1
Q
What equipment will be on hand and taken to post? (Name 10)
A
- Helmet
- (IBA) w/ plates inserted
- Second chance vest
- Reflective Vest
- Cold and foul weather gear
- Duty Belt/DFLCS w/accessories
- Tactical vest
- Weapon and Ammunition
- Less-than lethal weapon
- Handcuff and Keys
2
Q
How many minutes prior to Guardmount are you required to report?
A
30 minutes
3
Q
Personnel are prohibited from consuming intoxicating substances within how many hours prior to duty?
A
8 hours
4
Q
When responding to a bomb threat, transmissions are prohibited within how many feet for a handheld radio or cellphone?
A
25 feet
5
Q
When responding to a bomb threat, transmissions are prohibited within how many feet for a vehicle mounted radio?
A
100 feet
6
Q
Personnel entering the cordon of a bomb threat will be required to wear what?
A
Personal protective equipment (PPE)
7
Q
What is the cordon size for a box sized suspicious package?
A
500 feet
8
Q
What is the cordon size for a barrel/vehicle sized suspicious package?
A
1000 feet
9
Q
During a full unit recall, SF personal living off base have how long to respond to bldg. 2419?
A
1 hr after being notified of the recall
10
Q
During a full unit recall, SF personal living on base have how long to respond to bldg. 2419?
A
Immediately after being notified of the recall
11
Q
Where will you respond during a full unit recall and what will you have with you?
A
Proceed directly to the Armory will all required gear
12
Q
When an individual is under duress what is in question?
A
Their security status
13
Q
How many types of duress exist?
A
Two
Passive Duress and Active Duress
14
Q
What is passive duress?
A
Passive Duress is a non-compliance with normal standard operating procedures (SOPs). For example: Failing to answer your radio, flashing the ECP with vehicle or flashlight lights during hours of darkness (as if to draw attention from passing patrols).
15
Q
- What is an Active Duress
A
Active Duress is an actual request for help through established procedures. For example: Passing the duress word, utilizing mechanical duress systems or Calling “Code 13” over the net.
16
Q
- When asked to authenticate, the ECC will give the unit a number. The number will correspond to what?
A
The unit will respond with the letter that corresponds with the number from their last name i.e. SrA Smith is authenticating; the desk states, “I pass you 2” and SrA Smith would respond “Mike.”
17
Q
- What are the three ways a post or patrol can indicate they are under duress?
A
Misauthentication, Duress Word and activate a duress alarm.
SFOI 31-118, para 1.6.1.2.2
18
Q
- When asked by the ECC for your status during routine status checks how do you respond?
A
Respond with “all secure” and the first letter of your last name. For example, Amn Jones would respond “all secure Juliet.”
19
Q
- What are your response codes?
A
Code 1- Routine Dispatch Code 2- Urgent Dispatch Code 3- Emergency Dispatch Code 4- Request Wants/Warrants Code 5- Traffic Stop Code 6- Latrine Break Code 7- Meal Break Code 8- Subject in Custody Code 8A- Subject in Custody/Opposite Sex Code 9- Change to Frequency \_\_\_\_\_ Code 10- All Secure/Available for Dispatch Code 11- Bomb Threat Code 11A- Suspicious Package Code 12- Duress Code 13- Immediate Assistance/Code 3 backup required Code 99- ECC Duress Code 99E- ECC Duress Exercise Code 111- Possible/actual DUI
20
Q
- Prior to conducting personnel searches, what do you always ask the suspect?
A
Make a precautionary check of the suspect prior to the actual search. A precautionary check consists of verbal communication with the suspect. Ask the suspect if he or she has any sharp objects (needles, razor blades, or knives).
21
Q
- When and with whom will you conduct a check of the duress alarm while performing duties as an Entry Controller?
A
At the beginning of each shift with the ECC.
22
Q
- What are the gate sentry post limits?
A
Within the immediate vicinity of the gate to effectively control entry, unless an emergency situation dictates otherwise.
23
Q
- When and to whom are post briefings given while performing duties?
A
: Post reporting will be rendered to all E-7s and above in the chain of command on an official post visit/check, to include the acting Flight Chief, Flight Sergeants and area supervisors regardless of their rank. SF members provide post briefings as part of a formal post check or visit by the chain of command or DVs escorted by the chain of command.
24
Q
- Will post briefings be provided to personnel sitting in vehicles or within traffic lanes?
A
No
25
27. Where will vehicles carrying Class “A” or “B” explosives be directed (defined on bill of lading as 1.1, 1.2, or 1.3 explosives)?
