1
Q
- A(n) _____ is each command’s tool to establish procedures and processes to be followed to carry out command and Coast Guard policy.
A
Standard Operating Procedure (SOP)
2
Q
- In order to make an effective argument for change, managers must ___________ and obtain as much data as possible.
A
Study the issues
3
Q
- COMDTINST M5215.6 (series) governs the _____.
A
Coast Guard directives system
4
Q
- Which step in the process of effecting change includes “market the right audience”?
A
Draft Recommendations
5
Q
- Generate a _____ diagramming factors, stakeholders, and risks associated with the barriers to the change.
A
Force-Field Analysis
6
Q
- What is process to request resources in future fiscal years?
A
Resource Proposal Process
7
Q
- What is the best process to review a new policy or change?
A
Concurrent clearance, “simultaneous review of material by concerned organizational elements.”
8
Q
- _____ is necessary to reduce extra workload and person-hours incurred by the implementation of a policy.
A
Reassessment
9
Q
- What type of analysis is used to identify strengths and threats?
A
SWOT Analysis
10
Q
- What types of cost data should a change manager gather?
A
Excessive Cost Data
11
Q
- When bringing a problem to a decision maker, you should be prepared to present what?
A
Several recommendations with all the positive and negative aspects of each.
12
Q
- The person presenting the argument should also point out the_____ if new or changed policy does NOT occur.
A
resources not expended
13
Q
- With any new or changed policy, the issue of _____ to accomplish the mission becomes paramount.
A
resources necessary
14
Q
- Who can issue a directive?
A
Only the following can issue a directive:
- The Commandant
- Area, district and group commanders
- Commanders, maintenance and logistics commands
- Commanding officers and officers-in-charge
15
Q
- Who is the program manager for Coast Guard wide directives and policy?
A
Commandant (CG-61)
16
Q
- A _____ clearly and accurately identifies an issue needing to be studied, understood, or brought to the attention of the next higher authority in your chain of command.
A
Problem Statement
17
Q
- In reviewing current unit and Coast Guard policy, there are _____ points managers need to do, in order to make an effective argument for change.
A
7
18
Q
- Which category of the leadership competencies states, “Leaders are able to envision a preferred future for their units and functions, setting this picture in the context of the Coast Guard’s overall vision, missions, strategy, and driving forces”?
A
Vision Development and Implementation
19
Q
- The _____ states that leaders manage and champion organizational change.
A
Leadership Development Framework
20
Q
- Developing policy requires in-depth examination of the problem, and establishment of _____, which when followed, will lead to the desired improvements or changes to the existing policy.
A
succinct steps
21
Q
- When communicating with program managers to effect change, it is important to give complete and accurate _____.
A
data and information.
22
Q
- In order to make an effective argument for change, managers must ___________ with others.
A
collaberate
23
Q
- The process of effecting change involves _____ steps.
A
9
24
Q
- While our instinct is to describe the changes needed in order to make things better, managers need data and other information to ___________ the positive changes.
A
sell
25
25. The basis for creating new policy is a _____.
problem statement
26
26. When socializing potential changes the _____ must sell new policy and changes to current policy.
Program Manager
27
27. To build support for a proposal for a new or changed policy, stakeholders should understand the positive impacts of _____.
the new or changed policy.
28
28. Each new policy has a(n) _______________________.
Originating Authority
29
29. Implementation of change or new policy could be slowed or stopped if significant barriers to _____ are evident and not halted.
change or resistance
30
30. A _____ concisely and accurately identifies an issue needing to be studied, understood, or brought to the attention of the next higher authority in your chain of command.
problem statement
31
1. What is placed centered two lines below the last paragraph to indicate the end of the memorandum?
#
32
2. When are "Thru" lines used on a memo?
When one or more offices or units outside your own must see a memo before it reaches the addressee.
33
3. What is used to comment on a memorandum in routing?
Endorsement(s) to Memorandum
34
4. Every memorandum must include _____________.
a date. May be hand stamped or typed in. Every memo also needs a from line.
35
5. Where does the signing official place his/her signature on a memorandum?
The signing official will sign on the "From" line.
36
6. Where is the SSIC placed on a memorandum?
On each page of the memorandum.
37
7. What is the primary means of formalized correspondence to communicate both within the Coast Guard and within the framework of the Federal Government?
The Coast Guard Memorandum
38
8. When writing a memorandum, the most appropriate SSIC code should be used. Where can you look to find this SSIC code?
Information and Life Cycle Management Manual, COMDINST M5212.12(series)
39
9. When writing an internal command memo requiring command visibility a _______ may be used.
Thru
40
10. Where can the precise title and staff symbol to include on a memorandum be found?
Standard Distribution List (SDL), COMDTNOTE 5605
41
11. Where is information on routing a memorandum found?
On the To and Thru lines
42
12. What is a parking lot within the context of meeting facilitation?
A place where issues that are important, but not relevant to the topic at hand can be parked out of the congestion of discussion. Discuss/resolve these items at the end of the session.
43
13. What is another form of parking lot or board?
An Issues, Decisions and Actions (IDA) record
44
14. What is a common team member role assigned during a meeting?
Timekeeper, Scribe, Recorder, Co-Facilitator, Participant, Subject Matter Expert
45
15. Which step in meeting facilitation involves describing how the meeting will be run, and how decisions will be made?
Establish Ground Rules
46
16. What is a responsibility of a participant in a meeting?
Gives input, ideas, opinions
Listens to others
Clarifies
Uses good team process skills
47
17. What is a responsibility of a timekeeper in a meeting?
Keeps track of time
| Notifies group when allocated times are up
48
18. During a meeting, who has responsibility to capture information as accurately as possible so that non-attendees can follow the group's train of thought?
Recorder
49
19. During a meeting, who is required to stay out of content discussion?
Scribe
50
20. How many types of meeting evaluation processes are there?
Four
51
21. What type of meeting evaluation process involves making a chart?
Plus/Delta
52
22. Action plans should be broken down into manageable chunks that require less than how many hours to complete?
80 hours
53
End of marking periods for pay grade E9 is what month?
June (all)
54
End of marking periods for pay grade E8 is what month?
February (AD)
| November (Reserves)
55
End of marking periods for pay grade E7 s what month?
September
56
End of marking periods for pay grade E6 is what month?
May
57
That Marking Official should route the completed Eval film report to the Approving Official no later than _____ days after the evaluation report ending period?
5
58
Who is responsible for ensuring your evaluation is based on how you performed in each performance dimension consistently through the period?
the Approving Official
59
How many categories of performance are there in the ESS?
4
60
23. When should items in the Parking Lot be discussed?
At the end of the session.
61
24. Consensus discussions are part of what step in meeting facilitation?
Establishing ground rules.
62
25. The round robin process is part of what step in meeting facilitation?
Evaluate the meeting
63
26. Which step of meeting facilitation are ground rules established?
Establish Ground Rules
64
27. Time spent planning your meeting will ensure _______________.
a better outcome.
65
28. There are _____ items to include on a meeting agenda.
10
66
29. How many days does a supervisor have to counsel an active duty evaluee after the end of the evaluation report period ending date?
21 days
67
30. How many days does a supervisor have to counsel a reservist evaluee after the end of the evaluation report period ending date?
45 days
68
31. Within the EES each competency is defined in terms of _____ performance standards.
three
69
32. Who is responsible for timely processing of an EER so that it may be reviewed by an evaluee no later than 30 days following the report period?
The unit rating chain.
70
33. Who has appeal authority for any annual or semiannual evaluation report?
The first flag officer in the evaluee's chain of command. This cannot be delegated.
71
34. For first-term members reporting to a new duty station, supervisors conduct the first formal IDP review and counseling session within _____ days of reporting.
30
72
35. An Individual Development Plan (IDP) is mandatory for _____.
all enlisted members within their first four years of enlistment, active duty and reservist, assigned to a permanent duty station.
73
36. The IDP shall be introduced and discussed by the supervisor no later than how many days after the reporting date?
30 days
74
37. When meeting with a service member during the IDP process, what is the mentor’s primary objective?
Help the individual reflect on their potential, set goals and explore career options.
75
34. How well the supervisor clearly communicates the member’s past performance and methods in which to improve are primary to _____.
ensuring future success.
76
38. An Individual Development Plan is, in part, a means to _____.
improve an individual's performance and behaviors.
77
40. What are the Supervisors responsibilities in relation to the IDP?
1. Become familiar with IDP process and purpose to effectively guide participants. Implement all IDP policies and procedures for first-timers.
2. Assess the unit's/organization's mission, short and long term requirements, staffing, and technology and then asses the person's potential to meet those needs.
3. Act as a coach and mentor to individuals
4. Identify unit resources to support the IDP and include projected formal requirements in the unit's training plan as reasonable.
78
35. Requests for exceptions to policy for awards will be _____.
approved only in extraordinary circumstances and considered on a case-by-case basis.
79
36. As a general rule, military members are not entitled to _____.
cash awards, gratuities, gift certificates or coupons for recognition of superior performance of duty (to include from other government agencies).
80
37. Where can you look to find examples in writing a citation for a member?
Enclosure 24
81
38. The individual citation for the Meritorious Service Medal and below (not including the LOC) will be prepared ______________.
in "landscape" orientation on the award stationary with one-inch side and top margins, and at least a two-inch bottom margin where a gold seal, two inches in diameter will be embossed with the awarding authority's official seal.
82
When do you need to provide evaluation input for your EES?
When required by the rating chain.
83
What is done with the original EER counseling sheet?
Given to the member.
84
________ was designed to inform each member of the performance standards against which they are measured.
Enlisted Evaluation System
85
The ______ has been designed to provide information about discharges, re-enlistments, good conduct, advancement eligibility and reductions in pay grade.
COMDT Instruction M100.2C Enlistments, Evaluations and advancements Manual
86
Your signature on the member’s signature block of the EER counseling sheet indicates acknowledgment of what?
I. The counseling and review of their evaluation report.
2. The impact of the evaluation report on their Good Conduct Eligibility
3. The appeal timeframe
4. Their advancement potential and recommendation.
87
What competency within a performance assessment must be adhered to every day of the marking period?
Conduct
88
What are the individual elements located under each factor type on which the Coast Guard evaluates its enlisted members called?
Competencies
89
Which factor type in the EER measures the member's ability to bring credit to the Coast Guard through personal demeanor and professional actions?
Military
90
Which factor type in the EER measures a member's ability to direct, guide, develop, influence, and support others performing work?
Leadership
91
Performance Standards are the written criteria that outlines the expected performance to receive a mark of _____.
2, 4, or 6
92
What are the areas impacted by awarding an "Unsatisfactory Conduct Mark", as listed in CIM 1000.2(series)?
1. Advancement
2. Good Conduct Award Eligibility
3.
93
Appeals to the approving official's decision on the advancement recommendation _____.
may not be appealed.
