FINALS: Passmed > Endo > Flashcards

Endo Flashcards

(65 cards)

Study These Flashcards
1
Q

Flushing, diarrhoea, bronchospasm, tricuspid stenosis, hypotension, pellagra →
Ix?
Tx?

A

CARCinoid:
- Cutaneous flushing
- Asmathic wheezing
- RHF (tricuspid valve)
- Cramping & diarrhoea

carcinoid with liver mets
urinary 5-HIAA
somatostatin analogues e.g. octreotide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Acromegaly is associated with which heart condition

A

cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In type 1 diabetics, recommend monitoring blood glucose __________ (frequency)______

A

at least 4 times a day, including before each meal and before bed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

liraglutide, exenatide are

A

GLP-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

___(drug)______ reduces cerebral oedema

A

dexamethasone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

elderly man admitted to hospital with pneumonia
TSH normal, T4 reduced
what do you do?

A

nothing, sick euthyroid is common in the elderly and unwell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Headaches, amenorrhoea, bitemporal superior quadrantanopia–>

A

polactinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Addisonian crisis- tx?

A

IV hydrocortisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

how often must T1 diabetics monitor their blood glucose?

A

at least 4 times a day, including before each meal and before bed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

tx for bilateral adrenocortical hyperplasia?

A

aldosterone antagonist e.g. spironolactone (cant do surgery as cant completely remove pts ability to produce aldosterone and cortisol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Endocrine parameters reduced in stress response:

A

Insulin
Testosterone
Oestrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

triad of sweating, headaches, and palpitations in association with severe hypertension - Ix?

A

Phaeochromocytoma - plasma and urinary metanephrines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

pioglitazone is C/I in

A

HF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The early stages of diabetic nephropathy are associated with________, in contrast to most other causes of CKD

A

enlarged kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what BMI does someone have to be to qualify for GLP memetic tx?

A

35

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what can you use to differentiate between the different types of diabetes?

A
  • c-peptide levels
  • diabetic specific antibody levels (ab to glutamic acid decarboxylase or anti-GAD)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Thyrotoxic storm is treated with ___________________________________

A

beta blockers, propylthiouracil and hydrocortisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

clues that it’s secondary HTN and not primary

A
  • persistently high or malignant blood pressure
  • labile blood pressure measurements
  • young age and electrolyte abnormalities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is tertiary hyperparathyoidism?

A

Tertiary hyperparathyroidism usually occurs after prolonged secondary hyperparathyroidism – the
glands become autonomous, and so produce excessive PTH even after the cause of hypocalcaemia (in this case, CKD 4) has been corrected; this then causes the hypercalcaemia that typifies tertiary hyperparathyroidism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Hyperparathyroid: which disease presents with

  1. Raised PTH, raised Ca, low phosphate
  2. Raised PTH, low/normal Ca, raised Phosphate, low vitamin D
  3. Raised/normal Ca, raised PTH, low/normal phosphate, normal/low vit D, raised ALP
A

primary
secondary
tertiary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. complication of treating hyperNa
  2. complication of treating hypoNa
A
  1. cerebral oedeoma
  2. Central pontine myelinolysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

how to distinguish between unilateral adenoma and bilateral hyperplasia in Conn’s?

A

adrenal venous blood sampling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Boerhaave’s syndrome

A

transmural oesophageal perforation secondary to an episode of forceful emesis

This condition typically presents with a triad of vomiting/retching; severe retrosternal chest pain, typically radiating to the back and subcutaneous emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what abx increases risk of cranial HTN?

