EVALUATION EXAM 2 Flashcards by Nikki Faye Cambel

Which of the following refers to a single sample or measurement taken at a specific point in time or over a short period, intended to represent conditions at that moment?

A. Grab sample
B. Composite sample
C. Laboratory sample
D. None of the above

A. Grab sample

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Which of the following is not considered a good sampling practice?
A. Taking several increments and combining them to form a composite sample

B. Mixing the material, if possible, before collecting the sample

C. Using a container that reacts chemically with the sample

D. Sampling frequently enough to identify process variations or cycles

C. Using a container that reacts chemically with the sample

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Which of the following situations best illustrates sampling bias?

A. Taking increments from multiple random spots in a pile

B. Collecting samples only from the top layer of a large bulk material

C. Combining small samples to form a composite

D. Using a cleaned, inert container for sampling

B. Collecting samples only from the top layer of a large bulk material

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Which of the following best distinguishes Quality Assurance (QA) from Quality Control (QC) within the laboratory QMS framework?

A. QA is conducted after the test, QC is performed before

B. QA is product-focused, QC is system-focused

C. QA focuses on process design to prevent errors; QC focuses on detecting errors in results

D. QA only involves documentation, QC only involves sample testing

C. QA focuses on process design to prevent errors; QC focuses on detecting errors in results

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A lab notices a consistent upward trend in its Levey–Jennings control chart over several days. Which is the most appropriate interpretation?

A. Random error or normal process variation
B. Increased precision due to improved technique
C. Possible systematic error affecting accuracy
D. The control sample and the blank swapped

C. Possible systematic error affecting accuracy

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A solid waste material with a pH of 3.5 would be classified as:
A. Water reactive
B. Corrosive
C. Toxic
D. Flammable

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Which of the following are important characteristics of a quality control (QC) sample in a laboratory setting?

A. It should resemble the types of samples nominally analyzed

B. It should be independent from routine test and testing conditions

C. It should be available in sufficient quantity for repeated use

D. All of the above

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What is the role of the airflow monitor on a fume hood?
A. It controls the temperature inside the hood
B. It measures the level of chemicals in the air
C. It provides light for working safely
D. It indicates if airflow is sufficient for safe operation

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Which of the following is most appropriate for neutralizing or handling a liquid acid spill in the laboratory?
A. Soda ash
B. Potassium permanganate
C. Activated charcoal
D. Acetic acid

A. Soda ash

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Which of the following correctly matches a fume hood component with its function?

A. Airfoil – directs air into the exhaust plenum to remove fumes

B. Baffles – adjust airflow evenly throughout the hood interior

C. Sash – allows chemical storage during non-operating periods

D. Exhaust plenum – smooths airflow into the hood to reduce turbulence

B. Baffles – adjust airflow evenly throughout the hood interior

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Which of the following statements about the laboratory chemical hood are true?

I. All work should be carried out at least 15 cm (6 inches) inside from the front edge of the hood.

II. Before starting work, ensure the hood exhaust system is functioning properly.

III. Store hazardous chemicals in the hood to contain fumes.

IV. The performance of the laboratory chemical hood is highly dependent on its location.

A. I and II
B. II, III, and IV
C. I, II, and III
D. I, II, and IV

D. I, II, and IV

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What is the recommended minimum distance between an eyewash station and a safety shower to allow simultaneous use?
A. 1 foot
B. 3 feet
C. 5 feet
D. 10 feet

C. 5 feet

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Which fire extinguisher type is best suited for extinguishing fires involving energized electrical equipment (Class C fires), and why?

A. Water – because it cools the fuel

B. Foam – because it forms a blanket over the fuel

C. Carbon dioxide – because it displaces oxygen without conducting electricity

D. Wet chemical – because it reacts with the fuel to form a foam layer

C. Carbon dioxide – because it displaces oxygen without conducting electricity

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Under RA 9514, which class of fires involves flammable liquids and gases, and what type of extinguisher is typically recommended?
A. Class A – Water extinguisher
B. Class B – Foam or dry chemical extinguisher
C. Class C – Wet chemical extinguisher
D. Class D – Halon substitute extinguisher

B. Class B – Foam or dry chemical extinguisher

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Considering the fire triangle, removing which element is the most effective method for using a foam extinguisher?
A. Fuel, by creating a barrier between fuel and oxygen
B. Heat, by cooling the burning material
C. Oxygen, by smothering the fire surface
D. Heat, by absorbing the energy of the reaction

C. Oxygen, by smothering the fire surface

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A laboratory consistently experiences inconsistent chemical disposal practices and recurring minor chemical spills. Based on the issues discussed, which combination of interventions would most directly address these issues?