94
What are the possible choices for advancement recommendations?
1. Ready
2. Not Ready
3. Not Recommended
95
The appeals process is designed to review marks the evaluee believes were based on which of the following?
1. Incorrect information
2. Prejudice
3. Discrimination
4. Disproportionately low marks for the particular circumstances.
96
What must be contained in an appeal letter for an EER?
The appeal letter must contain the specific competencies in dispute and supporting information indicating why the marks should be reviewed. Supporting information must include specific examples of demonstrated performance that indicate how the member met or exceeded the written standards. The member attaches a copy of the signed evaluation report counseling sheet as the first enclosure and other enclosures pertinent to the assigned marks.
97
What responsibility does the member have in the EER appeal process?
1. Member must request an audience with the rating chain to verbally express any concerns that could lead to a written appeal.
2. Submit an appeal letter within 15 calendar days (45 for Reservists) of the date they signed the counseling report.
98
What actions may the appeal authority take?
They can raise or leave the mark unchanged, but they may not lower any marks.
99
What are forms CG-3788A-G used for?
Are optional and can be used by units with limited or no access to Direct Access.
100
While conducting a personnel inspection you notice a member is wearing their ribbons out of order. What reference can you advise them to consult to properly align their awards?
CIM 1650.2
101
The service strip is placed at a ______angle.
45 degree
102
What is correct for an E-9 wearing the garrison cover?
The anchor is approx. 1-3/8" high
103
What is the only authorized knot for the blue standard necktie?
Double Windsor
104
The wearing of this type of Blue Crew Neck T-Shirt is prohibited in heat/fire prone spaces.
Moisture wicking (Polyester)
105
What is the first step in resolving conflict among peers?
Define conflict
106
What is the first stage of conflict escalation?
Disagreement
107
In this conflict management style, each person makes a sacrifice so that both parties get part of what they want.
Compromising
108
In this conflict management style, intervention is considered but without a high value placed on your own desires.
Accommodating
109
In this conflict management style, the conflict must be resolved quickly and without regard for the other person's desires.
Competing
110
The Coast Guard's preferred style for conflict management is ___________________.
Collaborating
111
What is the third stage of conflict?
Escalation
112
What level of compliance does a yellow color indicator within CGBI indicate?
Approaching limits of standard
113
What level of compliance does a red color indicator within CGBI indicate?
Non-Compliant - Corrective action required
114
What training code(s) direct PDCs to ensure members can complete an EPQ or RPQ correctly without assistance, prompting or the use of any job or memory aid?
Train to memory
115
What is the purpose of form CG-4903?
To anonymously report a hazard
116
How long must CG-113 assurance assessments be retained?
Until deficiencies have been corrected and for at least five years past the end of the calendar year to which they relate
117
What is the minimum frequency for formal occupational safety and environmental health inspections for all work spaces?
Annually
118
How many Administrative remarks entry types are there?
9
119
Where is the original form CG 3307 distributed?
Filed in the SPO PDR
120
For evaluations not completed in Direct Access, what must be placed inside the original CG-3788(series) and forwarded to PPC (adv)?
An additional CG-3307
121
What is the Thomas-Kilmann definition for conflict?
Any situation in which your concerns or desires differ from those of another person
122
How many stages are there in conflict?
5
123
What stage of conflict is it when members actually make overt communications in an attempt to convince the other party of a better solution?
Confrontation
124
In which stage of conflict should peers look for assistance in managing the conflict or look to using a tool for reaching and addressing the concerns of the parties?
Escalation
125
Which stage of conflict represents the path for resolving a conflict without it first.
De-escalation
126
What is used to comment on a memorandum in routing?
endorsements
127
Every memorandum must include_____________.
Date
128
What term is defined as any self-reported thoughts of engaging in suicide-related behaviors?
Suicide - Related ideations
129
Which term is defined as self-inflicted death with evidence, either explicit or implicit, or intent to die?
Suicide
130
What is the result of Self-Harm Level 3?
Death
131
What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior for which there is evidence, either implicit or explicit, that the person did not intend to kill himself/herself?
Self Harm
132
What term is defined as any interpersonal action, verbal or nonverbal, without a direct self-injurious component, passive or active, for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, that the person is communicating that a suicide-related behavior might occur in the near future?
Suicide Threat
133
What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior with anon-fatal outcome for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, of intent to die?
Suicide Attempt
134
What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior where intent is unknown?
Undetermined Suicide-related behavior
135
Dismissing _____________ as "manipulation" is one of the surest ways to increase suicide risk.
Suicidal ideations
136
What would self-harm with no injury be reported as?
Self-Harm level 1
137
What level of self-harm results in injury?
Self-Harm level 2
138
For reporting purposes, what level of suicide attempt results in injury?
Suicide attempt level 2
139
In one survey more than half of 26,000students across 70 colleges and universities reported having at least one_____________ at some point in their lives.
Suicidal Thoughts
140
What are any interpersonal acts of imparting, conveying, or transmitting suicide-related thoughts, wishes, desires, or intent; not to be construed as the actual self-inflicted behavior or injury known as?
Suicide related communications
141
What type of suicide-related communications is a proposed method of carrying out a design that can potentially result in suicide-related behavior?
Suicide Plan
142
For reporting purposes, what level of self-harm results in death?
Self-Harm Level 3
143
Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior?
IS PATH WARM (Ideation, Substance Abuse, Purposelessness ,Anxiety, Trapped, Hopelessness, Withdrawal, Anger, Recklessness, Mood Changes)
144
_____________ is not an easy thing to do, but it is essential for suicide prevention
Asking
145
What may be helpful to lead into the question "Are you thinking about killing yourself?"
