CEH v11 Revision > Essential Knowledge > Flashcards

Essential Knowledge Flashcards

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1
Q

OSI Model - Layer 1
1. Type
2. Data Unit

A
  1. Physical (USB, Bluetooth)
  2. Bit
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2
Q

OSI Model - Layer 2
1. Type
2. Data Unit

A
  1. Data Link (ARP, PPP)
  2. Frame
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3
Q

OSI Model - Layer 3
1. Type
2. Data Unit

A
  1. Network (IP)
  2. Packet
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4
Q

OSI Model - Layer 4
1. Type
2. Data Unit

A
  1. Transport (TCP)
  2. Segment
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5
Q

OSI Model - Layer 5
1. Type
2. Data Unit

A
  1. Session (X255, SCP)
  2. Data
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6
Q

OSI Model - Layer 6
1. Type
2. Data Unit

A
  1. Presentation (AFP, MIME)
  2. Data
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7
Q

OSI Model - Layer 7
1. Type
2. Data Unit

A
  1. Application (FTP, HTTP, SMTP)
  2. Data
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8
Q

TCP/IP Model - Layer 1
1. Type
2. OSI Layer Equivalent

A
  1. Network Access
  2. Physical (Layer 1) / Data Link (Layer 2)
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9
Q

TCP/IP Model - Layer 2
1. Type
2. OSI Layer Equivalent

A
  1. Internet
  2. Network (Layer 3)
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10
Q

TCP/IP Model - Layer 3
1. Type
2. OSI Layer Equivalent

A
  1. Transport
  2. Transport (Layer 4)
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11
Q

TCP/IP Model - Layer 4
1. Type
2. OSI Layer Equivalent

A
  1. Application
  2. Session (Layer 5), Presentation (Layer 6), Application (Layer 7)
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12
Q

How does TCP Handshake gets initialised?

A
  1. SYN
  2. SYN-ACK
  3. ACK
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13
Q

What does ARP stand for?

A

Address Resolution Protocol.

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14
Q

What is ARP used for?

A

Resolves IP address to physical address

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15
Q

What are the the 5 Network Security Zones?

A
  1. Internet
  2. Internet DMZ
  3. Production Network Zone
  4. Intranet Zone
  5. Management Network Zone
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16
Q

What does CVSS Stand for?

A

Common Vulnerability Scoring System

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17
Q

What is CVSS is used for?

A

Places numerical score based on severity for vulnerabilities and risks.

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18
Q

What does NVD stand for?

A

National Vulnerability Database

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19
Q

What is NVD?

A

US government repository of vulnerabilities

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20
Q

What are the 7 Vulnerability Categories?

A
  1. Misconfiguration
  2. Default Installation
  3. Buffer Overflow
  4. Missing Patches
  5. Design Flaws
  6. Operating System Flaws
  7. Default Passwords
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21
Q

What does EISA stand for?

A

Enterprise Information Security Architecture

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22
Q

What is EISA?

A

Process that determines how systems work within an organization

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23
Q

What are the 5 steps to Threat Modelling?

A
  1. Identify security objectives
  2. Application Overview
  3. Decompose application
  4. Identify threats
  5. Identify vulnerabilities
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24
Q

What are the 5 Phases of Risk Management?

