1
Q
Which acronym can be used to identify the symptoms of a stroke
a) DETERMINE
b) FACE
C) FASTER
d) RACE
A
FASTER
Face
Arms
Stability
Talking
Eyes
React
2
Q
Which of the following describes the Human skill in Katz’s skills for a successful manager
a) The managers ability to communicate key technical details to employees
b) The ability of a manager to apply more abstract thinking
c) The managers ability to show comprehensive understanding of contexts
d) Enables a manager to become a leader and motivate employees
A
The managers ability to communicate key technical details to employees
3
Q
What is the primary purpose of the nutrition screen
a) Tailor an intervention to the individual patient’s needs
b) Resolve or alleviate a nutrition problem
c) Describe a specific nutrition problem
d) Determine if a patient is a candidate for nutrition care
A
d) Determine if a patient is a candidate for nutrition care
4
Q
Colostrum has a yellow tint due to which compound
a) Carotenoids
b) Whey
c) Flavonoids
d) lactose
A
a) Carotenoids
5
Q
A cost benefit analysis differs from a cost effective analysis in that a cost effective analysis:
a) Examines costs and health outcomes of one or more interventions
b) Determines if an investment is reasonable and how much the benefits outweigh the costs
c) Estimates strengths and weaknesses of alternative interventions
d) Compares that total cost of each option with its total financial gains
A
a) Examines costs and health outcomes of one or more interventions
6
Q
An example of an intrinsic reward would be
a) Praise from a supervisor
b) Happy feeling after providing excellent customer service
c) A customer calling to speak with a manager about how satisfied she is with an employees assistance
d) Promotion to a higher level position
A
b) Happy feeling after providing excellent customer service
7
Q
Using the exchange list how many grams of protein are in a low-fat milk exchange
a) 3g
b)8g
c) 0g
d) 15g
A
b) 8g
8
Q
Which of the following best describes the difference between a line position and a staff position in an organization?
a) A staff position has authority over employees in line positions
b) A line position only exists in small organizations, while a staff position is only found in large organizations
c) A line position contributes directly to achieving the organization’s primary goals, while a staff position provides support and advice
d) A line position focuses on strategic planning, while a staff position manages daily operations
A
c) A line position contributes directly to achieving the organization’s primary goals, while a staff position
9
Q
A patients labs show the following: low albumin, transferrin wnl, and high sodium. What do you suspect
a) Protein stores are low
b) Pancreatitis
c) Edema due to acute sodium toxicity
d) There is nothing wrong
A
c) Edema due to acute sodium toxicity
10
Q
What are the minutes per meal yesterday if you had 6.3 full time employees who served 190 meals
a) 9.8
b) 15.9
c) 14
d) 11.7
A
b) 15.9
11
Q
T/F minerals change form once they are inside the body
A
False
12
Q
All of the following MyPlate are true except:
a) Contains a new group named starches
b) Encourages physical activity, although not illustrated on the icon
c) Emphasizes whole grains
d) Does not include a fats and sweets category
A
a) Contains a new group named starches
13
Q
If dextrose in PN regimen is administered too rapidly, what can be expected
a) Hypokalemia
b) Hyperglycemia
c) Hypocalcemia
d) Hyperkalemia
A
b) Hyperglycemia
14
Q
T/F Food additives found on the GRAS list will not cause an allergic reaction
A
False
15
Q
Which of the following is not a principle of total quality management (TCM)
a) Looking for faults in the system
b) Profit gain
c) Client focused
d) Unity of purpose
A
b) Profit gain
16
Q
A patient with renal disease may exhibit any of the labs below except:
a) Decreased calcium
b) Increased GFR
c) Increased phosphorus
d) Increased potassium
A
b) Increased GFR
17
Q
A benefit of a flat organizational structure includes:
a) More opportunities for employee promotion
b) More cost effective
c) Offers a degree of specialization in a variety of departments
d) Although more managers are required the # of employees they manage each is smaller
A
b) More cost effective
18
Q
You have a nutrition counseling business where you allocate $1,500 monthly for advertising. Your advertising costs make up 6% of your total monthly revenue for the business. Rent for the office space and other monthly expenses amount to $3,500. Labor costs make up 65% of your revenue. What is the amount of profit the business makes per month.
a) 3,750
b) 6,250
c) 4,025
d) 7,250
A
a) 3,750
19
Q
Compared to whole milk, breast milk is:
a) Lower in protein, but higher in carbs and fat
b) Higher in protein and fat, but lower in carbs
c) The same when considering protein, carbs and fat
d) Higher in protein, carbs, and fat
A
a) Lower in protein, but higher in carbs and fat
20
Q
According to the diabetic exchange list, one serving in the non starchy veggies category provides 25 calories and ______ carbs
a) 12g
b) 5g
c) 15g
d) 7g
A
b) 5g
21
Q
All of the following are examples of indirect costs, except:
a) Accounting software
b) Chef’s salary
c) Company car
d) Air conditioning
A
b) Chef’s salary
22
Q
The delaney clause is intended to:
a) Require food additive manufacturers to prove they are safe
b) Provides a means for a manufacturer to petition the FDA for an additive to be allowed in foods
c) Protect the public against any cancer-causing additive
d) Monitor the safety of medical devices
A
c) Protect the public against any cancer-causing additive
23
Q
Which of the following methods is recommended for cuts of beef such as stew beef, short ribs, chuck steak or beef round?
a) Pan frying
b) Broiling
c) Roasting
d) Braising
A
d) Braising
These meats are usually less tender cuts and require a moist method of cooking to improve tenderness
24
Q
Genetically engineering food is a process by which scientists alter the gene make up of certain types of foods to achieve a certain characteristic. All of the following are potential benefits of genetically engineered food except:
a) A faster growing food supply, thus greater food production
b) Food that tastes better and is more nutritious
c) Shorter shelf life
d) Reductions in pesticide use
A
c) Shorter shelf life
Genetic engineering may increase shelf life
25
Egg yolks used in lemon meringue pie primarily serve as which of the following agents
a) Emulsifying agent
b) Coloring agent
c) Thickening agent
d) Textural agent
b) Coloring agent
Lemon does not provide the same rich yellow color as eggs.