A statement of your observations
146
What mnemonic is used as an aid for what to do when you suspect someone is thinking of suicide?
ACE (Ask - Care - Escort)
147
During which step of suicide prevention may the at-risk member attempt to make a joke or attempt to deflect the direct question?
Step 1 - Ask
148
During the _____________ step of suicide prevention you should actively listen.
Care
149
During which step of suicide prevention you should remove or take possession of any means that could be used for self-injury?
Care
150
During which step of suicide prevention is it important to not promise confidentiality
Care
151
In which step of suicide prevention is active listening likely to produce relief?
Care
152
During which step of suicide prevention should you encourage the person to seek help?
Care
153
You may express optimism that the person will be helped and will feel better if it seems appropriate and genuine during which step of suicide prevention?
Care
154
During which step in suicide prevention will you adopt an attitude that you are going to help the person and this will save his/her life?
Escort
155
During which step of suicide prevention should you escort the person to the nearest emergency room, HCP, or mental
Escort
156
If you ask a person "Are you thinking about killing yourself?" and they make a joke of the question, what should you do?
Ask again.
157
If a person tacitly indicates he/she has had thoughts of suicide, what information should you get on how bad the situation is?
How, Situation, History
158
Who can you contact to acquire contact information for specific sources of help for suicide prevention?
Regional Work Life Office
159
Which personnel are required to develop Personal Fitness Plans, FormCG-6049?
All Active Duty and SELRES
160
All active duty members must engage in fitness activity as outlined in their Personal Fitness Plan a minimum of_____________ per week.
180
161
It is strongly recommended that the Personal Fitness Plan include _____________minutes per week of cardiorespiratory activity.
150
162
It is strongly recommended that the Personal Fitness Plan include _____________minutes per week of strength training.
30 minutes
163
Physical fitness guidelines for general health as set forth by the CDC include what amount of moderate-intensity aerobic activity per week?
150 minutes
164
Physical fitness guidelines for genera health as set forth by the CDC include muscle-strengthening activities for a minimum of how many days per week?
two or more days
165
Who do you submit your completed Personal Fitness Plan to?
Supervisor
166
When must your completed Personal Fitness Plan be submitted?
April and October
167
Who is required to keep your most current Personal Fitness Plan must be kept on file or electronically saved?
Member and their Supervisor
168
What is the minimum amount of time for exercise sessions, in order to be beneficial?
10 minutes
169
In general, physical activity should be spread out over at least how many days per week.
3 days
170
According to the CDC, adults should perform 150 minutes per week of aerobic activity at what level of intensity?
moderate
171
Who are required to use installed occupant restraints while operating or riding in a motor vehicle on any Coast Guard installation?
All personnel operating or riding it
172
What term is defined as the process (or steps) involved in managing one's personal finances, including income, expenses, and investments, for an individual or family?
Personal Financial Management
173
The definition of which term includes prudent day-to-day management of personal finances?
Personal Financial Readiness
174
What term is defined as the act of evaluating an individual's or family's income and expenditures and recommending short- and long-term actions to achieve financial goals and ensure individual, family and mission readiness?
Financial planning and counseling
175
The PFMP consists of how many elements?
7
176
CFS's fall under what element of the PFMP?
Counseling
177
Onboard a ship salutes shall be dispensed with after the first daily meeting with what exception?
Commanding officers, officers senior to CO
178
When are salutes rendered by persons in motor vehicles?
Passengers render and return
179
You will not render a salute if the person to be saluted does not approach within what distance?
30 paces
180
NTAS consists of how many types of advisories?
2 (Bulletins and Alerts)
181
Which FPCON applies when an increased and more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists?
Bravo
182
Which FPCON require the movement of cars and objects at least 25 meters from buildings?
Bravo
183
Which FPCON applies when a general threat of possible terrorist activity exists but warrants only routine security posture?
Normal
184
Which FPCON requires that the implemented security measures must be capable of being maintained indefinitely?
Alpha
185
Which FPCON requires weapons to be issued to guards?
Charlie
186
Which Type I PFD provides greater mobility when the use of law enforcement or other types of gear are required?
Type V
187
Boat characteristics include which types of frames?
Transverse, longitudinal
188
Members with a PFB waiver will trim facial hair as to not to exceed what length?
¼" (one quarter inch)
189
Which grooming standard applies to moustaches?
Will not extend below top of upper lip, or beyond corners of mouth
190
Who can grant a permanent shaving waiver for personnel who are diagnosis with Pseudofolliculitis Barbae (PFB)?
CO/OIC
191
Whose proposal to Congress resulted in the establishment of the Revenue Cutter Service 1790?
Alexander Hamilton
192
The United States Coast Guard was formed when the Revenue Cutter Service and Life-Saving Service were merged on what date?
1915
193
On August 7, 1789, Congress gave responsibility for constructing and maintaining all of the Nation's aid to navigation to what entity?
Treasury Department
194
The Revenue Marine were charged with what single purpose?
Collect Taxes
195
In 1838 Congress enacted legislation in response to steamboat boiler explosions that would evolve over the next several decades into what agency?
US Life Saving Service
196
The Revenue Cutter Service began with_____________ cutters at a cost of $1000 each.
10
197
The USCG celebrates its birthday on_____________ of each year.
August 4th
198
In what year were Revenue Marine cutters ordered to begin limited cruising during the winter months to assist mariners in distress?
