square is least accurate for this field because of off axis factors and inverse square. You should measure this output separately!
163
Which of the following is not a method to obtain information about patient contours? A. Conventional CT B. Lead wire C. pantograph apparatus (rod moved over patient's skin then placed on paper for contour drawing) D. all of the above can be used to obtain information about patient contours Below are methods to find body contour (What's the patient separation?) and internal structures (How big are our organs at risk? Where are they?) 1. CT 2. Conventional CT o block positions determined by anatomical landmarks visible on radiographs (bony structures or lead wire clinically placed on the surface of the patient). o scouts o Determination of patient treatment position with fluoroscopy  set beam geometry, fields, isocenter  acquire contours 3. Lead wire: shaped to the patients contour and the shape is then transferred to a sheet of graph paper. Some reference to the room coordinate system marked on the contour in order to relate the position of the beam geometry to the patient 4. caliper measurements for separation (AP/PA) 5. pantograph apparatus (rod moved over patient's skin then placed on paper for contour drawing) 6. electromechanical rod motion, sensing device, transferred to an X-Y recorder 7. Practice Exam 2
D. all of the above can be used to obtain information about patient contours This answer is correct. Below are methods to find body contour (What's the patient separation?) and internal structures (How big are our organs at risk? Where are they?) 1. CT 2. Conventional CT o block positions determined by anatomical landmarks visible on radiographs (bony structures or lead wire clinically placed on the surface of the patient). o scouts o Determination of patient treatment position with fluoroscopy  set beam geometry, fields, isocenter  acquire contours -Lead wire: shaped to the patients contour and the shape is then transferred to a sheet of graph paper. Some reference to the room coordinate system marked on the contour in order to relate the position of the beam geometry to the patient -caliper measurements for separation (AP/PA) -pantograph apparatus (rod moved over patient's skin then placed on paper for contour drawing) -electromechanical rod motion, sensing device, transferred to an X-Y recorder
164
Events that are caught during the treatment planning process and are fixed before impacting the patient are: A. misadministrations B. near misses C. arginal error D. Failure modes
B. near misses
165
In total skin electron therapy, which of the following is not a possible boost site? A. perineum B. soles of feet C palms of hands D. fingernails
D. fingernails
166
For dual isocenter 3 field breasts, the couch should be rotated such that the superior border of the tangent fields match the inferior border of the supraclavicular field. The couch should be kicked ___________ the gantry for the medial and _________ the gantry for the lateral tangents. A. away from; towards B. away from; away from C. towards; away from D. towards; towards
B. away from; away from??
167
What does the TPS use to account for inhomogeneity corrections? A. physical density B. HU unit C. electron density D. mass attenuation coefficient
C. electron density
168
What is the probability of the Photoelectric Effect?
Z3/E3
169
Compton-scattered electrons can be emitted at ________ with respect to the direction of the incident photon.
0-90 degrees Remember The Compton PHOTON can be scattered at any angle, but the Compton ELECTRON is emitted at an angle limited to 0-90 degrees with respect to the direction of the incident photon.
170
171
Which of the following does NOT occur when a linac is changed from the x-ray mode to the electron mode? A. Target is removed B. A scattering foil is placed in the beam C. The monitor chamber is removed D. An electron applicator is attached E. Beam current decreases
C. The monitor chamber is removed
172
In a linac, which of the following is the correct arrangement of components 1-5 as "seen" by the beam: 1. Primary Collimator 2. Jaws and secondary collimator 3. Target 4. Ion chamber 5. Flattening filter A. 5, 3, 4, 1, 2 B. 3, 1, 2, 5, 4 C. 3, 1, 5, 4, 2 D. 4, 3, 1, 5, 2
C. 3,1,5,4,2
173
Flattening filters in photon beams are designed to optimally flatten the beam at depth of: A. dmax B. 5 cm C. 10 cm D. 20 cm
C. 10 cm
174
In a linear accelerator, to produce the same dose rate for a 15 MV x-ray beam as for a 6 MV x-ray beam, the electron current in the accelerating cavity must be: A. Higher for 15 MV than for 6 MV B. Higher for 6 MV than for 15 MV C. About the same for both energies
B. Higher for 6 MV than for 15 MV
175
In a linac, to produce the same dose rate for a 15 MV x-ray beam as for a 15 MeV electron beam, the electron current in the accelerating cavity must be. A. Higher for electron treatment than for photon treatment B. Lower for electron treatment than for photon treatment C. About the same for both modalities
B. Lower for electron treatment than for photon treatment