As a whole eggs can act as an emulsifying agent, thickening agent, and textural agent.
26
Which of the following is not an ingredient in baking powder
a) Corn starch
b) Sodium bicarbonate
c) Cream of tartar
d) Potassium bicarbonate
d) Potassium bicarbonate
Baking powder consists of 3 ingredients: Corn starch, baking soda (Sodium bicarb) and cream tartar.
27
Two men are the same age and weight, but one man is 5'7" and the other is 6' tall. What can be determined about their resting metabolic rate
a) Their resting metabolic rate is about the same
b) The resting metabolic rate is higher for the tall man
c) The RMR is higher for the shorter man
d) It is difficult to draw conclusions based on that information
b) The resting metabolic rate is higher for the tall man
28
Which of the following statements is not true about soluble fiber
a) As soluble fiber is digested, it becomes gel like
b) Soluble fiber works to slow the digestive process.
c) Soluble fiber works to add bulk to the stool and helps move food through the GI tract faster
d) Soluble fiber may help lower cholesterol levels.
c) Soluble fiber works to add bulk to the stool and helps move food through the GI tract faster
Insoluble fiber works to slow the transit of food.
29
Chronic alcoholics are most likely to be deficient in the following nutrients except:
a) Magnesium
b) Thiamin
c) Folate
d) Vitamin C
d) Vitamin C
30
The end product of sucrose digestion is
a) Glucose and fructose
b) Glucose and galactose
c) Glucose and mannose
d) 2 glucose molecules
a) Glucose and fructose
31
Protein digestion begins in the:
a) jejunum
b) Stomach
c) Small intestine
d) Brush border
b) Stomach
32
A deficiency of vitamin D results in:
a) Rickets
b) Night blindness
c) Scurvy
d) Beriberi
a) Rickets
33
All of the following are true about vitamin C except:
a) The best food sources of vitamin c are fruits, such as citrus fruits, and vegetables such as broccoli.
b) Cigarette smokers should consume at least 100mg/day of vitamin C
c) Deficiency of vitamin c can result in issues with wound healing, bleeding gums, tooth loss, and leg pain.
d) The RDA is 75mg for women and 100mg for men
d) The RDA is 75mg for women and 100mg for men
The RDA is 75mg for women over 19, but the amount increases if they are lactating or pregnant.
The RDA for men is 90mg/day
34
Which of the following choices indicates nutritional risk
a) A nursing home patient stable on a tube feeding regimen
b) Diarrhea for 1 week with a 10lb weight loss
c) A 3 year old girl with a sore throat and poor appetite for 2 days
d) A 21 year old male who is drinking protein shakes to build muscle
b) Diarrhea for 1 week with a 10lb weight loss
35
A nutrition screen must be completed by which of the following:
a) Registered dietitian
b) A registered dietetic technician
c) A nurse
d) A trained health professional.
d) A trained health professional.
36
Which of the following lab data would best indicate nutrition risk:
a) Fasting blood glucose level of 130mg/dL
b) Fasting cholesterol level of 199mg/dL
c) Serum albumin level of 3.5g/dL
d) Hematocrit level of 42%
a) Fasting blood glucose level of 130mg/dL
Normal FBG is 70-99mg/dL
Over 126mg/dL indicates diabetes
37
Which of the following statements are not true about a dietary history
a) Information for a dietary history can be obtained using a food diary recorded by the individual for a period of 3-7 days
b) A 24 hour recall is the most accurate way to obtain information about an individual's dietary history
c) A food frequency questionnaire can be a tool used to obtain information about an individual's dietary history as it determines how often a person eats certain foods
d) A nutrient intake analysis is a way to obtain information regarding a person's dietary history when they are hospitalized or are living in another situation where observations can be made about the type and amount of food consumed.
b) A 24 hour recall is the most accurate way to obtain information about an individual's dietary history
A 24 hr recall is helpful, but may not be very accurate
38
A BMI of 28 is considered to be
a) Underweight
b) Overweight
c) Obese
d) Normal weight
b) Overweight
39
Which of the following is a false statement about BMI
a) BMI is the best way to measure the amount of body fat on an individual
b) Men typically have less body fat than women even if the BMI's are the same
c) Competitive athlete's may have a higher BMI because they may have higher muscle mass
d) Although the BMI is calculated the same way, BMI's for children are interpreted differently than that of adults using age and gender specific percentiles
a) BMI is the best way to measure the amount of body fat on an individual
BMI takes into account both fat and muscle mass and is not able to differentiate between the two.
40
Anthropometric measurements for children should include
a) Weight for age, height or length for age and head circumference up to the age of 5.
b) Weight for age, skin-fold thickness and length or height for age
c)Weight for age, height or length for age and head circumference up to the age of 3.
d) Weight for age, skin fold thickness, height or length for age and head circumference up to the age of 3.
c) Weight for age, height or length for age and head circumference up to the age of 3.
41
All of the following are true about the MNA except:
a) It is a validated tool used for the screening and assessment in the over age 65 population
b) The MNA screens for malnutrition in those who are at risk for malnutrition
c) There is a short form to more quickly determine if a person is in good nutritional status and a longer form if a more detailed screen is required
d) Specialized training is required in order to be certified to administer this screening tool.
d) Specialized training is required in order to be certified to administer this screening tool.