1831
199
When was the United States Coast Guard transferred to Department of Transportation?
1967
200
When was the United States Coast Guard transferred to the Department of Homeland Security?
2003
201
Alexander Hamilton was appointed to be the first _____________.
Secretary of the Treasury
202
Who was the first Commandant of the United States Coast Guard?
Bertholf
203
Which Revenue Cutter helped lead the Overland Expedition to rescue of rescue missions of marooned whalers near Point Barrow, Alaska?
Bear
204
Who was the Coast Guard's first aviator?
Elmer Stone
205
On June 19, 1911, Ellsworth Price Bertholf was named Captain Commandant of the_____________.
Revenue Cutter Service
206
Who was awarded the Medal of Honor for evacuating a battalion of Marines trapped by Japanese forces on September 27, 1942?
Douglas Munroe
207
Where did SM1 Douglas Munro aid a battalion of Marines during landing and rescue?
Point Cruz, Guadalcanal
208
SM1 Douglas Munro was in charge of 24Higgins boats during an amphibious invasion at Point Cruz, _____________.
Guadalcanal
209
What vessel is credited with firing the first naval shot of the Civil War?
USRC Harriet Lane
210
The USCGC TAMPA was sunk by_____________ during World War I
German U-Boat
211
The USCGC TAMPA was sunk with how many people onboard?
111
212
What legislation forced the bulk of the burden for enforcing Prohibition in U.S. waters to the Coast Guard?
Volstead Act (Prohibition)
213
An explosion that killed more than 1,600people in Nova Scotia led the Congress to establish _____________ for the United States Coast Guard.
Captain of the Port Offices
214
Captain of the Port duties were assigned to the United States Coast Guard during which military conflict?
WWI
215
During World War I, how many USCG cutters went overseas to perform convoy escort duty between Gibraltar and Great Britain?
6
216
When did the Coast Guard begin carrying out neutrality patrols in the North Atlantic?
September 1939
217
In what year was the Coast Guard tasked with open-ocean weather patrol duties in the North Atlantic?
1940
218
During Vietnam, the United States Coast Guard conducted _____________, which patrolled the South Vietnamese coast to stop the flow of war materials and personnel from going to the Viet Cong.
Operation Market Time
219
During Vietnam, how many 82-footpatrol boats from the Coast Guard were sent to Vietnam to support maritime interdiction operations?
26
220
By the end of "Operation Market Time" the Coast Guard had boarded nearly how many sampans and junks?
¼ million (Quarter Million)
221
Where did Coast Guard Port Security Units deploy in 1990-1991?
Persian Gulf
222
Who pioneered the use of aviation for aw enforcement and search-and-rescue operations for the Coast Guard?
Elmer Stone
223
Women and African Americans were integrated into the United States Coast Guard by the end of _____________.
WWII
224
When was the Homeland Security Act passed?
2002
225
The United States Coast Guard mobilized more than 2,700 reservists in the largest homeland security operation since World War II, following _____.
9/11
226
The United States Coast Guard were among the first to respond to the attack on the World Trade Center on _____________.
9/11
227
In 2005, the United States Coast Guard responded to thousands of oil and HAZMAT spills, totaling over 9 million gallons, following _____________.
Hurricane Katrina
228
Nearly half of the United States Coast Guard's Selected Reserves were used to carry out homeland security and national defense missions at home and abroad beginning in 2003, as part of what Operations?
Iraqi/Enduring Freedom
229
In which year did the United States Coast Guard conducted the largest domestic SAR mission in United States history following Hurricane Katrina?
2005
230
Who served as Boarding Officer on the USS FIREBOLT (PC 10) in Iraq when he was mortally wounded?
DC3 Nathan B. Bruckenthal
231
DC3 Nathan B. Bruckenthal was posthumously awarded which award for his actions on 24 April 2004?
Bronze Star
232
Who was the first African-American to command a U.S. Life-Saving Station?
Richard Etheridge
233
Captain Richard Etheridge was appointed as Keeper to which Life-Saving Station?
Pea Island
234
The Life-Saving Station where Captain Richard Etheridge was appointed as keeper had a reputation as _____.
"Being the tautest on the North Caroline Coast"
235
The Pea Island Life-Saving Station is located near _____________.
Cape Fear, NC
236
For their actions in saving the entire crew of E.S. Newman, the all African American crew of the Pea Island Life-Saving Station, were awarded _____________.
Gold Lifesaving Medal (took till 1996)
237
Which Coast Guard officer took part of the planning effort for the liberation of Cherbourg, France, a key supply depot, as part of Operation Overlord (D-Day)preparations?
Quentin Walsh
238
Which Coast Guard officer took part of the planning effort for the liberation of Cherbourg, France, a key supply depot, as part of Operation Overlord (D-Day)preparations?
Quentin Walsh
239
Who was awarded the Navy Cross during World War II while serving as a Commanding Officer of a specially trained U.S. Naval Reconnaissance Party?
Quentin Walsh
240
What was awarded to LCDR Walsh for engaging in active street fighting with the enemy during World War II?
Navy Cross
241
Which Coast Guard officer liberated 53paratroopers who had been prisoners since D-Day?
Quentin Walsh
242
Who was the Coast Guard's first female helicopter pilot?
Colleen A. Cain
243
What year did LT Collen A. Cain become the Coast Guard's third female aviator?
1979
244
DC3 Bruckenthal detected a small, unidentified _________ proceeding toward the Al Basra Oil Terminal in Iraqi territorial waters and moved his team into position to screen the oil terminal.