North Gate
26
28. What actions will the Entry Controller at North Gate take upon the arrival of vehicles carrying Class “A” or “B” explosives (defined on bill of lading as 1.1, 1.2, or 1.3 explosives)?
The Entry Controller will notify the ECC of the arrival, type of cargo and destination of the vehicle. Request patrol assistance if the vehicle needs assistance turning around. Hold the vehicle at North Gate until it has been inspected by TMO and provided an escort by owner/user.
Patrol will provide escort along with TMO for 1.1 explosives
27
29. If a hazardous vehicle delivery arrives after duty hours, at the AFRL, where will the driver be directed?
South Base Ammunition Storage
28
30. What is the maximum amount of time a Hazardous Vehicle shipment may remain at the AFRL gate, during normal duty hours, before they are directed to the hazardous cargo inspection point?
10 minutes
29
31. Where is the hazardous cargo inspection area in the AFRL?
One half mile inside the AFRL on Mercury Blvd.
30
32. When two forms of ID are required for entry onto EAFB, what will be accepted as a secondary form of ID.?
```
State issued Driver’s License
State issued Identification Card
Passport
INS Alien Registration Card 9 I-551
AFOSI Credentials
```
31
33. Under what circumstances will access be granted immediately to local Fire, Medical and Police agencies into the installation?
Providing the Emergency is known by the ECC and Fire Department.
32
34. All visitors must be check against what roster prior to entry?
Barment Roster
33
35. The Entry Controller will issue a vehicle and visitors DBIDS pass for the minimum time required not to exceed how long?
3 days
34
36. Unofficial visitors to EAFB can be issued a thirty (30) day pass after the sponsor accompanies the guest to what location?
412 SFS Pass and Registration
35
37. Foreign nationals traveling on NATO orders must present what to the Entry Controller to gain access to EAFB?
One form of official photograph ID and a copy of the published order.
36
38. What must the driver of a commercial delivery vehicle present to the Entry Controller prior to gaining access to EAFB?
Approved identification or valid AF FM 75, Bill of lading, pick-up/delivery order, or work order. Bill of lading, work order, etc. must be addressed to an on-base address with telephone number.
37
39. If a taxicab pickup cannot be verified what will the Entry Controller do?
The Entry Controller will not allow entry.
38
40. What is “Secure Hold” defined as?
“On-installation parking for afterhours AA&E arrivals during non-emergency circumstances.”
39
41. What actions will an Entry Controller take during Secure Holds and where are the designated staging areas?
Notify ECC immediately and provide driver information.
- West Gate. CATM Road about one quarter mile from the intersection
- South Gate. Branch Memorial Park about one quarter mile from the intersection
- North Gate. North Base Road about one quarter mile from the intersection
40
42. During a Seven Bridges situation, what words are never to be used when speaking to or in the presence of a potential defector?
Political Asylum/Defector, Agent, AFOSI, Special Agent, Intelligence Officer, Intelligence Agency, Office of Special Investigations
41
43. During a Seven Bridges situation, how far from the gate shack do you have individual place his/her vehicle or hand-carried items?
1000 feet.
42
44. Individuals requesting Political Asylum are free to leave unless what?
They are suspected of criminal activity.
43
45. The barrier system is considered a use of force; under what circumstances may the Entry Controller engage the barriers?
Unlawful entry represents a danger to themselves or others
Use of the system is necessary to deny or restrict entry/exit
Use of the system is necessary to stop or apprehend
Individuals who have entered the installation unlawfully
44
46. If a vehicle passes the barrier system or the barrier system cannot be utilized due to the risk to innocent bystanders, what information will the EC relay to the ECC?
License Plate, Direction of Travel and description of vehicle and occupant(s).
45
47. True or False: The EC must obtain permission from the on duty Flight Chief prior to engaging the vehicle barrier system?
False.
46
48. Who determines when, where and how to implement random checks of vehicles or pedestrians?
412 TW/CC
47
49. What action do you take if a Civilian refuses a Random Installation Entry/Exit Vehicle Check while entering the Installation?
Advise the owner/operator of POVs that refusal to submit to a base point check may result in the loss of base driving privileges, revocation of base registration, barment from the base or other actions. (2) Conduct walk-around and deny entry. (3) Notify ECC.
48
50. What is probable cause?
Probable cause to apprehend exists when there is a reasonable belief that an offense has been or is being committed and the person to be apprehended committed or is committing it.
49
51. What is reasonable belief?
Reasonable belief means that there is reliable information that a reasonable, prudent person would rely on, which makes it more likely than not that something is true. Reasonable beliefs are also a logical and rational evaluation of the circumstances of an offense and of the suspect’s connection with the offense.