42
All of the following are true about nutrition diagnosis except:
a) Nutrition diagnosis is when a nutritional issue is identified and labeled
b) A physician must make a nutrition diagnosis in order for the individual to receive nutritional care
c) A nutrition diagnosis is documented as problem-etiology-s/s
d) Standardized terminology is used to delineate nutrition diagnosis.
b) A physician must make a nutrition diagnosis in order for the individual to receive nutritional care
The RD or DTR (depending on scope of practice) must make the nutritional diagnosis
43
Potential nutrition diagnoses for an obese male with coronary heart disease may include all of the following except:
a) Food and nutrition related knowledge deficits
b) Physical inactivity
c) Excessive fat intake
d) Excessive hunger
d) Excessive hunger
Not appropriate terminology
44
Potential nutrition diagnoses for a patient with a fasting blood glucose level of 135mg/dL include
a) Alteration in metabolism (T1DM)
b) Alteration in metabolism (hyperglycemia)
c) Altered nutrition related lab values
d) Gestional Diabetes
c) Altered nutrition related lab values
T1DM, GDM, and hyperglycemia are all medical diagnoses.
45
The recommended amount of weight gain for an overweight pregnant woman is
a) 15-25lbs
b) 25-35lbs
c) 15lbs
d) 28-40lbs
a) 15-25lbs
46
Folic acid requirements during pregnancy are increased because of folic acid:
a) Deficiency causes glossitis
b) Helps prevent neural tube defects
c) Prevents pernicious anemia
d) Deficiency causes poor appetitie
b) Helps prevent neural tube defects
47
The best feeding plan for a normal 3month old infant is:
a) (8) 4oz bottles of 20cal/oz formula/day
b) (6) 5oz bottles of 20cal/oz formula/day
c)Breastfeeding on demand
d) Breastfeeding alternated w/20cal/oz formula throughout the day
c)Breastfeeding on demand
48
Feeding a preschooler is often challenging due to food jags, pickiness, or the child's attempts to assert independence. Which of the following does not describe an effective strategy for managing a preschooler's nutrition
a) The child should be made to sit at the table until the meal or snack is consumed in its entirety
b) Small servings of a variety of foods should be offered on a fairly regular schedule
c) Snacks and beverages should not be provided w/in 90min of a planned meal
d) The parents should not focus too heavily on what is consumed at each meal or snack because over the course of a day, the calorie intake will be fairly consistent if a variety of foods are offered.
a) The child should be made to sit at the table until the meal or snack is consumed in its entirety
49
Characteristics of the metabolic syndrome include all of the following: except:
a) Serum triglycerides greater than 150mg/dL
b) Serum glucose greater than 110mg/dL
c) Waist circumference greater than than 102cm in men and 88cm in women
d) Blood pressure greater than or equal to 140/90mm Hg
d) Blood pressure greater than or equal to 140/90mm Hg
Not part of the criteria to identify metabolic syndrome
50
The best initial nutrition intervention for a person w/ metabolic syndrome is:
a) Encouraging a 20% weight loss and at least 60min/day of exercise
b) Implementing the TLC diet and increasing physical activity to a minimum of 30 minutes/day
c) Encouraging a 5-10% weight loss and implementing the Dean Ornish diet
d) Smoking cessation and adding medications to reduce lipids
b) Implementing the TLC diet and increasing physical activity to a minimum of 30 minutes/day
51
What type of diet is used to treat celiac disease
a) Gluten free
b) Low fiber
c) Lactose free
d) High fiber
a) Gluten free
52
What is the recommended initial nutrition intervention for diverticulitis
a) High fiber diet w/ adequate fluid and exercise
b) High fat diet w/ moderate fiber
c) Chemically defined diet
d) Low fiber diet
d) Low fiber diet
53
How much protein is recommended for a patient with cirrhosis but without evidence of encephalopathy to maintain positive nitrogen balance
a) 0.5-0.6g/kg
b) 0.8-1.0g/kg
c) 1.2-1.3g/kg
d) 1.5g/kg
b) 0.8-1.0g/kg
For a patient with negative nitrogen balance without encephalopathy the patient may need 1.2-1.3g/kg. If the patient is stressed they may need 1.5g/kg
54
The nutritional priority for a patient with newly diagnosed T1DM is:
a) Weight loss
b) Determination of medication regimen then establishment of a meal plan
c) Establishment of a meal plan then coordination of the medication regimen to match the meal plan and exercise habits
d) Placement of an insulin pump
c) Establishment of a meal plan then coordination of the medication regimen to match the meal plan and exercise habits
55
A woman with T2DM who is overweight and takes an oral agent but otherwise has good blood glucose control asks you if she can include 1-2 glasses of wine with each night's dinner. The best response is:
a) A 5oz glass of wine may be consumed
b) Alcohol is not recommended for anyone with diabetes
c) It is okay to have a glass or two of wine as long as she omits 2 carbs from her dinner
d) She should decide for herself if she wants to drink wine, but if she does, she should take it on an empty stomach
a) A 5oz glass of wine may be consumed
56
All of the following would be potential interventions for a patient with T2DM except:
a) Weight loss
b) Increasing physical activity
c) Reducing calorie intake
d) Chromium supplementation
d) Chromium supplementation
57
How many g of carbohydrates are in the following breakfast: 4oz OJ, 2 slices of whole wheat toast w/ 2 tsp margarine and 1tbsp jelly, 1/2 cup oatmeal w/ 1/2 of a banana, small cup of black coffee.