A

doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
All proximal scaphoid pole fractures require ________
surgical fixation
26
The PTH level in primary hyperparathyroidism may be ___________
normal
27
features of acromegaly
- coare facial apperance - spade-like hands - increase in shoe size - large tongue, prognathism, interdental spaces - excessive sweating and oily skin - features of pituitary tumour: hypopituitarism, headaches, bitemporal hemianopia - galactorrhoea
28
complications of acromegaly
hypertension diabetes cardiomyopathy colorectal cancer
29
Ix for acromegaly
1. IGF-1 + OGTT 2. OGTT should suppress GH but won't
30
Tx options of acromegaly
1st line: acromegaly 2nd line: somatostatin analgoue (octreotide), GH receptor antagonist (pegivisomant)
31
causes of hyperprolactinoma
- pituitary adenoma - hypothyroidism - PCOS - SE of haloperidol
32
SGLT2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if:
- pt has high risk of developing CVD (QRISK>10%)/CHF
33
T2DM sick-day rules with medications
- don't stop insulin - stop metformin/sulfonylureas
34
Pathophysiology of DKA
uncontrolled lipolysis which results in an excess of free fatty acids that are ultimately converted to ketone bodies
35
Hashimoto's thyroiditis is associated with ________
MALT lymphoma
36
endo syndromes that can cause hyperCa
acromegaly, thyrotoxicosis, Addison's
37
following a change in thyroxine dose thyroid function tests should be checked after
8-12 weeks
38
what reduces the absorption of levothyroxine?
iron, calcium carbonate give at least 4 hours apart
39
investigation of hypopituitarism
insulin stress test IV insulin given, GH and cortisol levels measured with normal pituitary function GH and cortisol should rise
40
what medications can reduce hypoglycaemic awareness?
beta-blockers
41
3 types of MEN + inheritence pattern
AD MEN1: 3Ps - hyperparathyroid, pituitary (prolactinoma), pancreas (insulinoma, gastrinoma --> peptic ulcer) MEN2: parathyroid, phaeochromocytoma MEN3: phaeochromocytoma
42
myxoedema coma - Px and Tx?
Px: confusion, hypothermia Tx: IV fluids, levothyroixine, corticosteroids [to cover for ?Addisons]
43
alpha-blocker example
phenoxybenzamine
44
Ix if you suspect a pituitary adenomna
- MRI head with contrast - formal visual field testing - pituitary blood profile (incl GH, prolactin, ACTH, FSH, LH, TFTs)
45
Most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism
bilateral adrenal hyperplasia
46
Tx for primary Conn's?
spironolactone
47
how does sick euthyroid syndrome present
TSH inappropriately normal, thyroxine and T3 low No tx, recover when recover from systemic illness
48
sublinical hyperthyroidism: Ix findings and Px? Why is it bad?
Ix: LOW TSH, normal free thyroxine Px: multiondular goitre in elderly females Bad bc AF, osteoporosis
49
sublinical hypothyroidism: Ix findings and Px? Why is it bad?
Ix: TSH raised, T3 and T4 normal risk of progressing to over hypothyroidism
50
thyroid cancers - P-FMAL
Papillary (most common, young females) Follicular Medullary (secrete calcitonin, part of MEN2) Anaplastic Lymphoma (associated with Hashimoto's thyroiditis)
51
what do you replace first in secondary hypothyroidism?
steroids before the thyroxine
52
thyrotoxic storm: in addition to beta-blockers and anti-thyroid drugs, what do you give?
dexamethasone
53
toxic multinodular goitre - Ix and Tx
Ix: nuclear scintigraphy reveals patchy uptake Tx: radioodine therapy
54
________ is the key parameter to monitor in patients with hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state
Serum osmolality
55
causes of prolactin - all 'Ps'
pregnancy prolactinoma physiological polycystic ovarian syndrome primary hypothyroidism phenothiazines, metoclopramide, domperidone
56
Patients with type I diabetes and a BMI > 25 should be considered for ______ in addition to insulin
metformin
57
Over-replacement with thyroxine increases the risk for _________
osteoporosis
58
Asymptomatic patients with an abnormal HbA1c or fasting glucose
must be confirmed with a second abnormal reading before a diagnosis of type 2 diabetes is confirmed
59
_______________ is a cause of cranial diabetes insipidus
Hereditary haemochromatosis
60
The diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) can only be made if
there is one elevated glucose measurement and the presence of symptoms, or if two glucose measurements at separate time points show elevated glucose.
61
Glitazones - associated with what SE
fractures
62
_______ (diabetic drug) ____ should be stopped following a myocardial infarction
Metformin (risk of lactic acidosis)
63
IGT itself can be defined by OGTT 2h glucose of
between 7.8 and 11.1mmol/L alone.
64
A fasting glucose greater than or equal to_____________ implies impaired fasting glucose (IFG)
6.1 but less than 7.0mmol/l
65
FINALS: Passmed
flashcards
Decks in class (40)
# Cards
Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2026 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions