Eponyms Flashcards

(54 cards)

1
Q

Hodgkin’s ______ ?

A

Lymphoma
-Lymphoma with Reed-Sternberg cells.

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2
Q

Philadelphia ______?

A

Chromosome

-Chromosome abnormality (Cr22) present in >80% of people with CML.

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3
Q

Rouleaux _____ ?

A

Formation

-RBCs stacked together: Occurs when there is a high serum plasma protein.
-E.g., in multiple myeloma due to gammopathy.

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4
Q

Mantoux _____ _____ ______ ?

A

Tuberculin Skin Test.

-Test to see whether a patient has had a previous tuberculosis infection.

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5
Q

Gilbert’s ______ ?

A

Disease.
-Unconjugated cause of Jaundice
-Fairly benign

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6
Q

Crohn’s ____?

A

Disease:
-Granulomatous
-Skip lesions
-Can affect from mouth to anus
-Full wall-thickness of inflammation
-Cobblestones + Fibrotic mucosa
-Can cause obstruction

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7
Q

Hirschsprung’s _____?

A

Disease:
-Ganglion cells don’t exist all the way round and don’t contract the bowel: Blockage.
-Grossly dilated colon

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8
Q

Budd-Chiari ____ ?

A

Syndrome:
-Vascular disease- Occlusion of hepatic veins.
-Post-Hepatic cause of portal hypertension.

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9
Q

Rawlins-Thompson _____ ?

A

System (for adverse drug reactions).
A: Augmented - Predictable/dose-related.
B: Bizzare - Unpredictable reaction
C: Chronic - Occurs after long term therapy.
D: Delayed - Occurs many years after treatment.
E: End of use - Withdrawal to long term use.

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10
Q

Wernicke’s Encephalopathy?

A

(Due to thiamine deficiency)
-Ataxia
-Opthalamoplegia
-Confusion
Commonly associated with alcohol dependence

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11
Q

Wernicke’s Area?

A

Point in the brain for understanding speech.
-Lesion = sensory aphasia

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12
Q

Duke’s ______ ?

A

Score/Criteria for infective endocarditis
-Pathological Lesions
-Microbes in vegetation
-Blood cultures positive
-Evidence of endocardial involvement
-Fever (min)
-Previous endocardial injury

**ALSO Duke’s Staging
-For colorectal cancer
-A - within submucosa
-B1 - not through bowel wall
-B2 - through bowel wall
-C1 - not through bowel wall, but lymph node metastases
-C2 - through bowel wall, lymph node metastases
-D - distant metastases

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13
Q

Chapel-Hill _____ ?

A

Classification (Artery Disorders):
-Primary (Large): Giant Cell Arteritis
-Primary (Med/Small): Wegner’s Granulomatosis
-Secondary (Large): Aortitis in rheumatoid arthritis.
-Secondary (Med/Small): Autoimmune/Drugs/Malignancy.

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14
Q

Hutchinson’s _____ ?

A

Sign
-Rash on nose with shingles: Sign of nasocillary nerve involvement (ophthalmic nerve, trigeminal): Sign that corneal sensation may be lost.

OR
-Pigmentation of the nail and proximal nail fold
-Sign of melanoma.

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15
Q

Fanconi _____ ?

A

Syndrome
-Failure of nephron to reabsorb sugar, amino acids, and bicarbonate- which present in the urine.
-Also other ions, especially calcium/phosphate.
-Main causes: Cystenosis or Myeloma
-Cystine = PCT cell damage.
-Myeloma = Light chain lining of PCT.

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16
Q

Von Hippel Lindau _____ ?

A

Disease
-Autosomal dominant disease causing a reduction in tumour suppression genes»_space;> Renal Cell Carcinoma.
-Loss of VHL gene (tumour suppressor gene).

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17
Q

Goodpasture’s ____ ?

A

Syndrome
-Attack on type IV collagen in lungs and glomeruli, causing basement membrane dysfunction.
-AKA “Anti-glomerular basement membrane disease”.

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18
Q

Rotterdam _____ ?

A

Criteria for the Diagnosis of PCOS:
-Menstrual irregularity
-Clinical or biochemical evidence of -hyperandrogenism
-Polycystic ovaries on USS (>12 cysts)

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19
Q

Eisenmenger’s _____ ?

A

Syndrome
-Secondary pulmonary hypertension and shunt-reversal due to VSD
-Untreated congenital cardiac defect leading to cyanosis due to ^^

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20
Q

Bradford Hill _____?

A

Criteria
-A group of minimal conditions necessary to provide adequate evidence of a causal relationship

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21
Q

Tanner _____?

A

Scale
-Used to describe physical development based on external sex characteristics

12 for buds and 16 for menses = Upper limit in females
Testicles first then penis in men.

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22
Q

Gleason ____ ?

A

Grading
-Grading for prostate cancer

1- Small uniform
2- Space between glands
3- Infiltration from cells from gland at margin.
4- Irregular masses of neoplastic cells and fewer gland cells.
5- Lack of, or occasional, glands + sheets of cells.

23
Q

Creutzfeldt-Jakob ____?

A

Disease
-Rare and fatal condition that affects the brain
-Causes brain damage that worsens rapidly over time
-Caused by prions, e.g “Mad cow disease”.

24
Q

Murphy’s _____ ?