A. Increase emergency equipment and use of disposable PPE

B. Implement a chemical hygiene plan and reinforce safety training

C. Upgrade labeling systems and install more air filtration units

D. Reduce lab occupancy and replace glassware with plastic alternatives

B. Implement a chemical hygiene plan and reinforce safety training

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In a high-humidity lab where fogging is a concern, which type of goggles is recommended to maintain clear visibility?
A. Laser safety goggles
B. Anti-fog goggles
C. Face shield with goggles
D. Standard safety goggles

B. Anti-fog goggles

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Which piece of equipment or resource is most critical for responding to a biological spill or exposure?
A. Fire extinguisher
B. AED (Automated External Defibrillator)
C. Biohazard spill kits and disinfectants
D. Gas shutoff valve

C. Biohazard spill kits and disinfectants

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Which combination of NFPA ratings indicates a substance that is extremely flammable, poses a severe health hazard, and is unstable at high temperatures?
A. Health: 4, Flammability: 4, Reactivity: 1
B. Health: 3, Flammability: 4, Reactivity: 4
C. Health: 4, Flammability: 3, Reactivity: 2
D. Health: 2, Flammability: 4, Reactivity: 0

A. Health: 4, Flammability: 4, Reactivity: 1

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Which type of substance can ignite spontaneously upon exposure to air due to rapid oxidation by oxygen or moisture?
A. Water-reactive substances
B. Pyrophoric substances
C. Explosives
D. Flammable substances

B. Pyrophoric substances

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Where can common chemical hazards in the laboratory typically be found or identified?
A. Chemical Hygiene Plan (CHP)
B. Safety Data Sheet (SDS)
C. Globally Harmonized System (GHS) Labels
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

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Which preventive measure is most critical to minimize injury during a chemical spill involving corrosive substances?
A. Regular exposure assessments
B. Installation of AEDs
C. Availability and use of chemical spill kits and PPE
D. Posting additional warning signs

C. Availability and use of chemical spill kits and PPE

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The SDS of a certain chemical shows the given pictogram. Determine the corresponding hazards related to the material.
Health: 4
Flammability: 2
Reactivity: 0
Specific hazard: OX

A. Normal material
Above 100°F
Violent chemical change
Alkaline

B. Slightly hazardous
Below 100°F
Unstable if heated
Oxidizer

C. Slightly hazardous
Below 73°F
Violent chemical change
Reacts violently with water

D. Hazardous
Below 100°F
Unstable if heated
Reacts violently with air

C. Slightly hazardous
Below 73°F
Violent chemical change
Reacts violently with water

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Which hazardous waste characteristic applies to liquid wastes with a flash point less than 60°C (140°F) or solids capable of spontaneous combustion at normal temperature and pressure?
A. Ignitability
B. Reactivity
C. Corrosivity
D. Toxicity

A. Ignitability

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A waste with a pH less than 2 or greater than 12.5 is classified as: A. Toxic B. Reactive C. Corrosive D. Flammable

C. Corrosive

Which class contains materials that may intensify fires by releasing oxygen? A. Class 5 – Oxidizing Substances and Organic Peroxides B. Class 6 – Toxic Substances C. Class 1 – Explosives D. Class 8 – Corrosives

A. Class 5 – Oxidizing Substances and Organic Peroxides

Which waste is correctly matched with its class? A. Uranium waste – Class 5 B. Mercury waste – Class 4 C. Pathogenic waste – Class 6 D. Ammonium nitrate – Class 6

C. Pathogenic waste – Class 6

This type of waste, when placed in a landfill, is reasonably expected not to undergo any significant physical, chemical, or biological changes that could pose health or safety hazards. A. Stable wastes B. Infectious wastes C. Special wastes D. Inert wastes

D. Inert wastes

Which type of chemical toxin commonly found in laboratories may cause allergic reactions or increase sensitivity upon repeated exposure? A. Allergen B. Corrosive substance C. Sensitizer D. Asphyxiant

C. Sensitizer

Who is the person or entity that produces hazardous waste through institutional, commercial, industrial, or trade activities? A. Waste generator B. Waste treater C. Waste transporter D. Pollution Control Officer

A. Waste generator

A manufacturing facility replaces a solvent-based paint with a water-based alternative to reduce worker exposure. This is an example of: A. Elimination B. Substitution C. Engineering control D. Administrative control