a) 50g
b)60g
c) 90g
d) 120g
c) 90g
4oz OJ and banana=15g each
1 slice of bread and 1/2 cup oatmeal=15g each
One tbsp jelly=15g
58
Intervention aimed to modify which of the following risk factors will reduce cardiovascular risk
a) Age, cigarette smoking, obesity
b) High fat diet, HTN, cigarette smoking
c) Diabetes, homocysteine, alcohol consumption
d) Family history, LDL cholesterol, physical inactivity
b) High fat diet, HTN, cigarette smoking
Risk factors that are modifiable
59
Which of the following are examples of omega 3 polyunsaturated fatty acids
a) Palmitic acid and lauric acid
b) Eicosapentaenoic acid and docosahexaenoic acid
c) Linoleic acid and linolenic acid
d) Arachidonic acid and oleic acid
b) Eicosapentaenoic acid and docosahexaenoic acid
60
All of the following are true about trans fatty acids except:
a) Trans fats are created through hydrogenation, which is a process that helps to prevent PUFA from becoming rancid
b) Trans fats are found in commercially prepared baked goods, fried foods, processed foods and some margarines
c) The food industry has begun to alter the manufacturing of many products to omit trans fats, and many restaurants have stopped using partially hydrogenated oils
d) Trans fats lower HDL levels and increase total cholesterol but have no effect of LDL
d) Trans fats lower HDL levels and increase total cholesterol but have no effect of LDL
Increase HDL levels and lower LDL levels and increase total cholesterol
61
A patient in the hospital recovering from a heart attack wants assistance with his menu selection. He is looking to increase fiber in his diet as he has learned that certain types of fiber more efficiently reduce cholesterol levels. Which of the following foods would be the most beneficial:
a) Oatmeal
b) Wheat bran
c) Carrots
d) Whole wheat bread
a) Oatmeal
62
Which of the following best describes the guidelines for the Therapeutic Lifestyle Changes (TLC) diet:
a) Limit Na to 3,000mg/day, calories from fat to less than 35% of total kcal, with those from sat fat less than 10%, cholesterol less than 300mg/day and sufficient kcal to achieve or maintain a healthy body weight.
b) Limit Na to 3,000mg/day, kcal from fat less than 30% of total kcal, with those from sat fat making up less than 5%, cholesterol to less than 200mg/day and sufficient kcal to achieve or maintain a healthy body weight
c) Limit Na to 2400mg/day, kcal from fat to 25-25% of total kcal, with those from sat fat less than 7%, cholesterol to less than 200mg/day, and sufficient kcal to achieve or maintain a healthy body weight
d) Limit Na to 2400mg/day, kcal from fat to less than 30% total kcal, with those from sat fat less than 10%, cholesterol to less than 200mg/day, and sufficient kcal to achieve or maintain a healthy body weight.
c) Limit Na to 2400mg/day, kcal from fat to 25-25% of total kcal, with those from sat fat less than 7%, cholesterol to less than 200mg/day, and sufficient kcal to achieve or maintain a healthy body weight
63
Which of the following is the next step for an individual who does not want to begin medication to lower blood cholesterol but has not had success with the TLC diet:
a) Consume less than 20% of total kcal from fat, with less than 10% coming from sat sources, and less than 200mg cholesterol/day
b) Consume less than 15% of total kcal from fat, with less than 8% coming from sat sources, and less than 100mg cholesterol/day
c) Consume less than 10% of total kcal from fat, with less than 5% coming from sat sources, and less than 50mg cholesterol/day
d) Consume less than 10% of total kcal from fat, with less than 3% coming from sat sources, and less than 5mg cholesterol/day.
d) Consume less than 10% of total kcal from fat, with less than 3% coming from sat sources, and less than 5mg cholesterol/day.
64
The purpose of nutrition screening includes all of the following except:
a) Identifying risk factors known to be associated with nutritional issues
b) Identifying individuals who are malnourished.
c) Assessing body mass index
d) To more efficiently identify individuals who require a full nutrition assessment.
c) Assessing body mass index
BMI may be utilized in the screening process, but this is not generally the purpose
65
What lifestyle change is most beneficial to a person with HTN
a) Limiting alcohol to 1oz/day for men or 1/2oz/day for women
b) Lose weight if overweight
c) Lower sodium intake to less than 2400mg/day
d) Increase intake of calcium, mag, and potassium
b) Lose weight if overweight
The risk for developing HTN is 6X higher for those who are overweight
66
As a NDTR, you are assisting in a program targeting overweight adolescents at risk for developing HTN. Which of the following best describes appropriate goals for the program.
a) Address lifestyle modifications such as weight control, reducing Na intake, and increasing physical activity that are known to control BP.
b) Weight loss
c) BP monitoring
d) Teach the adolescents appropriate forms of physical activity in order to promote positive exercise habit.
a) Address lifestyle modifications such as weight control, reducing Na intake, and increasing physical activity that are known to control BP.
67
Which of the following lists best supports a potassium rich diet
a) Cucumbers, mushrooms, apples, peanuts
b) Romaine lettuce, Pears, walnuts, yogurts
c) Sweet potatoes, spinach, soybeans, apricots.
d) Green beans, carrots, pineapple, hard candy
c) Sweet potatoes, spinach, soybeans, apricots.