50
52. What type of searched will be utilized on an individual of the opposite sex?
A simple search/frisk
51
53. How many Security Forces members must be present to witness a simple search conducted by the opposite sex?
Two
52
54. Upon the arrival of PL aircraft, ensure a restricted area is established around the aircraft with the required security personnel in position based on protection level classification. What must you obtain from the aircraft commander to be used as an EAL?
Crew Orders
53
55. Who must authenticate Crew Orders from transient PL aircraft?
Flight Leader or E-6 or above.
54
56. What are the areas within Golf 5’s responsibility?
The Entry Controller when the B-2 is present; controller is confined to the immediate area of the resource, routinely the north entrance to Bldg. 160. (412 SFS OPORD patrol zone map)
55
57. When the B-2 has been relocated when will Golf-5 remain posted at Bldg. 160 ECP and the building will not need to be purged when the aircraft returns?
If the aircraft is relocated outside of Bldg 160 for less than two hours.
56
58. What procedures are followed if the B-2 is relocated outside of Bldg. 160 for more than two hours?
Relocate with the aircraft. Before the aircraft returns to Bldg 160, the facility must be purged by Sierra-1 or a MWD team.
57
59. Name three ways an individual may be granted unescorted entry to the Flightline.
(1) AF FM 1199, with area “M” open (2) An Authenticated EAL not to exceed 90 days from Airfield management and SF with a “Temp” AF 1199 with area “M” open. (3) A valid AF 1199, RAB (Accountable) issued to TDY aircrew members from their home base. They must also be authenticated on the manifest or crew orders; these individuals do not have escort authority.
58
60. Who may act as an escort official onto the general flight line/PL 3 Restricted Areas?
Personnel authorized unescorted access on the general flightline and/or unescorted entry into a PL III RA may act as escort officials.
59
61. What is the PL Level for hangar 160, when the B-2 is present?
This RA is a temporary PL II
60
62. What is the PL Level for the BFTF compound, excluding Bldg. 160?
This is a PL III permanent RA.
61
63. What is the PL Level for the Joint Strike Fighter area?
This permanent RA maintains PL III status.
62
64. What must an Air Force Inspection Team (IG) possess to gain access to restricted areas?
A valid home station restricted area badge or a temporary restricted area badge and their identification information appearing on a properly authenticated EAL.
63
65. Entry into a RA will be granted using the single badge system. At least one of the supporting techniques will always be used. What are the three supporting techniques utilized at EAFB?
(1) Personal Recognition (2) Signature/Credential Check and (3) MEAL (Master EAL) (SFOI 31-101 para 1.2.1.4 thru 1.2.1.4.3)
64
66. For transient PL I/II aircraft within a temporary/permanent RA, escort officials must be identified on either their home base AF 1199 or what?
An authenticated EAL.
65
67. When are POV’s allowed access to the Flight line?
When they possess a pass issued by Base Operations.
66
68. How may Emergency Response vehicles and personnel be granted entry into a Restricted Area?
Without delay using the established sign/countersign procedure after the ECC is notified of a valid emergency.
67
69. Upon notification of an emergency, the security unit will verify the dispatch of response vehicles with the ECC (unless the notification comes from the ECC). What information must be obtained from the ECC prior to allowing access?
(1) Nature of Emergency (2) Agency Responding (3) Location of situation (4) Number of vehicles and (5) Point of Entry.
68
70. What must be completed by the Security Unit upon termination of an Emergency Response situation?
All responding emergency personnel will be accounted for as they exit the area through the ECP. Normal exit procedures will be utilized. SF personnel will conduct a sweep of the area after all emergency response personnel depart to ensure all personnel area accounted for and no items were left behind.
69
71. What is Type II security?
Security for limited life components, classified nuclear support material, and sanitized aircraft.
70
72. What is the definition of a Security Incidents?
Any incident report (via telephone, radio or in-person) provided to Security Forces from anyone who detects an unusual incident, possibly hostile that affects protection level resources
71
73. A Covered Wagon is defined as what?
A report that informs higher headquarters (HHQ) that an unusual incident affecting PL I, II, or III resources, probably or actually hostile, occurred at an installation or dispersed site.
72
74. What two items will an individual have in their possession to be authorized to take photographs on the flight line?
(1) An AF 1199 restricted area badge (RAB) with annotated access to the areas in which they are shooting. (2) A flight line Photography Authorization Letter that bears their name and organization with the proper signatures and authenticated by 412 SFS/S5.