B. Substitution

An organization develops a comprehensive schedule for rotating workers through high-noise areas to minimize individual exposure time. This is an example of what control type? A. Elimination B. Substitution C. Engineering control D. Administrative control

D. Administrative control

Which of the following best represents the correct order of effectiveness from most to least in the hierarchy of controls? A. PPE → Engineering Controls → Elimination → Substitution → Administrative Controls B. Substitution → Elimination → Administrative Controls → PPE → Engineering Controls C. Elimination → Substitution → Engineering Controls → Administrative Controls → PPE D. Engineering Controls → Elimination → Substitution → PPE → Administrative Controls

C. Elimination → Substitution → Engineering Controls → Administrative Controls → PPE

Which method is least appropriate for sampling a chemical process stream that fluctuates throughout the day? A. Continuous grab with automatic composite collection B. Taking several grab samples at different times and combining them C. Taking a single grab sample at a random time D. Using time-weighted sampling over a 24-hour period

C. Taking a single grab sample at a random time

Which component of a Quality Management System describes the roles, responsibilities, and reporting lines within a lab? A. Training and Competency B. Organizational Structure C. Document Control D. SOPs

B. Organizational Structure

What is the primary reason for including blank samples in laboratory quality control? A. Add extra analyte B. Detect contamination or baseline interference C. Sell more reagents D. Speed up testing

B. Detect contamination or baseline interference

What is a biological hazard commonly found in labs? A. Sharp glassware B. Pathogenic bacteria, viruses, fungi C. Electrical outlets D. Storage cabinets

B. Pathogenic bacteria, viruses, fungi

Which system uses standardized symbols and phrases to communicate chemical hazards globally? A. ISO 17025 B. Globally Harmonized System (GHS) C. NFPA D. Safety Data Sheet (SDS)

B. Globally Harmonized System (GHS)

How many standardized sections are found in an SDS? A. 5 B. 10 C. 16 D. 20

C. 16

Which of the following wastes is most likely to be classified as reactive rather than toxic? A. Mercury residues B. Sodium metal shavings C. Lead-based paint chips D. Expired pesticide concentrate

B. Sodium metal shavings

Which of the following statements about carbon is not correct? A. Carbon forms strong covalent bonds with itself, allowing chains and rings to be made. B. Carbon expands its valence shell to accommodate more than eight electrons and thus forms double and triple bonds. C. Carbon and hydrogen have similar electronegativity and form strong bonds with each other, thus avoiding the high reactivity shown by metal hydrides. D. Carbon forms strong covalent bonds with elements like nitrogen and oxygen because it does not have lone pairs of valence electrons to destabilize the bonds.

B. Carbon expands its valence shell to accommodate more than eight electrons and thus forms double and triple bonds.

Which of the following is not a constitutional isomer of 2-butene? [INSERT PICTURE] A. B. C. D.

What is the IUPAC name of the given compound? A. 4-ethyl-pent-3-ene B. 1-ethyl-pent-2-ene C. 3-methyl-hex-3-ene D. 4-methyl-hex-3-ene

What is the IUPAC name of (CH₃)₂CHCH=CHCH₃? A. 1,2-methyl-isopropylethene B. 1,1-dimethyl-2-butene C. isopropylpropene D. 4-methyl-2-pentene

What is the correct molecular formula of the hydrocarbon shown below? A. C₇H₁₄ B. C₇H₁₂ C. C₆H₁₄ D. C₈H₁₂

How many hydrogen atoms does one molecule of propene have? A. 4 B. 3 C. 6 D. 8

Which of the following is not an electrophile? A. Br⁺ B. BF₃ C. AlCl₃ D. NH₃

Which class of compounds does not contain C=O double bond in its molecules? A. Esters B. Alcohols C. Amides D. Acids

Methanol is used as a: A. Fuel B. Antiseptic C. Preservative D. Refrigerant

During symmetrical bond breaking, _______ are formed. A. Radicals B. Electrophiles C. Nucleophiles D. None of the above

Which of the following statements correctly describes enantiomers? A. They are achiral stereoisomers. B. They are stereoisomers with a mirror plane of symmetry. C. They are stereoisomers with non-identical mirror image configurations. D. They are diastereoisomers that do not have non-identical mirror image configurations.

