Endocrine Flashcards

(35 cards)

1
Q

What clinical features support a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes in adults?

A

Onset before age 50, BMI <25 kg/m², rapid weight loss, and presentation with ketosis

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2
Q

How is type 1 diabetes diagnosed biochemically?

A

Hyperglycaemic symptoms plus random plasma glucose ≥11.1 mmol/L—or fasting ≥7.0 mmol/L; diagnosis confirmed with repeat or second test. (HbA1c not recommended for rapid-onset type 1.)

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3
Q

What key areas should annual review for diabetic adults include?

A

HbA1c, BP (target varies by albuminuria), lipids, urine ACR, renal function, TSH, foot/eye exams, injection sites, dental checks due to periodontitis risk

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4
Q

How should hypoglycaemia be managed acutely?

A

If conscious and able to swallow: 10–20 g fast-acting carbohydrate (e.g., 5 glucose tablets, 200 mL juice); recheck in 10–15 minutes and repeat if needed; follow with longer-acting carbs. If unconscious: IM glucagon (≥8 yrs or >25 kg = 1 mg); call emergency services if no response

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5
Q

When might an SGLT-2 inhibitor be considered as monotherapy?

A

If metformin is contraindicated, or if there’s high CVD risk (QRISK2 ≥10% or lifetime risk factors), and if a DPP-4 inhibitor would otherwise be chosen, and sulfonylurea/pioglitazone aren’t appropriate

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6
Q

What are the key features of DPP-4 inhibitors (“gliptins”)?

A

Weight-neutral, low hypoglycaemia risk, safe in mild/moderate CKD (dose adjustment needed), contraindications minimal

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7
Q

Benefits and cautions of pioglitazone?

A

Improves insulin sensitivity; may cause weight gain, fluid retention, risk of heart failure, fractures, and bladder cancer risk

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8
Q

SGLT-2 inhibitors advantages and cautions?

A

Weight loss, low hypoglycaemia risk, cardiovascular and renal benefits. Risks include DKA, UTIs, and caution in CKD with dose adjustment

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9
Q

Key features of sulfonylureas (Gliclazide)?

A

Risk of weight gain and hypoglycaemia; inexpensive; useful for rapid glucose lowering

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10
Q

Who should be offered thyroid testing even without classic symptoms?

A

Adults with type 1 diabetes/other autoimmune disease and those with new-onset atrial fibrillation. Consider testing in depression or unexplained anxiety

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11
Q

Define subclinical hypothyroidism (SCH)

A

TSH above reference range with T4 within the reference range

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12
Q

What TFT pattern suggests central (secondary) hypothyroidism?

A

Low FT4 with low/normal (inappropriately normal) TSH → consider pituitary disease; refer.

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13
Q

How often to monitor TSH after starting/changing T4 in adults?

A

Every 3 months until stable (two similar results 3 months apart), then annually

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14
Q

How quickly can TSH normalise after initiating levothyroxine if baseline TSH was very high?

A

It may take up to 6 months—bear this in mind when adjusting doses

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15
Q

When should adults with SCH be offered levothyroxine?

A

If TSH ≥10 mIU/L on two occasions 3 months apart

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16
Q

If SCH is untreated in adults, how often to recheck?

A

Annually if features suggesting thyroid disease (e.g., autoantibodies or prior surgery); otherwise every 2–3 years.

17
Q

Name two situations where you start lower LT4 doses and up-titrate slowly.

A

Older adults (≥65) and those with cardiovascular disease

18
Q

Give two counselling points to avoid levothyroxine malabsorption.

A

Take consistently, usually on an empty stomach, and separate from interacting medicines (e.g., iron/calcium) by several hours

19
Q

Which antibody is diagnostic for Graves’ disease?

A

TSH-receptor antibodies

20
Q

Which antithyroid drug is preferred in the first trimester of pregnancy?

A

Propylthiouracil (PTU) in early pregnancy (then consider switching to carbimazole later).

21
Q

Which definitive therapy is preferred in young pregnant women with severe hyperthyroid disease?

A

Surgery (thyroidectomy) — radioiodine is contraindicated in pregnancy.

22
Q

When is treatment of subclinical hyperthyroidism recommended?

A

Consider treatment if age >65, presence of atrial fibrillation, or increased risk of osteoporosis/fracture.

23
Q

How often should TFTs be checked after starting an antithyroid drug?

A

Initially every 4–6 weeks to titrate dose, then less frequently once stable.

24
Q

What are the key features of myxoedema coma?

A

Hypothermia, altered mental status, bradycardia, hyponatraemia — emergency IV levothyroxine + supportive care.

25
What is the rules for group 1 drivers on insulin?
If on insulin then patient can drive a car as long as they have hypoglycaemic awareness, not more than one episode of hypoglycaemia requiring the assistance of another person within the preceding 12 months and no relevant visual impairment. Drivers are normally contacted by DVLA
26
What are the DVLA rules for T2DM on tablets (group 1 drivers)?
If on tablets or exenatide no need to notify DVLA. If tablets may induce hypoglycaemia (e.g. sulfonylureas) then there must not have been more than one episode of hypoglycaemia requiring the assistance of another person within the preceding 12 months
27
For a group 2 diabetic driver, what are the rules if on insulin/oral hypoglycaemics?
1. There has not been any severe hypoglycaemic event in the previous 12 months 2. The driver has full hypoglycaemic awareness 3. The driver must show adequate control of the condition by regular blood glucose monitoring, at least twice daily and at times relevant to driving 4. The driver must demonstrate an understanding of the risks of hypoglycaemia 5. There are no other debarring complications of diabetes
28
What is the classic triad of acute Addisonian crisis?
Hypotension, hyponatraemia, hypoglycaemia. Can also get hyperkalaemia
29
What are the features of addisons disease?
lethargy, weakness, anorexia, nausea & vomiting, weight loss, 'salt-craving', hyperpigmentation, vitiligo,
30
What test is done in suspected Addison's?
ACTH stimulation test (short Synacthen test). Plasma cortisol is measured before and 30 minutes after giving Synacthen 250ug IM.
31
What should patients with Addison's do with their medications during an intercurrent illness?
In simple terms the glucocorticoid dose should be doubled, with the fludrocortisone dose staying the same
32
What hormone pattern suggests hyperprolactinaemia due to pituitary adenoma?
High prolactin with low gonadotrophins.
33
Which test confirms diagnosis of acromegaly?
Oral glucose tolerance test with GH measurement (failure of GH suppression).
34
What is the typical result of a Synacthen (ACTH stimulation) test in Addison’s disease?
No or inadequate rise in cortisol.
35