Dhow
245
Lieutenant Colleen A. Cain was awarded the _______ for saving a three-year-old boy involved in a boating accident.
CG Achievement Medal
246
Lieutenant Colleen A. Cain, Lieutenant Commander Buzz Johnson, and Aviation Survivalman David Thompson made the ultimate sacrifice in service to their nation and fellow countrymen when their helicopter crashed, in route to a sinking vessel, in the State of _____________.
Hawaii
247
The Union Jack is flown on the _____________of the ship.
Jackstaff/Bow while moored
248
The Coast Guard Ensign consists of _____perpendicular stripes, alternating red and white.
16
249
How many times has the National Ensign been changed since 1776?
26
250
The _____________ is displayed as a mark of authority for boardings, examinations, and seizure of vessels for the purpose of enforcing U.S. laws.
CG Ensign
251
The _____________ is flown on the bow of a vessel, only while at anchor or moored in port.
Union Jack
252
The _____________ is the canton of the United States Flag.
Union Jack
253
The _____________ provided a symbol of authority, as neither officer nor crew had uniforms.
CG Ensign
254
The _____________ was created to fly in place of the national flag while in American waters.
CG Ensign
255
The current design of the _____________ has 16 red and white stripes.
CG Ensign
256
The design of the Coast Guard Ensign was ordered by Secretary of the Treasury, Oliver Wolcott, on _____________.
01Aug1799
257
What is carried in all ceremonies representing heroic actions in all naval encounters from 1798 to the present?
Battle Streamers
258
Battle streamers are attached to the_____________, replacing cords and tassels.
CG Standard
259
During parades and ceremonies, the Coast Guard Standard is adorned with_____________.
43 Battle Streamers
260
Individual units may only display those_____________ that they have earned.
Battle Streamers
261
Only _____________ may display a complete set of battle streamers.
Major HQ Commands
262
The design of the _____________ is obscure, but it may have evolved from an early jack.
CG Standard
263
The presence of the _____________ indicates that a cutter is under the command of a commissioned officer.
Commissioning Pennant
264
The United States Coast Guard adopted battle streamers in 1968, following the practice established by the _____________.
USMC
265
The United States Coast Guard is authorized a total of _____________ battle streamers.
43
266
The design of the _____________ is obscure, but it may have evolved from an early jack.
CG Standard
267
This flag is the upper left corner of the Coast Guard Ensign.
CG Standard
268
This flag is used during parades and ceremonies.
CG Standard
269
The _____________ consists of a wide red bar forward of a narrow blue bar both canted at 64 degrees on the bow with CG emblem superimposed.
CG Stripe
270
The _____________ is used on invitations, programs, certificates, diplomas, and greetings.
CG Seal
271
The _____________ is used on official documents and records of the Coast Guard.
CG Seal
272
The _____________ consists of a wide red bar forward of a narrow blue bar both canted at 64 degrees on the bow with CG emblem superimposed.
CG Stripe
273
The _____________ was developed in the1960s by the industrial design firm Raymond Loewy/Williams Snaith, Inc.
CG Stripe
274
The Coast Guard _____________ was ordered to be used on the Coast Guard Ensign as a distinctive logo in 1957.
CG Emblem
275
The first Coast Guard Seal and Emblem were approved by Treasury Secretary Andrew W. Mellon in _____________.
1927
276
The historical significance of the Coast Guard _____________ dates back to the Revenue Cutter Service.
CG Shield
277
When was the Coast Guard Motto adopted?
1896-1897
278
The earliest recorded use of the phrase "Semper Paratus" appeared in a newspaper article in the city of_____________, praising the Revenue Cutter Ingham.
New Orleans
279
What language did Semper Paratus originate from?
Latin
280
The music for Semper Paratus was written by _____________.
Francis Saltus
281
What is the Active and Reserve Gold Badges assignment standard tour length?
2 years
282
Who must provide the Commander/Commanding Officer endorsement for all CSELs except the MCPOCG and MCPO-CGR?
o-6 or higher
283
Which Stress Management awareness and skills training promotes an understanding of stress, awareness of support resources, and provides practical stress navigation tools to help build resilience of Sailors, families, and commands?
Operational Stress Control
284
How can you contact the Employee Assistance Program?
1-855-CGSUPRT
285
Who is eligible for the Office of Work-Life Stress Management Program?
AD, Dependents, Reservists, Civilian Employees
286
Stress is defined within the Coast Guard Stress Management Program as:
The nonspecific response of the body to any demands places upon it or what you feel after encountering a stressor
287
What program is intended to assist you in becoming familiar with your new community and the resources available when you are reassigned?
Relocation Assistance Program
288
Who can provide you with community information, demographics information, relocation packages, and state information when you are reassigned?
Transition/Relocation Managers
289
Transition/Relocation Managers may provide _____ with local resource information.
Welcome Packages
290
How should you contact your Transition/Relocation Manager?
Regional Work-Life Staff
291
Your _______ can help you utilize the Office of Work-Life Adoption Reimbursement Program.
Family Resource Specialist (FRS)
292
Who is your point of contact for information relating to the Coast Guard Scholarship Program?
Family Resource Specialist (FRS)
293
What is the title for staff members at Health, Safety, and Work-Life Regional Practices specifically trained to assist individuals and commands when maltreatment incidents occur?
Family Advocacy Specialist
294
What form is used to enroll my dependent family member with medical special needs into the SNP?
DD-2792
295
One purpose of the Family Advocacy Program is to _____.
