Exam Flashcards

Question

What is non-maleficence?

Answer 1

Cause no harm. Donwside: harm could be unavoitable and uncotrolled

Answer 2

Justice is giving another their due/what they are owed.

Answer 3

It is response of society to protect and promote health and to prevent illness

Answer 4

It essentially based on the idea that healthy behaviours are shaped by social environment

Answer 5

1. Be widespread or serious 2. Sever consequences to individuals and societies 3. High costs to individuals and societies 4. Effective methods have to be available to prevent or reduce the impacts

Answer 6

1. Use evidence to support the need for intervention 2. Use evidence to support the effectivness of interventions 3. Have public acceptability and professional support 4. Have an economic benefit

Answer 7

1. Disease prevention 2. Health Promotion 3. Health protection

Answer 8

1. Government 2. Private sector 3. NGO's (non-govenment organisation) 4. All sectors of society

Answer 9

Epidemiology is the study of the distribution and determinants of health-related states or event in specifed populations, and the application of this study to the control of health problems.

Answer 10

It is a graph that can be used to describe the task of epidemiologly. Essentially a C (confounding) is a cause that influences both dependent (Y) and independent variable (X)

Answer 11

It is part of epidemiology that looks and tries to describe the dependent variable (Y). Y could be anything, for example dental caries. Descriptise epidemiology tries to find out **how much** caries is there in a given poopulation.

Answer 12

It is part of epidemiology that asseses the independent variable in order to predict potential outcomes of the dependent variable. This aspect of epidemiology caould be used for **target interventions.**

Answer 13

To investigate causes and corelations. For example: does the independent variable (baby formula) really cause a dependent variable to change (dental caries in children).

Answer 14

The causes at the individual level might be different from the causes at the populaiton level.

Answer 15

1. It is beneficial for individuals 2. Important in adressing the inequalities

Answer 16

1. Does not change population levels of disease 2. Issues in identifying who is at risk 3. Does not change the drivers in population

Answer 17

...a large number of people at a small risk may give rose to more causes of disease than the small number who are at high risk."

Answer 18

1. Triying to remove the reason why the disease is common 2. Almost everyone benefits

Answer 19

1. May not address health inequalities 2. Does not represent a large benefit to the individual

Answer 20

Combining both high-risk and the population approaches

Answer 21

1. Primary - mostly population approach 2. Secondary - mostly population with little bits of individual 3. Tertiary 1 - population and individual equally 4. Tertiary 2 - mostly individual

Answer 22

It is an integrated approach that allows multiple disciplines to target similar risk factors in order to obtain a reduction in disease prevelence in multiple systems. E.g. 1. Most oral conditions share risk factors with general health conditions 2. Must focus on the social determinants of health 3. Integration of high-risk and population approaches for prevention 4. Inclusion of oral health prevention stratetgies in idfferent settings

Answer 23

It is the ongoing, systematic collection, analysis and interpretation of outcome-specific data, essential to the planning, implementation, and evaluation of public health practive, closely integrated with the timely dissemination of these data to those responsible for prevention and control

Answer 24

1. Counts (prevalence and incidence) 2. Proportions (prevalance) 3. Rates (incidence) 4. Means

Answer 25

It is an amount at one point of time or over a paeriod of time Prevelance - an estimated 1.2 million australians had diabetes in 2017-2018 Incidence - There were 2800 total new cses of type 1 diabetes in australia in 2018

Answer 26

It is a measurnment that is always expressed in %. E.g. 4.9% of the total population had diabetes in 2017-2018

Answer 27

A unit of preson-time. E.g. The incidence of type 1 diabetes remained relatively stable between 2000 and 2018, flactuating between 11 and 13 new cases per 100000 population each year

Answer 28

Basically the average number for a given population. E.g. Australian adults aged 15 years and over had an avergae of 11.2 decayed, missing and filled teeth in 2017-2018

Answer 29

Teeth: DMFT (decayed, missing and filled teeth), ranges between 1 to 32 in adults, depedning on the 3rd molar included in scoring Surfaces DMFS (decayed, missing and filled surfaces), ranges from 0 to 128 or 148. Surfaces: occlusal, lingual/palatal, mesial, distal, buccal

Answer 30

1. When carious lesion(s) or both carous lesion(s) and a restoration are present, the tooth is recorded as D 2. When a tooth has been extracted due to caries, it is recorded as an M 3. When permanent or temporary filling is present, or when a filling is defective but not decayed, it is counted as an F.