68
As an NDTR you are assisting a 78 year old man with congestive heart failure with meal selections. He has gained 10lbs over the past week and is starting Lasix. Which of the following lists reasonable goals for this patient in terms of meal selection.
a) 2000-3000mg Na/day, adequate potassium, and mild fluid restriction
b) No add salt diet w/ 2000mg potassium and 500ml fluid restriction
c) 1500mg Na, 4,000mg potassium, and 2,000mL fluid/day
d) 500mg Na with 2,000mg potassium, 1000mL fluid restriction.
a) 2000-3000mg Na/day, adequate potassium, and mild fluid restriction
69
The main long term nutritional priorities for post-cardiac transplant patients likely include all of the following except:
a) Monitoring and managing glucose intolerance
b) Instituting a high protein diet to prevent catabolism due to steroids
c) Weight management
d) Cholesterol management.
b) Instituting a high protein diet to prevent catabolism due to steroids
70
A 45y/o woman is following the DASH diet. She is consuming 1800kcal/day. Which of the following sets of nutritional goals is appropriate for her based on the DASH diet guidelines.
a) 60g total fat, with up to 20g sat fat, 70g protein, 250g carbs, 2300mg Na, 200mg cholesterol, 20g fiber.
b) 50g total fat w/ up to 20g sat fat, 90g protein, 250g carbs, 1500mg Na, 100mg cholesterol, 25g fiber
c) 90g total fat w/ up to 25g sat fat, 90g protein, 270g carbs, 2300mg Na, 300mg cholesterol, 30g fiber
d) 55g of total fat w/ up to 12g sat fat, 80g protein, 250g carbs, 2300mg Na, 150mg cholesterol, 30g fiber
d) 55g of total fat w/ up to 12g sat fat, 80g protein, 250g carbs, 2300mg Na, 150mg cholesterol, 30g fiber
71
Outcome measures for nutrition intervention for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease may include all of the following except
a) Improvement in nutritional status
b) Improvement in activities of daily living
c) Improvement in renal function
d) Improvement in weight status
c) Improvement in renal function
This outcome wouldn't typically be measured unless renal dysfunction was preexisting.
72
How much protein does the National Kidney Foundation recommend that a patient w/ end stage renal disease who has not yet started to receive dialysis treatments consume daily
a) 0.5g/kg
b) 0.6g/kg
c)1g/kg
d) 1.2g/kg
0.6g/kg
73
A side effect of chemotherapy is mucositis and xerostomia. This can impact nutritional status because
a) Weight loss can occur due to nausea and vomiting
b) Food intake is reduced due to constipation and abdominal pain
c) Anorexia, reduced food intake and weight loss, can occur due to mouth pain and dryness
d) Weight loss can occur due to dysphagia
c) Anorexia, reduced food intake and weight loss, can occur due to mouth pain and dryness
74
Possible nutrition interventions for a child with cancer who is not eating enough include all of the following except:
a) Serve small meals and snacks throughout the day capitalizing on the times when the child is feeling hungry and wants to eat
b) Encourage liquids mostly between meals because drinking a lot of fluid with meals may make the child feel too full
c) Let the child help make the food they will eat and have friends over to eat with the child
d) Serve meals on a tight schedule because missing a meal will set the child back too far.
d) Serve meals on a tight schedule because missing a meal will set the child back too far
75
A 78y/o man is recovering from a stroke. The SLP has recommended a NDD Level 2 diet for him. This diet consists of:
a) No restrictions on consistency or texture
b) Foods that are softer in texture but require more ability to chew
c) Moist, semisolid foods that require some chewing ability
d) Puree foods with pudding like consistency and minimal chewing ability is required
c) Moist, semisolid foods that require some chewing ability
76
You are working at the local health department initiating health promotion programs. Which of the following departments of the Department of Health and Human services may provide dietary guidance for program development
a) Dietary reference intake
b) Healthy people 2020
c) NHANES
d) Dietary guidelines for americans
b) Healthy people 2020
77
As a NDTR, you are planning menus for a nursing home. Which of the following tools are you likely to use during this process
a) Dietary reference intake
b) Recommended dietary allowances
c) Tolerable Upper limits
d) Estimated average requirements
a) Dietary reference intake
78
The main highlights of the 2005 dietary guidelines for Americans include all of the following except:
a) Achieve and maintain a healthy body weight and incorporate at least 60min of moderate exercise to help with weight management
b) Limit fat intake to 20-35% of total kcal, with less than 10% of fat intake from saturated sources, and limit the intake of trans fatty acids.
c) Consume plenty of fruits, veg, and whole grains to protect against certain chronic diseases
d) Eat less than 2300mg/day of Na consume 3 cups/day of low fat or fat free dairy products
c) Consume plenty of fruits, veg, and whole grains to protect against certain chronic diseases
79
Which of the following physical conditions would not be considered a nutritional risk factor
a) Obesity
b) stage 4 decubitus ulcer
c) Cancer
d) Fractured femur
d) Fractured femur
80
While serving as a NDTR, you are tasked with visiting patients in a LTC facility during meal time in order to observe daily food intake. Which of the following observations are you least likely to have during these meal rounds.
a) A patient with dementia consumes less than 50% breakfast and lunch during a 2 day period
b) A patient who is s/p major cardiac surgery is not able to effectively use utensils provided to self feed
c) A patient who is ordered supplemental beverages with meals in order to increase caloric intake does not drink the supplements during the 2 day observation
d) A patient recovering from a stroke appears to tolerate a puree diet and may be able to tolerate an advance to a soft diet.
d) A patient recovering from a stroke appears to tolerate a puree diet and may be able to tolerate an advance to a soft diet.
Making swallow recommendations is hard to do by just observing, and is more a SLP job.
81
Documentation developed to facilitate the nutrition care process is called
a) ADIME
b) SOAP
c) PES
d) DAR
a) ADIME
82
Which of the following is not a true statement about the pancreas
a) The pancreas secretes insulin and glucagon
b) Pancreatic enzymes are secreted when food reaches the stomach
c) The pancreas is one of the organs affected by CF
d) Tumors in the pancreas are highly resectable and have a favorable cure rate.
d) Tumors in the pancreas are highly resectable and have a favorable cure rate.