The following compounds have very similar molar masses. What is the correct order of increasing strength of their intermolecular forces? I. C₅H₁₂ II. CH₃OCH₃ III. CH₃CH₂OH A. II < I < III B. II < III < I C. I < II < III D. III < I < II

Which class of compounds consist exclusively of saturated hydrocarbons? A. Alkenes B. Aromatics C. Alkynes D. Alkanes

Which compound will rapidly decolorize Br₂ in CH₂Cl₂? A. Hexane B. Benzene C. 1-hexene D. Cyclohexane

In what way does the reactivity of CH₃C≡CH differ from CH₂CH=CH₂? A. Propyne is deprotonated by NaNH₂, while propene is not. B. Propyne does not react with bromine, while propene reacts readily with bromine. C. Propyne undergoes catalytic hydrogenation over platinum, while propene does not. D. Propyne is readily hydrated at pH = 0, while propene is not.

How many σ and π bonds are present in benzene? A. 6σ and 3π B. 3σ and 6π C. 3σ and 12π D. 12σ and 3π

The most activating substituent in electrophilic aromatic substitution (EAS) is: A. –NO₂ B. –OH C. –CN D. –NH₂

Which of the following substituents is not an ortho, para directing group in EAS? A. –Cl B. –OH C. –NO₂ D. –CH₃

Which of the following is the rate determining step in EAS? A. Generation of the electrophile B. Addition of the electrophile on benzene’s π bond to form a carbocation C. Loss of a proton to re-form the aromatic ring D. Formation of the aromatic intermediate

Which of the following is not a product of the reaction of benzene with CH₃Cl and AlCl₃? A. Toluene B. Isopropylbenzene C. o-xylene D. p-xylene

Alkyl halides are very reactive towards nucleophiles because they have a(an): A. Nucleophilic carbon and a good leaving group B. Nucleophilic carbon and a poor leaving group C. Electrophilic carbon and a good leaving group D. Electrophilic carbon and a poor leaving group

SN2 means: A. Two-step nucleophilic substitution involving both alkyl halide and nucleophile B. One-step nucleophilic substitution involving both alkyl halide and nucleophile C. Two-step nucleophilic substitution involving only the alkyl halide D. One-step nucleophilic substitution involving only the nucleophile

Which of the following alkyl halides can undergo both SN1 and SN2 reactions? A. CH₃X B. (CH₃)₃CHX C. CH₃CH₂CX D. (CH₃)₂CHX

Which of the following reactions is favored by a polar aprotic solvent? A. Both SN1 and SN2 reactions B. SN1 reactions C. None of the given choices D. SN2 reactions

Which of the following compounds has the highest boiling point? A. CH₃CH₂CH₃ B. CH₃OCH₂CH₃ C. CH₃COCH₃ D. CH₃CH₂CH₂OH

What is the general formula of an ether? A. R–COOH B. R–OH C. R–O–R’ D. R–NH₂

Carbon is found in the highest oxidation state in which class of organic compounds? A. Alkenes B. Alcohols C. Aldehydes D. Carboxylic acids

Dehydration of an alcohol yields a(an): A. Alkene B. Alkyne C. Aldehyde D. Ketone

A. Alkene

Which will most reliably distinguish between an alcohol and an ether with the formula C₄H₁₀O? A. The alcohol will have the higher normal boiling point. B. The alcohol will rapidly decolorize bromine while the ether will not. C. The alcohol will absorb visible light while the ether will not. D. The alcohol will form an electrically conductive aqueous solution while the ether will not.

Which statement most accurately describes the properties of ketones and esters? A. Ketones are weak acids; esters are strong acids. B. Ketones react by nucleophilic addition; esters react by nucleophilic substitution. C. Ketones are readily reduced; esters are readily oxidized. D. The carbonyl group of a ketone is resonance-stabilized; the carbonyl group of an ester is not resonance-stabilized.

B. Ketones react by nucleophilic addition; esters react by nucleophilic substitution.

Ketones react with reducing agents to form: A. Phenols B. Primary alcohols C. Secondary alcohols D. Tertiary alcohols

C. Secondary alcohols

Which of the following reactions will not produce aldehydes? A. Ozonolysis of alkenes B. Hydration of alkynes C. Oxidation of primary alcohols D. Oxidation of secondary alcohols

D. Oxidation of secondary alcohols

Which of the following is a common industrial source of alcohol? A. Coal B. Fats C. Sugar D. Ether

C. Sugar

Which of the following is a tertiary amine? A. CH₃NH₂ B. (CH₃)₂NH C. (CH₃)₃N D. Aniline

Which of the following is a likely property of an amine with the molecular formula C₄H₁₁N? A. Strong, unpleasant odor B. Boiling point above 100°C C. Absorbs visible light (λ>450 nm) D. Poor water solubility (<10 g/L)

A. Strong, unpleasant odor

EVALUATION EXAM 2 Flashcards

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