EENT (5%) Flashcards

(60 cards)

1
Q

Which of the following lifestyle modifications is recommended for Meniere disease?

a) Cessation of nicotine-containing products
b) Salt restrictions
c) Caffeine restrictions
d) Alcohol restrictions
e) All of the above

A

All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following treatment regimen is most appropriate for labyrinthitis?

– Intratympanic gentamycin
– HCTZ and triamterene
– Oral prednisone
– Azithromycin

A

Oral prednisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the appropriate daily maintenance therapy for Meniere disease?

A

HCTZ and triamterene

(Daily maintenance with diuretics may reduce the frequency of attacks of Meniere disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Labyrinthitis patients are at increased risk of developing ________ following an infection.

A

Panic disorder and BPPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the classic triad of Meniere disease?

A

Tinnitus
Hearing loss
Vertigo (episodic)

** All the above are also seen in Labyrinthitis b/c the inflammation is located throughout the entire vestibular canal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a spontaneous postinfectious inflammation affecting only the vestibular nerve?

A

Vestibular neuritis

** In vestibular neuritis, the inflammation affects only the vestibular nerve, so the symptom is only vertigo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the diagnostic study of choice in a patient with > 3 months of unilateral symptoms or a middle ear effusion who has not improved after 12 weeks of intranasal corticosteroids and systemic antihistamines?

A

CT with contrast of head and neck

  • Due to suspicion of neoplasm that may be obstructing the eustachian tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a common presentation seen in patients with patulous (open) eustachian tube dysfunction (ETD)?

A

Unusually loud hearing of person’s own voice

  • patients hear themselves talk loudly through the open ET aka autophony

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the differentiating factor between labyrinthitis and vestibular neuritis?

A

The presence or absence of hearing loss and tinnitus

  • Vestibular neuritis only has vertigo
  • Labyrinthitis and Meniere has all 3
    (hearing loss, tinnitus, vertigo)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

An acoustic neuroma arises from what anatomic structure?

A

Myelin covering the vestibular portion of cranial nerve VIII.

  • Acoustic neuromas arise from schwann cells that are part of the myelin covering the vestibular portion of the eight cranial nerve
  • Acoustic neuromas = vestibular schwannomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Only 5% of patients present with BILATERAL acoustic neuromas. Almost all of these patients tend to have this systemic condition

A

Neurofibromatosis type 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the risk factors for recurrent AOM (acute otitis media)

A

Breastfeeding
Attending daycare
Cigarette smoking exposure
Male gender

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the topical otic medication of choice for the treatment of otitis externa and tympanic membrane (TM) perforation?

A

Ciprofloxacin and dexamethasone
(Ofloxacin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the leading pathogen responsible for causing Acute Otitis Media?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the imaging of choice for diagnosis of cholesteatoma?

A

CT
(High resolution CT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a known risk factor for the development of acoustic neuroma?

A

Leisure noise exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following is NOT a clinical finding in acute otitis externa?

a) Pain with tragus or auricle movement
b) Discharge from affected ear
c) Fever
d) Decreased hearing

A

Fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

40yo F presents w/ fasting glucose >126mg/dL, no visual or medical complaints. Visual acuity is 20/20 OU.
When should this patient be referred to ophthalmologist?

A

Immediately at the time of this visit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Posterior blepharitis is an inflammatory process that involves which structure?

A

Inner lid at the level of the meibomian glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Fundoscopy will identify ____ in the early states of hypertensive retinopathy?

A

Arteriolar constriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the first-line treatment for mild cases of dacryocystitis?

A

Clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A 27yo with suspected corneal abrasion should be treated with which of the following medications?

  • Topical NSAIDS
  • Topical antibiotics
  • Oral antibiotics
  • Topical anesthetic drops
A

Topical antibiotics

  • to prevent infection to the affected eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Children who develop nasal polyps should be tested for?

A

Cystic fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which medication has been known to induce rhinitis?