73
75. What documentation must an individual possess to remove classified information from the BFTF compound?
DD FM 2501, Courier Pass or a letter authenticated by the BFTF Security Office with an “exemption to search” notice.
74
76. Who must be present at the B-2 ECP prior to allowing entry of Emergency Personnel, during a valid emergency?
Sierra 2, the BFTF ESRT. (SFOI 31-101 para 2.1.6.1/412 SFS OPORD)
75
77. What actions will the B2 EC conduct upon granting entry to emergency forces?
: The EC will allow immediate access to emergency personnel after required verification. The B2 EC will count the number of vehicles and, if possible, the number of personnel entering and relay this information to the ECC.
76
78. No photography of the B-2 will be allowed within how many feet of the aircraft or raised barrier?
20 feet
77
79. What is the cordon size for a B-2 aircraft or aircraft parts on fire?
5000 feet
78
80. When conducting Random Installation Entry/Exit Vehicle Checks whom does the Security Forces member represent?
The Installation Commander
79
81. While conducting Random Installation Entry/Exit Vehicle Checks, what documentation are you checking along with the vehicle?
Operator’s identification, driver’s license, vehicle registration, and Insurance. Check all occupants against the barment/revocation rosters.
80
82. While conducting Random Installation Entry/Exit Vehicle Checks, if government property found is not positively identified as stolen, what actions do you take?
Confiscate the property via AF 52 and advise the individual to contact the SF Investigations Section on the next duty day regarding disposition.
81
83. While conducting Random Installation Entry/Exit Vehicle Checks, if government property is positively identified as stolen, what actions do you take?
Immediately terminate the check, secure the vehicle, apprehend or detain the operator and detain other occupants. After notifying the ECC of the situation, prepare an AF 1364, Consent for Search and Seizure or AF 1176, Authority to Search and Seize.
82
84. When will an Entry Controller initiate Stop, Check and Pass procedures during alarm activations?
For Arms, Ammunition and Explosives (AA&E) facilities or when the Flight Leader directs.
83
85. During anti-robbery procedures you will notify the ECC if inbound traffic backs up more than how many meters?
100 meters
84
86. During anti-robbery procedures, what three actions do you take if the suspect vehicle is observed?
(1) Take up a position of cover and concealment (2) notify ECC (3) Initiate a high risk traffic stop if sufficient armed SF personnel are on-scene.
85
87. This term is used to describe temporary refuge required by a munitions/firearms, hazardous cargo, or Department of Energy (DoE) carrier.
Safe Haven
86
88. What actions will the ECC take when a DoE convoy requests a SAFE HAVEN?
1) Obtain the number and name of the couriers, DoE identification card numbers, DOB and SSN of all couriers 2) Obtain the number of vehicles, safe secure trailers and escort vehicles and 3) Landline the ECC and relay all information.
87
89. What does the Posse Comitatus Act prohibit?
This act prevents Army and Air Force personnel from executing the laws of the states or the laws of the US except when acting under the authority of the US Constitution, an Act of Congress or under the direction of the POTUS
88
90. Where does the Posse Comitatus Act apply?
Posse Comitatus governs the use of Army and Air Force personnel only within the Continental United States (CONUS).
89
91. What are the Security Forces General Orders?
1. I will take charge of my post and protect personnel and property for which I am responsible until properly relieved.
2. I will report all violations of orders I am entrusted to enforce and will call my superior in any case not covered by instructions.
3. I will sound the alarm in case of disorder or emergency.
90
92. What are the three sources of military jurisdiction?
1) US Constitution 2) Federal Statues 3) International Law
91
93. What article of the Uniformed Code of Military Justice states who is subject to military jurisdiction?
Article 2
92
94. What article of the Uniformed Code of Military Justice states where military jurisdiction applies?
Article 5
93
95. What are the four types of legislative jurisdictions that apply to military installations and facilities?
1) Exclusive 2) Concurrent 3) Reciprocal (Partial) 4) Proprietary
94
96. Define Martial Law.
The temporary military government of a civilian population.
95
97. What are the four authorities that Security Forces possess?
1) Detain 2) Apprehend 3) Report 4) Correct
96
98. What grants SF the authority to apprehend any person subject to trial by courts-martial upon probable cause if the SF member is executing security/law enforcement duties?
MCM Rule 302 and UCMJ Article 7(b)
97
99. Define Custody.
The restraint of free movement.
98
100. Define Search.
An examination of a person, property, or premise to uncover evidence of a crime or criminal intent.