Prevention, identification, reporting, investigation, and treatment of intimate partner and child maltreatment.
296
The purpose of the _____________ is prevention, identification, reporting, investigation, and treatment of intimate partner and child maltreatment.
Family Advocacy Program (FAP)
297
CGSUPRT is part of HSWL's _____________CG-111 Site.
Office of Work Life
298
The evaluee must perform which of the following functions within the EES?
Familiarization, Performance, Eval input, Acknowledgment, Verification
299
Which is true of hazing and bullying?
USCG Regulations, CIM 5000.3, Article 4.1.15
300
The Discipline and Conduct manual stipulates that coercing or encouraging another member to fully or partially disrobe is an example of _____________.
Hazing
301
If a person knowingly and voluntarily submits to hazing, _____.
They may be held accountable
302
A romantic relationship involving a former recruiter and a prospective member are prohibited until what point?
365 days since last contact
303
Enlisted instructors at enlisted entry level accession programs engaging in a romantic relationship with an individual who has graduated from, or who last attended, an entry level accession program within the preceding _____.
365 days
304
Violating policy on limited personal use of government office equipment and services is punishable under which article of the UCMJ?
Article 92
305
What is the definition of substance abuse?
The use of substance by a member that causes other problems or places the members safety at risk.
306
Key behaviors for low-risk alcohol use include what model?
0,1,2,3
307
How many grams of pure alcohol is in a "standard" drink?
14g
308
How many fluid ounces of table wine are in a standard drink?
5oz
309
How many fluid ounces of beer are in a standard drink?
12oz
310
Which of the following is a reason women face higher risks of drinking alcohol?
Less body weight and less percentage of water mass
311
Where can you find additional clarifications on low risk drinking guidelines?
NIAAA
312
What is a standard drink for 80 proof hard liquor?
1.5oz
313
What is considered binge drinking for men?
5 drinks in 2 hours
314
What is considered binge drinking for women?
4 drinks in 2 hours
315
Binge drinking is a pattern of drinking that brings BAC to what percent or higher?
0.08
316
What is Prime for Life training used for?
For members who show signs of misusing alcohol
317
What is the dollar value limit placed on gifts given to an official superior on an occasional basis?
$10.00
318
The Code of Conduct is an ethical guide for members of the Armed Forces that has _____________ articles.
6
319
Which of the following is one of the four firearm safety rules?
1. Treat all firearms as if they were loaded
2. Always maintain proper muzzle control
3. Keep finger off the trigger until on target and ready
to shoot.
4. Know your target and what is behind it
320
Class "A" Course graduates who had their advancement to E-4 withheld upon graduation due to receiving an "UNSAT" conduct while attending a Class "A" Course, are required to complete how many months of good conduct prior to being advanced?
6 months
321
Which of the following ratings have no direct path of advancement from E-3 toE-4?
Investigator (IV)
322
How is risk defined within Risk Management?
The possibility of loss or injury due to exposure to a hazard
323
What is the first choice in the standard of order of precedence for Risk Management controls?
To use design and engineering solutions to achieve minimum risk
324
In the Risk Management process, what action follows an evaluation?
Feedback
325
Which of the following is a Risk Assessment pitfall?
Over optimism, Misrepresentation, Alarmism, Indiscrimination, Prejudice, Inaccuracy, Enumeration
326
In the first step of the Risk Management Process Cycle, "Why" analysis is used in which action?
Action 3
327
Develop controls is an action for which step in the Risk Management process?
Step 3
328
Within the Risk Management process, which is a type of control can be applied to hazards to mitigate the risk?
Engineering, Physical, Administrative, Educational, And Operational.
329
What mnemonic provides a simple and convenient aide to identify some approaches to eliminate or reduce risk?
STAAR (Spread out, Transfer, Avoid, Accept, and Reduce)
330
In which step of the Risk Management Process Cycle does a member, establish accountability?
Step 4 (Implement Controls)
331
In step 1 of the RM process, if time is limited and a thorough task analysis cannot be performed what model can be used?
PEACE model (Planning, Event complexity, Asset selection, Communications, and Environmental conditions)
332
The movement of forces, equipment, or tasks to other areas in order to avoid risk to the entire mission refers to what control option to eliminate or reduce risk?
Spread Out (STAAR Method)
333
Which of the following is the foundation of the risk management process?
Hazard Identification
334
What is defined as, "the possibility of loss or injury due to exposure to a hazard," in COMDTINST 3500.3A?
Risk
335
What is defined as "a process to identify, assess, control, mitigate and manage hazards associated with an operation or activity"?
Risk Management
336
How many actions are there in the Assess Hazards step in the RM process?
3 Actions
337
What does the RM process rely on to identify, assess, control, mitigate, and manage potential hazards?
Effective teamwork and communication
338
Coast Guard operations are inherently complex, dynamic, dangerous, and by nature, involve ________________________________.
Acceptance of some level of risk
339
Deliberate use of the Risk Management process _________________ by reducing member exposure to hazards.
Increases mission success
340
What provides a framework to identify and assess hazards, evaluate the risk level, and weigh the risk against the potential benefits?
The Risk Management process
341
What initial deliberate analysis is updated prior to any mission activity throughout the day to satisfy the time-critical risk management requirement, and expedite response actions?
GAR 2.0/Deliberate Risk Analysis
342
When is RM most effective?
When risks are identified early with ample time to evaluate andimplement mitigations.
343
When is Risk Management most effective?
When risks are identified early with ample time to evaluate andimplement mitigations.
344
Since all Coast Guard missions and operating environments are fluid and dynamic, the Risk Management process is ________.