  • Antihistamines
  • Antipsychotics
  • Opioids
  • Oral contraceptive pills
A

Oral contraceptive pills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Allergic rhinitis is which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
Type I hypersensitivity reaction
26
What is the most common presentation or symptom in patients with nasal polyps?
Nasal obstruction
27
What is the first-line medication indicated in patients with allergic rhinitis?
Nasal steroid
28
What is the imaging study of choice for nasal polyps?
Nonenhanced coronal CT scan
29
Viral rhinitis typically resolves within what time frame?
10 days
30
Which of these symptoms is most concerning for head and neck cancer? - Nausea - Decreased sense of smell - Unexplained otalgia - Dental caries
Unexplained otalgia
31
Which test is indicated if you suspect rhinitis containing CSF?
Beta-2 Transferrin
32
36yo F presents with 12 days of sinus pressure, nasal congestion, purulent nasal drainage, and halitosis. What organism is the most likely cause of her infection?
H. influenzae
33
What is the diagnostic imaging of choice for a patient with extensive nasal and facial trauma?
CT scan
34
Which of the following is responsible for head and neck cancers increasingly occurring in nonsmoking, nondrinking young adults? - Gonorrhea - Chlamydia - HPV - Herpes simplex virus
HPV
35
If an anterior bleeding source is visualized, first-line treatment should include?
Cautery using sliver nitrate sticks
36
What type of visualization or imaging should be used to confirm the presence of an inorganic nasal foreign body?
Direct otoscopic visualization
37
What is the preferred treatment approach for a 2yo with an occlusive bead in the right nare?
Positive pressure "parent's kiss"
38
What is the appropriate management of a septal hematoma?
Immediate incision and drainage with packing
39
Which of the following is the most common patient presentation of an inorganic nasal foreign body? - Black nasal discharge - Difficulty breathing - Facial pain and/or swelling - History concerning for foreign body insertion
History concerning for foreign body insertion
40
What is considered the best treatment for chronic rhinosinusitis (CRS) ?
Daily saline irrigation
41
What is the imaging study of choice for head and neck cancers?
Contrast CT scan
42
What is the most common causative organism of epiglottitis?
Haemophilus influenzae type B (Hib)
43
What is the most common bacteria that causes cavities?
Streptococcus mutans (S. mutans)
44
Pt with sore throat and fever. 2 days later rash appears. On exam, pastia lines and circumoral pallor are noted. Labs came back positive for antistreptolysin O (ASO) titer. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Scarlet fever ## Footnote * pastia lines and circumoral pallor are suggestive of scarlet fever caused by group A B-hemolytic streptococcal infection * Strawberry tongue is also commonly seen in Scarlet Fever
45
What is the classic radiographic finding seen on lateral neck XR in acute epiglotittis?
Thumb-print sign
46
What is the most appropriate management for leukoplakia?
Surgical removal with serial monitoring ## Footnote * must be monitored b/c leukoplakia can progress to SCC
47
A potential complication of deep neck infections is?
Mediastinitis
48
Most common pathogen that causes bacterial parotitis?
S. aureus
49
A genetic defect in this gene accounts for ~ 50% of all cases of age-related macular degeneration (AMD)
Complement Factor H gene
50
Giant cell arteritis is usually associated with
CRAO (Central Retinal Artery Occlusion)
51
Glaucoma is usually associated with
CRVO (Central Retinal Vein Occlusion)
52
Hypercoagulable states are associated with
both CRAO and CRVO (both central retinal artery occlusion and central retinal vein occlusion)
53
Most common cause of Optic Neuritis is
Multiple Sclerosis (MS)
54
Allergic rhinitis is an -------- mast cell degranulation.
Immunoglobulin E (IgE)
55
Allergic rhinitis is a -------- hypersensitive reaction following acute or chronic exposure to the allergen involved.
Type I
56
Posterior epistaxis generally arises from the posterior nasal cavity via branches of the sphenopalatine arteries at an area known as ?
Woodruff plexus
57
What A1c level is considered significant for diagnosis of T2DM
A1c >= 6.5% ## Footnote * and fasting glucose > 126
58
What are some common ototoxic medications ?
NSAIDS Aminoglycoside antibiotics Loop diuretics Antimalarials Chemotherapy drugs
59
Painless vision loss after seeing "curtain drop" in the eye is likely ?
Retinal detachment
60
What is a common risk factor for foreign-body aspiration in children?
Underdeveloped or immature dentition