99
101. What are the three types of personnel searches?
1) Standing 2) Kneeling 3) Prone
100
102. What is an AF FM 52?
Evidence Tag
101
103. What is an AF FM 75?
Visitor Pass
102
104. What is an AF FM 1109?
Visitor Register Log
103
105. What is an AF FM 1168?
Statement of Suspect/Witness/Complainant.
104
106. What is an AF FM 1176?
Authority to Search and Seize
105
107. What is an AF FM 1364?
Consent for Search and Seizure.
106
108. What is an AF FM 3907?
Security Forces Field Interview Data
107
109. What is a DD FM 460?
Provisional Pass
108
110. What is an AF FM 3545A?
SFMIS Generated, Incident Report
109
111. What is the definition of FPCON NORMAL?
This condition applies when a general global threat of possible terrorist activity exists and warrants a routine security posture. At a minimum, access control will be conducted at all DoD installations and facilities.
110
112. What is the definition of FPCON ALPHA?
This condition applies when there is an increased general threat of possible terrorist activity against personnel or facilities, the nature and extent of which are unpredictable, and circumstances do not justify full implementation of FPCON BRAVO measures.
111
113. What is the definition of FPCON BRAVO?
Applies when an increased or more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists. Sustaining BRAVO measures for a prolonged period may affect operational capability and military-civil relationships with local authorities.
112
114. What is the definition of FPCON CHARLIE?
Applies when an incident occurs or intelligence is received indicating that some form of terrorist action or targeting against personnel or facilities is likely. Prolonged implementation of CHARLIE measures may create hardship and affect the activities of the unit and its personnel.
113
115. What is the definition of FPCON DELTA?
Applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence has been received that terrorist action against a specific location or person is imminent. FPCON DELTA is usually declared as a localized condition. FPCON DELTA measures are not intended to be sustained for an extended duration.
114
116. What is a DD FM 2701?
Initial Information for Victims and Witnesses of Crime pamphlet (VWAP)
115
117. For traffic violations, what form will be issued to Civilian Offenders?
DD FM 1805
116
118. For traffic violations, what form will be issued to Military Offenders?
DD FM 1408
117
119. When should the Standing search be used?
The standing search is primarily used on suspects who do not appear dangerous, violent, or so drunk or drugged that they cannot stand under their own power.
118
120. When should the Kneeling search be used?
Used primarily on suspects where more control is desired.
119
121. When should the Prone search be used?
This search is used when you encounter a suspect who is aggressive or physically or mentally impaired.
120
122. How should you switch hands during a search?
Switch hands on the linking chain by placing your strong hand on the suspect’s shoulder and ask the suspect to turn his or her head while switching your feet position. Turn your body so your weak side is towards the suspect’s back and at a 45-degree angle from the suspect. Your weak side foot will be located directly behind and centered between the suspect’s feet.
121
123. When will the Entry Controller utilize the Hardened Mobile Trace Units?
During all searches of commercial sized vehicles and 15-pax vehicles entering the installation.
122
124. When will the Entry Controller calibrate the Hardened Mobile Trace Unit?
Upon assuming post
123
125. What areas will the Entry Controller use when taking a trace sample from a vehicle?
Door handles, gas door, hood, trunk latches, steering wheel, knobs, seat belts, luggage, wherever there may be a fingerprint.
124
126. Visitors what age and OLDER will be required to present a valid photo identification prior to being issued an AF Form 75?
16
125
127. Visitors what age and YOUNGER will not be required to be issued an AF Form 75?
15
126
128. Who must authorize media personnel to enter the installation?
Public Affairs
127
129. True or False: Media personnel may enter Edwards AFB without an escort from Public Affairs.
False
128
130. If a foreign national assigned to Edwards AFB has visitors from their home country who will be the approving authority?
Foreign Disclosure Office
129
131. What list will all Foreign Nationals’ (assigned to EAFB) guests be added to after the foreign disclosure office approves them and notifies the police services office?
FN EAL
130
132. When requesting a “Code 4” what must the post or patrol do for officer safety and let the desk know?
The post or patrol must secure his/her radio for officer safety and let the desk know when it is safe to transmit information regarding the offender.
131
133. What are the six (6) identifying marks on the AF FM 1199?
1. The letters “ED” at the beginning of Badge Number on the front side of 1199
2. Signature of 1199 holder
3. Photograph of individual in upper right corner of “Signature of Holder” block
4. Last 6 numbers of Social Security in “SSN” block
5. Signature of “issuing official”
6. The letters “ES” in the middle of badge serial number on the reverse side of badge
Security Forces QC Review
flashcards
Decks in class (6)
# Cards