83
All of the following statements are true about SNAP except:
a) To qualify one's gross monthly income must fall at or below 130% poverty levels or 100% of the poverty level for net monthly income
b) Applicants must have no discernable assets or money in bank accounts
c) Children automatically qualify for free school breakfast and lunch programs if they are receiving benefits from SNAP
d) This program was formerly called the food stamp program and includes nutrition education services.
b) Applicants must have no discernable assets or money in bank accounts
84
Which of the following choices represent acceptable food selections for a mother who is using a WIC EBT for herself and her breastfeeding infant
a) Fresh fruits and vegetables, white bread, whole milk, tofu
b) Yogurt, cheese, peanut butter, orange drink
c) White potatoes, rice milk, corn flakes, canned tuna
d) Oatmeal, chocolate milk, eggs, canned kidney beans.
d) Oatmeal, chocolate milk, eggs, canned kidney beans.
85
According to the Stages of change model, an individual who is trying to lose weight but continues to provide reasons why it is difficult for him to make the appropriate changes falls in which of the following stages:
a) Contemplation
b) Preparation
c) Action
d) Relapse
a) Contemplation
86
A client you are working with to reduce her cholesterol frequently interrupts you during the session and makes comments, such as "I am trying to make changes, but I have been under a lot of stress lately," or responds with, "Yes, but...." is displaying what type of behavior
a) Ready to change
b) Unsure about change
c) Resistance to change
d) Contemplating change
c) Resistance to change
87
Which of the following is least likely to occur during a counseling session if a client is ready to make dietary changes
a) Mutual identification of potential changes that can be made
b) Preparing an action plan together
c) Identification of potential barriers
d) Telling the client what changes need to be made
d) Telling the client what changes need to be made
88
The motivational interviewing style used during nutrition counseling includes all of the following characteristics except:
a) Empathy
b) Encouragement
c) Reflective listening
d) Rewards and reinforcement
d) Rewards and reinforcement
89
Which of the following strategies is most likely to have the best nutrition counseling outcomes
a) Cognitive restructuring
b) Self-monitoring
c) Structured meals
d) Social support
b) Self-monitoring
90
As a DTR, you serve as the evening shift supervisor at a hospital. The food service director asks you to join a collaborative training to learn how the kitchen functions over a period of several months. The training objective is for you to gain familiarity with and competence in the key kitchen positions so that you may better supervise and assist employees. What type of training is this
a) Adult
b) On the job
c) Group
d) Self directed
b) On the job
91
All of the following are true about diversity training in the workplace, except:
a) Diversity training deals only with gender and race
b) Diversity should be part of an organization's culture so everyone is treated fairly and equally
c) Interpersonal skills, on the part of both the organization and individual employees, are an important aspect of diversity training
d) Diversity training is necessary even in a non-diverse environment as each individual is different
a) Diversity training deals only with gender and race
92
At the start of a training session, employees are asked to break into small groups and share their 5 favorite musicians or movies. This is an example of:
a) Icebreaker
b) Small talk
c) Time killer
d) Team enhancement
a) Icebreaker
93
Which of the following strategies is not recommended for imparting nutrition information to a group of individuals with heart disease
a) Provide a limited amount of information at one time to avoid overwhelming the group
b) Present the information in clear, concise language in the simplest and least complex way possible
c) Ensure written information is geared to a high school comprehension level
d) Supplement orally presented information with visual aids
c) Ensure written information is geared to a high school student
94
The type of menu that provides at least two choices in each menu category is called
a) Static
b) Nonselective
c) Semi selective
d) Selective
d) Selective
95
Which of the following is not an advantage of a cycle menu
a) A cycle menu increases variety
b) Cycle menus facilitate staff vacation and leave scheduling
c) Cycle menus allow greater ease when forecasting and purchasing food
d) Equipment use can be maximized if the cycle menu is planned appropriately
a) A cycle menu increases variety
96
A dinner of broiled fish steamed rice, cauliflower, bread and butter, and tapioca pudding with whipped cream is planned for a friday evening at the nursing home. What food characteristic is most lacking.
a) Texture
b) Flavor
c) Color
d) Consistency
c) Color
97
The food service director of an extended care facility wishes to review changes in the food served to residents with the DTR. All of the following tools are needed to assist with this task except:
a) A diet manual
b) A master menu
c) Information regarding the number and types of modified diets served
d) The production schedule
d) The production schedule
98
The concept encouraging a more personal presentation of menus to hospitalized patients is called
a) Printed menu
b) Spoken menu
c) Menu board
d) Master menu
b) Spoken menu
99
As a DTR in a rehab hospital, you are responsible for determining customer satisfaction with meals. Some of the ways you may accomplish this include all the following except:
a) Comment cards or surveys
b) Observational surveys
c) Eavesdropping
d) Plate waste studies
c) Eavesdropping
100
Food that is purchased from an instate vendor and shipped intrastate is subject to all of the following regulations except:
a) USDA
b) FDA
c) Food and nutrition service
d) All local and state regulations if they are at least the equivalent of the federal regulations.
c) Food and nutrition service
101
The type of federal regulation that defines bittersweet chocolate must contain at least 35% cocoa butter with a 30-35% fat content is called
a) Standards of fill
b) Standards of identity
c) Standards of quality
d) Standards of labeling
b) Standards of identity
102
Which of the following is not essential information to consider during vendor selection
a) Vender's ability to reliably meet contract specifications
b) Vender's emergency/disaster delivery policy
c) Attractiveness of the vender's website
d) Vender's credit/refund policies delivered products that do not meet specifications (spoiled/damaged goods)
c) Attractiveness of the vender's website
103
Which of the following grades of beef is the least desirable:
a) Prime
b) Choice
c) Select
d) Standard
d) Standard
104
All of the following are true about USDA grades for processed fruit and vegetable products except:
a) The grade standards are mandatory
b) The grade standards are voluntary
c) Standards are defined in terms of attributes such as color, appearance, character, flavor, odor, etc.