A

Sign,
-Inspirational arrest on palpitation of RUQ.
-Suggestive of cholecystitis.
-Only positive if not repeatable on L side

25
Friedreich's ____ ?
Ataxia (FA) -Autosomal Recessive cerebellar Ataxia -Increased risk of CV issues / Diabetes
26
Becker's ____ ?
Muscular Dystrophy -X-Linked Recessive -Issue with dystrophin, less severe than Duchenne's -Onset around age 10-20years.
27
Uhthoff's ____ ?
Phenomenon -Paraesthesia -Intolerance to heat
28
L'hermitte's ____ ?
Sign -Sudden sensation electric-like shock pasing down back of neck and into spine -May then radiate out into arms and legs -Usually triggered by bending head forward towards chest -In MS
29
Rovsing's _____ ?
Sign -Sign of appendicitis -Palpation of the left lower quadrant of a person's abdomen --> increases pain felt in the right lower quadrant --> patient is said to have a positive Rovsing's sign --> may have appendicitis.
30
Trendelenburg's _____ ?
Sign -Of dysfunction of hip when assessing gait -Positive indicated weakness of hip abductor muscles
31
Salter-Harris ____ ____ ?
Fracture Classification: SALTR -1: S LIPPED- Transverse Fracture through the growth plate. -2: A BOVE- Fracture through growth plate and metaphysis (Away from joint) -3: L OWER- Fracture through growth plate and epiphysis. -4: T HROUGH- Fracture through the growth plate, epiphysis, and metaphysis. -5: R AMMED- Fracture leading to erasure of growth plate
32
Pemberton's ____ ?
Sign -Evaluate venous obstruction in patients with goitres -Positive when bilateral arm elevation causes facial plethora
33
Ann-Arbor ____ ?
Staging -Staging for lymphoma -I: Involvement of one lymph node -II: More than one -III: Both sides of diaphragm -IV: Other organ involvement B = Weight loss, fever, night-sweats.
34
Beck's ____ ?
Triad Associated with cardiac tamponade: -Hypotension -Muffled heart sounds -Raised JVP
35
Gell and Coombs ____ ?
Classification (of hypersensitivity) -1: IgE (Allergic/Anaphylaxis) -2: Antibody-Mediated (Organ rejection etc- Cells DIE) -3: Immune Complex (Farmer's lungs etc) -4: T-Cell mediated / Delayed (TB) -5: Antibody-Mediated (MG etc. Cells DONT DIE but receptors are BLOCKED)
36
Kernig's ____
Sign -Severe stiffness of hamstrings -> inability to straighten leg when hip is flexed to 90 degrees -Positive indicates meningitis or SAH
37
Kussmaul's ____
Sign -Cardiological sign -Can be seen in constrictive pericarditis or cardiac tamponade -Describes paradoxical rise in JVP on inspiration Breathing -Type of hyperventilation in response to metabolic acidosis, as seen in DKA -Involves deep breathing -> attempt to expel carbon dioxide -> compensate for the metabolic acidosis
38
Schober's ____
Test -Determine if there is a decrease in spinal motion -Ankylosing spondylitis
39
Auer ____ ?
Rods -Histological sign -Present in acute myeloid leukaemia -Clumps of granular material forming elongated needles
40
Bence Jones ____
Protein -In urine -In myeloma (50-80%)
41
Centor _____ ?
Criteria for assessing chance it is group A strep. -Fever (1) -Exudate (1) -Absent Cough (1) -Anterior Cervical Lymphadenopathy (1) -Age 3-14 (1) -Age 15-44 (0) -Age >44 (-1)
42
Zollinger-Ellison _____
Syndrome -Results from overproduction of gastrin -Due to neuroendocrine tumour - gastrinoma -Ulcer formation
43
Cheyne-Stokes _____
Respiration -abnormal breathing pattern characterized by oscillation between apnea and hyperpnea -Crescendo-diminuendo ventilation pattern -Occurs due to CO2 retention and then CO2 release and decreased sensitivity to oxygen.
44
Light's _____
Criteria -When assessing pleural fluid -Exudative or transudative >0.5, >0.6 Ratio of Protein, LDH of ascites to serum.
45
Meniscus _____
Sign -Pleural effusion -CXR: Costophrenic angle obliterated, obscured diaphragmatic contour & heart
46
Coombs _____
Test -For autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
47
Howell-jolly _____
Bodies -Seen in sickle cell anaemia
48
Psammoma ____
Bodies -Round microscopic calcification collections -Found in neoplasms like: Papillary thyroid carcinoma
49
Cullen's _____
Sign -Peri-umbilical bruising in pancreatitis
50
Grey-Turner's _____
Sign -Flank bruising (caused by blood vessel auto-digestion and retroperitoneal haemorrhage) -Seen in pancreatitis
51
Kartagener _____
Syndrome -AKA primary ciliary dyskinesia
52
Kocher's _____ ?
Criteria (for septic joint) T>38.5 CRP>20 ESR>40 WCC>12 Cannot weight bear 3/4 = Septic Joint very likely.
53
Epworth
Slepiness scale Good for OSA.
54
Bishop's
Score for progression of labour /13 Cervical: -Consistency - Soft good (2) -Effacement - 80%+ Good (3) -Dilation - 5cm+ = good (3) -Position (Posterior...etc) anterior = good (2) Presenting Part: Foetal Station: +1/+2 = good (3) Membrane sweep first always (Not real induction) 8+ = Membrane sweep or spontenous <5 = Probably needs real induction <3 = Induction may not be successful