Fluid and adaptive
345
What are captured in GAR 2.0 to make warranted risk decisions?
PEACE/STAAR analyses
346
What model is used to identify those elements considered essential to the safe and effective execution of an operation or activity?
PEACE Model
347
What outlines potential strategies to mitigate and/or control risk?
STAAR Model
348
What should units use at the start of each day or watch?
GAR 2.0
349
What is a function of physiological and psychological factors that support the ability of crewmembers to perform safely and effectively?
Crew Endurance
350
At a minimum, units must include all elements of which model in their GAR2.0?
PEACE Model
351
How many actions are there in the last step of the RM process?
3
352
Develop Controls is the first action in which step of the RM process?
Step 3
353
Documentation is critical to the success of which step in the overall RM process?
Step 5
354
The FIRST step in the IDP process is to_____.
Assess your competencies
355
What is the form number for the Enlisted IDP?
CG-5357
356
Where are deadlines for Personal Data Extract (PDE) verifications and corrections provided?
PDEs must be verified and/or corrected prior to
the deadline date published in the ALCGENL or ALCGRSV message
announcing the upcoming SWE.
357
On your Personal Data Extract (PDE), Time in Rating (TIR) and Time in Service (TIS) are computed up to what point?
(TED) Terminal Eligibility Date
358
On your Personal Data Extract (PDE), award points are earned up to what point?
(SED) SWE Eligibility Date
359
Sea Time points on a Personal Data Extract (PDE) are calculated at what rate?
(SED) SWE Eligibility Date
360
Once you have chosen all desired Job Basket boxes for an eResume, what should be your next step?
Save to job basket.
361
Which mobile app can you refer members to for information about the Coast Guard support programs and services to members and their families?
CGSUPRT / USCG HSWL
362
Where can you access a comprehensive list of recovery assistance resources for sexual assault survivors?
Sexual Assault Prevention Response & Recovery (SAPRR) - (CG-114) PORTAL PAGE
363
Where can you print the two-page document from Office of Work-Life Programs, Personal Financial Management Program (PFMP) to provide financial counselling resources?
Office of Work-Life Programs : Personal Financial Management Program (PFMP) PORTAL PAGE
364
At which Office of Work-Life Program site can you find a list of EAPCs?
Office of Work-Life Programs : Employee Assistance Program (EAP)
365
What is the National Suicide Prevention Lifeline number?
1-800-273-TALK (8255)
366
What is the telephone number for the SAPS Duty Line?
(757-628-4329)
367
Scholarships and school liaison programs within the Office of Work-Life (CG-111) are located under which dropdown tab?
Family Support
368
When wearing the women’s overblouse with the Service Dress Blue (SDB), the bottom of the overblouse shall _____.
not be visible.
369
What does the women's long sleeve light blue shirt have?
Fly front covering
370
What is the only alteration that is authorized for the light blue shirt?
Sleeve of the long sleeve shirt may be shortened. Both
the long and short-sleeved versions of the light blue shirt may be altered to
provide a better or more athletic fit.
371
Commands may prohibit the wear of which type of blue crew neck t-shirt in spaces subject to intense heat or fire?
Blue Crew Neck
T-Shirt. (Moisture
Wicking)
372
What shirt(s) are women authorized to wear with the Tropical Blue Short Sleeve (TBSS) uniform?
Women may wear
| women’s shirt, Overblouse, or men’s shirt.)
373
When wearing the Tropical Blue Short Sleeve (TBSS) uniform, men are required to wear _____.
Oxfords required for men
374
When wearing the Tropical Blue Short Sleeve (TBSS), what footwear is authorized for women wearing slacks?
Oxfords, pumps, or flats are worn with the slacks.
375
What head gear is authorized for wear with the Tropical Blue Long Sleeve (TBLS) uniform?
Combination cap or Garrison cap.
376
What is not authorized to wear with the Tropical Blue Long Sleeve (TBLS) uniform?
Ribbons
377
Oxfords are not authorized _____.
when the skirt is worn.
378
The women's shirt and women's slacks align with the belt so that the _____.
Align the belt so that the tab edge touches the wearer’s RIGHT side of the buckle.
379
In all cases, the non-tab edge of the black belt with brass tip must align with the _____.
The non-tab edge of the belt must align with the fly.
380
Which uniform item is not authorized to wear with the SDB jacket?
Wash and Wear
| trousers/slacks
381
What is an authorized color for sunglasses frames?
Unadorned black or navy blue material; gold or
| silver wire
382
You can wear a maximum of _____ ring(s) per hand.
One
383
Which of the following is a prohibited watch color?
Diamond covered, neon, white, and bright
| colors.
384
Engagement/wedding ring sets or _____ are counted as one ring.
class/wedding ring sets
385
According to COMDTINST M1020.6K, fitness trackers are _____.
considered watches.
386
Which is correct for the insignia on the garrison cover when worn by an enlisted member?
The center of the insignia is
placed 1½ inch from the bottom
of the cap, and 2 inches back
from the front crease
387
When wearing the Tropical Blue Long Sleeve (TBLS) uniform, _____ will be worn over the wearer’s left pocket.
one full-size insignia is
| authorized.
388
A member has requested to be removed voluntarily from the advancement list. Which CG-3307 template would you use?
AR-07
389
You have been directed to prepare a CG-3307 to document counseling for inappropriate relationships. Which template would you use?
PD-12
390
Which template would you use to prepare a General Negative CG-3307?
PD-07
SKCS SWE
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