d) Grades may consist of US grade A, B, C or substandard
a) The grade standards are mandatory
105
During inventory of a community hospital kitchen, a DTR notes that there are 2 cases of canned peaches. He decides to order 1 case of canned peaches. Which of the following is the most likely inventory scenario:
a) According to the par stock system of inventory, the par level for canned peaches must be 2 cases
b) According to the par stock system of inventory, the par level must be 3 cases
c) According to the mini max system of inventory, the safety stock level must be 2 and the maximum inventory level must be 5
d) The DTR is basing the decision to purchase another case solely on instinct.
b) According to the par stock system of inventory, the par level must be 3 cases
106
Which of the following statements about the receiving process is false.
a) The receiving area should be close to the delivery docks
b) Each delivery should be visually checked against the purchase order and the invoice
c) Frozen items should be placed immediately in the freezer before inspection
d) Cases or crates should be randomly opened to verify contents
c) Frozen items should be placed immediately in the freezer before inspection
107
You enter the dry food storage area and make a few observations. Which of the following would be the most concerning to you
a) The temperature is 68F
b) New orders are being place on top of existing inventory
c) Bags of rice are stored on shelves 8in above the floor
d) An open sack of flour is found in a covered and labeled plastic container.
b) New orders are being place on top of existing inventory
108
You are completing inventory in the walk in refrigerator. Which of the following should be discarded.
a) 2 day old leftover beef stew with a temperature of 40F
b) Hard cooked eggs cooked 5 days ago with a temperature of 39F
c) Tightly wrapped hard cheese that is 5 months old with a temperature of 40F
d) 4 day old ground beef with a temperature of 42F
d) 4 day old ground beef with a temperature of 42F
109
Which of the following terms means predicting the amount of food needed for a specific event
a) Production
b) Forecasting
c) Purchasing
d) Food scheduling
b) Forecasting
110
Which of the following is not an advantage of standardized recipes
a) Customers or patients can be assured that the menu item will not change each time it is served
b) Standardized recipes help to facilitate the forecasting, purchasing, and production processes
c) The recipes can easily be extended by the chef if additional food is required
d) Standardized recipes are necessary when using computerized systems because the reports use that format to communicate to various areas such as centralized ingredient area or purchasing
c) The recipes can easily be extended by the chef if additional food is required
111
If you are using the factor method to adjust a recipe that serves 8 to serve 50, which factor would you use to make the necessary adjustments
a) 6.25
b) 6
c) 7
d) 0.16
a) 6.25
Divide the desired yield by the actual yield= 50/8
112
Food that is prepared in a hospital kitchen: cooked, portioned, and assembled on tray line; and then served to patients is an example of what type of food service
a) Cook/freeze
b) Cook/chill
c) Cook/ Hot hold
d) Heat/serve
c) Cook/ Hot hold
113
Which of the following laws apply to a hospital cafeteria renovation
a) The rehabilitation act
b) The workforce investment act
c) The civil service reform act
d) The americans with disabilities act.
d) The Americans with disabilities act.
114
An individual has become ill 6 hours after eating at a salad bar buffet containing various cooked meats, cottage cheese, and potato salad. The symptoms are nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and severe abdominal cramping. The microorganism most likely responsible for this outbreak is
a) Clostridium botulinum
b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) E. coli
d) Campylobacter jejuni
b) Staphylococcus aureus
115
As the cafeteria manager, you notice that the hamburgers are not cooked to the proper temperature and are very rare on the inside. What are you most concerned about?
a) Salmonella
b) E. Coli
c) Bacillus cereus
d) Shigella
b) E. Coli
116
Which of the following groups are at the highest risk if listeriosis is contracted
a) Infants
b) Children aged 1-5
c) Older adults
d) Pregnant women
d) Pregnant women
117
Which of the following temperature ranges is known as the danger zone
a) 41-140
b) 35-145
c) 50-150
d) 40-120
a) 41-140
118
As the evening supervisor in the kitchen of a small nursing home, it is your job to verify the dish machine is operating correctly. Which of the following would concern you
a) Wash temperature of 140F
b) Rinse temperature of 165F
c) Dishes drying on racks to allow for air drying
d) Prewash water temperature of 120F
b) Rinse temperature of 165F
119
A food service aide has complained to you about frequently finding bloody tissues on one patients meal tray. How do you correct this
a) Tell the employee to remove the tissue and place it in the trash can
b) The employee should refuse to remove the tray from the room
c) Tell the employee not to worry and remove the tray from the room
d) Speak to the nurse about the situation so the tissue can be properly disposed. The employee should wear gloves to remove the tray from the room
d) Speak to the nurse about the situation so the tissue can be properly disposed. The employee should wear gloves to remove the tray from the room
120
Which of the following types of fire extinguishers should not be used on a grease fire
a) Foam
b) Sodium bicarbonate
c) Water
d) Carbon dioxide
c) Water
121
A woman and a man both interview for a cashier position in a hospital cafeteria. Both are hired for the job but the woman is paid 1.00 less/hr than the man. Identify the law that may be violated
a) Fair labor standards act
b) Equal pay act
c) Minimum wage act
d) Fair pay act
b) Equal pay act
122
Which of the following individuals is likely eligible for unemployment compensation under the social security act of 1935
a) A tray line worker who has been dismissed due to workforce reduction
b) A cook who using recreational drugs in the rest room during scheduled breaks
c) A DTR who voluntarily stopped showing up for work
d) A food service supervisor who has accepted a job requiring early morning hours but habitually comes in 1 hour late each day
a) A tray line worker who has been dismissed due to workforce reduction
123
Which of the following employment advertisement modes is least likely to effectively recruit a new food service director at a large, tertiary care hospital
a) Internet advertising on a Web site (Monster.com)
b) Internal sources
c) Recruitment agency
d) Advertising in a weekly local newspaper
d) Advertising in a weekly local newspaper
124
Retaining good employees is challenging. Which of the following is least likely to promote employee retention
a) Offering an excellent benefits package, including health insurance, life insurance, 401k etc
b) Rewarding employees for good performance with bonuses or consistent raises
c) Maintaining rigid scheduling because work comes first
d) Providing opportunities to learn new skills
c) Maintaining rigid scheduling because work comes first
125
A new dish machine is needed for the nursing home kitchen. The money purchase this piece of equipment will come from which part of the budget
a) Master
b) Operating
c) Capital
d) Cash
c) Capital
126
Labor costs in the hospital cafeteria have been over budget for several months due to overtime. Which of the following would not be an immediate solution to the problem
a) Dismiss a few employees
b) Review the operation to see if additional self serve stations can be implemented
c) Review the scheduling procedure to see if overtime is justified and see if some of the prep work can be moved to non peak hours
d) Determine if employees are being properly supervised and performing tasks appropriately.