A
  1. Risk Identification
  2. Risk Assessment
  3. Risk Treatment
  4. Risk Tracking
  5. Risk Review
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25
What are the 6 types of Security Controls?
1. Physical (Guards, Lights, Cameras) 2. Technical (Encryption, Smart Cards, Access Control lists) 3. Administrative (Training Awareness, Policies) 4. Preventative (Authentication, Alarm Bells) 5. Detective (Audits, Backups) 6. Corrective (Restore Operations)
26
What does BIA stand for?
Business Impact Analysis
27
What does MTD stand for?
Maximum Tolerable Downtime
28
What does BCP stand for?
Business Continuity Plan
29
What does DRP stand for?
Disaster Recovery Plan
30
What does ALE stand for?
Annualised Loss Expectancy
31
What does ARO stand for?
Annual Rate of Occurrence
32
What does SLE stand for?
Single Loss Expectancy
33
What is the ALE formula?
ALE (Annualised Loss Expectancy) = SLE (Single Loss Expectancy) * ARO (Annual Rate of Occurrence)
34
What does UBA stand for?
User Behavior Analysis
35
What is UBA?
Tracking users and monitoring data for malicious activity
36
CIA Triad - What are they?
1. Confidentiality (Passwords, Encryption) 2. Integrity (Hashing, Digital Signatures) 3. Availability (Anti-Dos Solutions)
37
What is Bit Flipping?
Integrity Attack - Obscure data from users.
38
What is CC commonly referred to?
Common Criteria
39
What does EAL stand for?
Evaluation Assurance Level
40
EAL - How many levels does it have?
1 - 7
41
What are the 2 Access Control Types?
1. Mandatory (MAC) 2. Discretionary (DAC)
42
What are the 4 Policy Categorisations
1. Promiscuous - Wide Open 2. Permissive - Block only known dangers 3. Pudent - Blocks most, few exceptions 4. Paranoid - Locks everything down
43
What is a phreaker?
Someone that manipulates or hacks telephone systems
44
What are the 4 Attack Types?
1. Operating System Vectors: Buffer overflows, Protocol Implementations, software defects, patch levels, authentication schemes 2. Application Level Vectors: Buffer overflows, Bugs, XSS, DoS, SQL Injection, MitM 3. Misconfiguration Examples: Improper permissions of SQL users; Access-list permit all 4. Shrink-Wrap Code Examples: Software defect in version 1.0; Defect in example CGI scripts; Default passwords
45
What are the 5 hacking phases?
1. Reconnaissance 2. Scanning & Enumeration 3. Gaining Access 4. Maintaining Access 5. Covering Tracks
46
What does SIEM stand for?
Security Incident Event Management
47
What does SOC stand for?
Security Operations Centre
48
What does SOC stand for?
Security Operations Centre
49
What are the 3 simple phases of a Penetration Test?
1. Preparation 2. Assessment 3. Post-Assessment
50
What are the 3 Law Categories?
1. Criminal Laws that protect public safety and usually have jail time attached 2. Civil Private rights and remedies 3. Common Laws that are based on societal customs
51
What does OSSTMM stand for?
Open Source Security Testing Methodology Manual
52
Who is OSSTMM maintained by?
ISECOM ( Institute for Security and Open Methodologies)
53
OSSTMM - What are the 3 types of compliance?
1. Legislative Deals with government regulations (Such as SOX and HIPAA). 2. Contractual Deals with industry / group requirement (Such as PCI DSS). 3. Standards based Deals with practices that must be followed by members of a given group/organization (Such as ITIL ,ISO and OSSTMM itself)
54
What is ISO 27001?
Security standard based on the British BS7799 standard, focuses on security governance
55
What is ISO 27002?
Standard is a collection of information security guidelines that are intended to help an organization implement, maintain, and improve its information security management.
56
What is NIST-800-53?
Catalogs security and privacy controls for federal information systems, created to help implementation of FISMA
57
What does FISMA stand for?
Federal Information Security Modernization Act
58
What is FISMA?
A law to codify the authority of the Department of Homeland Security with regards to implementation of information security policies
59
What does FITARA stand for?
Federal Information Technology Acquisition Reform Act
60
What is FITARA?
A bill that was intended to change the framework that determines how the US GOV purchases technology
61
What does HIPAA stand for?
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
62
What is HIPAA?
Law that set's privacy standards to protect patient medical records and health information shared between doctors, hospitals and insurance providers
63
What does PCI-DSS Stand for?
Payment Card Industry - Data Security Standard
64
What is PCI-DSS?
Standard for organizations handling Credit Cards, ATM cards and other POS cards
65
What is COBIT (Control Object for Information and Related Technology)?
IT Governance framework and toolset , created by ISACA and ITGI
66
What is SOX (Sarbanes-Oxley Act)?
Law that requires publicly traded companies to submit to independent audits and to properly disclose financial information
67
What is GLBA U.S Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act?
Law that protects the confidentiality and integrity of personal information that is collected by financial institutions.
68
What does CSIRT stand for?
Computer Security Incident Response Team
69
What is purpose of CSIRT?
Team provided a single point of contact when reporting computer security incidents
70
What does ITIL stand for?
Information Technology Infrastructure Library
71
What is purpose of ITIL?
An operational framework developed in the '80s that standardizes IT management procedures
72
Which of the following is an example of a Single Class A network? 1. 10.0.0.0/8 (255.0.0.0) 2. 172.16.0.0/12 (255.240.0.0) 3. 192.168.0.0/16 (255.255.0.0)
1. 10.0.0.0/8 (255.0.0.0)
73
Which of the following is an example of 16 Class B networks? 1. 10.0.0.0/8 (255.0.0.0) 2. 172.16.0.0/12 (255.240.0.0) 3. 192.168.0.0/16 (255.255.0.0)
2. 172.16.0.0/12 (255.240.0.0)
74
Which of the following is an example of 256 Class C networks? 1. 10.0.0.0/8 (255.0.0.0) 2. 172.16.0.0/12 (255.240.0.0) 3. 192.168.0.0/16 (255.255.0.0)
3. 192.168.0.0/16 (255.255.0.0)
75
What is DLP and what does it do?
Data loss prevention: Software detects potential data breaches/data exfiltration transmissions and prevents them by monitoring, detecting, and blocking sensitive data while in-use, in-motion, and at-rest
76
What is MDM and what does it do?
Mobile Device Management: Software is used for the configuration and securing of mobile devices like smartphones and tablets.
77
What is UTM and what does it consist of?
Unified Threat Management: Is a device that combines the functions of a firewall, anti-malware solution, and IDS into a single piece of hardware.
78
Where is the Regional Internet Registry located for ARIN?
North America ARIN (American Registry for Internet Numbers)
79
Where is the Regional Internet Registry located for LACNIC?
Latin America LACNIC (Latin America and Caribbean Network Information Centre)
80
Where is the Regional Internet Registry located for RIPE NCC?
Europe, Middle East, Central Asia RIPE NCC (Réseaux IP Européens Network Coordination Centre)
81
Where is the Regional Internet Registry located for AFRINIC?
Africa AFRINIC (African Network Information Centre)
82
Where is the Regional Internet Registry located for APNIC?
Asia/Pacific APNIC (Asia Pacific Network Information Centre)
83
When does the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI-DSS) performs external and internal penetration testing among organizations?
At least once a year and after any significant upgrade or modification.
84
How is False Negative best described?
Happens when no alarm was raised even though an attack has taken place.
85
What are the 5 response types to risk?
1. Acceptance 2. Avoidance 3. Transference 4. Mitigation 5. Exploitation
86
When does Secondary NS requests a zone transfer from a Primary NS?
When a Primary SOA is higher than a Secondary SOA
87
Which of the following represents the initial two commands that an IRC client sends to join an IRC network?
USER, NICK
88
How does the TCP Handshake gets terminated?
FIN ACK-FIN ACK
89
How is True Positive best described?
Alert was raised when an attack has taken place.
90
How is True Negative best described?
No alert was raised and no attack has taken place.
CEH v11 Revision
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