a) Dismiss a few employees
127
In Maslow's Hierarchy of needs, which of the following needs must be met first:
a) Social
b) Safety
c) Self esteem
d) Physiological
d) Physiological
128
An employee attempts to provide input to his food service manager with regard to the workflow surrounding the prep area. The manager tells the employee that the necessary changes have been instituted and there is no room for discussion on this matter. This is an example of what type of leadership style
a) Democratic
b) Autocratic
c) Bureaucratic
d) Participative
b) Autocratic
129
Effective communication involves all of the following except:
a) Oral
b) Written
c) Action or demonstration
d) Grapevine
d) Grapevine
130
Which of the following would not be an example of good merchandising
a) Fruit in a plastic container in the refrigerator
b) Polished, clean, and unbruised apples, oranges, pears, and bananas in a larger wicker basket
c) Pre-plated fruit plates with interesting garnishes
d) Weekly featured fresh fruits with recipes, creative presentation of the fruit, such as ka-bobs, or a special fruit dip.
a) Fruit in a plastic container in the refrigerator
131
The hospital cafeteria has added Pizza Hut pizza and Boar's head deli meats to its employee menu. This is an example of
a) Marketing
b) Branding
c) Promotion planning
d) Mark up merchandising
b) Branding
132
Which of the following is not a JCAHO approved medical abbreviation
a) mg for milligram
b) ml for milliliter
c) Q.D for every day or daily
d) IV for intravenous
c) Q.D for every day or daily
It should be written out as every day or daily not QD
133
As a newly hired DTR in charge of the cafeteria, you are asked to participate in a food safety program sponsered by the NRA. The name of this program is
a) Federal food safety program
b) Food safety certificate program
c) iPura Food safety
d) ServSafe
d) ServSafe
134
A health inspector visits the hospital food service operation where you are a food service supervisor. As the only supervisor on duty at the time, which of the following should you not do during the inspection
a) Ask to see the inspector's credentials
b) Follow the inspector throughout the inspection, make notes of any violations found, and try to fix any small problems while the inspector is there
c) Sign the copy of the inspection
d) Refuse the inspection on the grounds that a manager level employee is not present for the inspection
d) Refuse the inspection on the grounds that a manager level employee is not present for the inspection
134
Which of the following scenarios would not raise red flags to a food service manager
a) A food service worker has a broken washing machine and has not had time to go to the laundromat to clean his uniforms
b) A food service worker comes to work without a fever but complains of allergies and congestion
c) A food service employee making sandwiches in the deli is sneezing frequently and often forgets to sneeze into her elbow
d) A cafeteria line server absentmindedly touches her head and face when no customers are being served
b) A food service worker comes to work without a fever but complains of allergies and congestion
135
Which of the following is not addressed in the FDA food code
a) Food service establishment flooring material characteristics
b) Specific dress code policies for food service personnel working in kitchens
c) Guideline for using ice to keep foods cool
d) Guideline for sinks used for hand washing
b) Specific dress code policies for food service personnel working in kitchens
136
JCAHO has implemented patient safety goals. All of the following are part of these goals, except:
a) The use of 2 patient identifiers
b) Prevention of decubitus ulcers
c) Improvement in the safety of all medications
d) Improvement in the communication between healthcare providers
c) Improvement in the safety of all medications
137
Which of the following is the term that means comparing one's performance with the performance of another
a) Outcomes management
b) Benchmarking
c) Performance outcome
d) Resource measurement
b) Benchmarking
138
JCAHO uses which of the following to assess patient care during a survey
a) Tracer methodology
b) Chart review
c) Audits
d) Standards interpretation
a) Tracer methodology
139
In the quality improvement process, which of the following is a difficult outcome to measure
a) The % of patients who had a nutrition screening completed within 24 hours
b) The number of patients who had a nutrition consult triggered because of low serum albumin on admission
c) The % of patients who meet 75% of their nutrition goals each day
The % of patients receiving nutrition support through the most appropriate route
c) The % of patients who meet 75% of their nutrition goals each day
140
The institute of medicine has identified 6 quality aims. These include all of the following except:
a) Patient safety and timeliness
b) Patient centered and equity
c) Effectiveness and efficiency
d) Competency and relevance
d) Competency and relevance
141
Which of the following is not a true statement about the American Dietetics Association's standards of professional performance
a) The standards apply only to RDs
b) The standards apply to all RDs and DTRs
c) The standards were written based on specific training levels of RDs and DTRs as well as the level of responsibility of each.
d) The standards address 6 areas of professional behavior, including communication and quality of practice
a) The standards apply only to RDs
DTR Exam
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