Answer 31

1. Severity of disease (M component) 2. Access to treatment (F and D relationship) 3. Delayed access to treatment (M components)

Answer 32

1. 6 index teeth reprsenting sextants (4 first molars, one maxillary and one mandibular anterior incisor) 2. Shallow and deep periodontal pockets (4-5mm and 6+mm, respectively), dental calculus and bleeding on probing

Answer 33

1. Examination of six sites per tooth in all teeth present, excluding third molars 2. Sever periodontal disease defined as the presence of at least 2 teeth with 6+ mm of clinical attachment loss in interporximal sites with pocket depth of 5+ mm.

Answer 34

1. Edentulism: Complete tooth loss 2. Functional dentition: Presence of 21 teeth or more 3. Severe tooth loss: Presence of 10 teeth or less 4. Mean number of missing teeth: mean number of "M" / "m" component of the DMF / dmf index

Answer 35

Nearly half of the world population suffer disability from oral conditions

Answer 36

1. National Oral Health Survey - 1987-88 2. The National Survey of Adult Oral Healh 2004-06 3. National Study of Adult Oral Health 2017-18

Answer 37

1. Dental Caries is highly prevalent 2. Socioeconomic gradients in caries experience are profound 3. Improvements in caries experience are observed over time, mainly for childer and young adults

Answer 38

2 or more interproximal sights with attachment loss equal or above 4 mm on 2 different teeth, **or** 2 interproximal sites with pocket depth equal or above 5mm on 2 different teeth

Answer 39

2 or more interproximal site with attachment loss of 6mm or above on 2 different teeth and 1 or more interproximal site with pocket depth of 5 mm or more

Answer 40

1. Prevalence of periodontal disease (moderate or severe) in Australian populatio was 30% in 2017-18 2. Periodontal disease was strongly associated with age 3. Prevalence of periodontal disease was greater among those of lower socioeconomic background

Answer 41

1. 4% of the australian adult population are edentulous 2. 10% of the australian adult population are having \<21 teeth 3. Socioeconomic gradient in tooth loss

Answer 42

It's a model that shows a way a patient - practitioner relationship can be formed through out the conversation.

Answer 43

It is a model, which shows different determinants of health for a patient. Shaped like a sphere.

Answer 44

It is a model that is based on a conception of health as absence of disease with aim to treat disease.

Answer 45

It is a model that is based on a conception of health as a continuum of wellbeing, physical and mental health are integrated. Aim: to promote health and wellbeing, to reduce ill-health.

Answer 46

1. Paternalism 2. Consumerism 3. Mutuality 4. Default

Answer 47

1. Ethical protection of patients 2. Legal protection of patients

Answer 48

1. Connection, shared understanding, put patient at ease 2. Professional therapeutic relationship

Answer 49

To build trust and confidence between patient & team.

Answer 50

The ability to understand and share the feelings of another.

Answer 51

An open question

Answer 52

Closed questions

Answer 53

TRIM: Timing Relevance Involvment Relevance

Answer 54

1. Patients are entitled to make own decisions abotu treatment and given adequate information 2. Information provided in form and manner which help patient understand 3. Doctors should give advice that patient is free to accept or reject with no coercion 4. Patients should be encouraged to make their own decisions 5. Patients should be frank and honest in giving info about health

Answer 55

1. Stop 2. Place needle/sharp aside 3. Take off gloves 4. Wash hands with soap and water 5. Dry and cover with non-stick dressing 6. Apply pressure if bleeding 7. Let tutor know 8. Contact SADS registered nurse for risk assessment 9. Write up incident report - SLS

Answer 56

1. Personal hygiene pracitce 2. Use of PPE 3. Appropriate handling of and safe disposal of sharps 4. Appropriate sterulisation of reusable equipment and instruments

Answer 57

1. DRSABCD - Danger, Response, Send for help, Airway, Breathing, CPR, Defibrillator 2. Lay victim flat 3. Raise legs 4. Place on side (if pregnants)

Answer 58

1. Antiseptic solutions reduce the bacterial and viral load BUT TO NOT FULLY REMOVE IT 2. Paper towels are available, cheap and easy to despose

Answer 59

Active - dull and frosty. Soft and leathery texture Arrested - shiny

Answer 60

At DEJ, the dentine is less mineralised (path of least resistance)

Answer 61

Primary - begins on a tooth urface with no previous caries or restoration Secondary - occurs on a tooth surface which has already had a lesion

Answer 62

1. TMJ exam 2. Opening closing paths 3. Maximal Mandibular opening 4. Maximum mandibular lateral movement

Answer 63

1. Notation and morphology 2. Arch Shape 3. Crowding, spacing, rotations 4. Axial incilation 5. Occlusal curvatures and opposing contacts 6. Angle's molar classification + canin classification 7. Overjet (mm) 8. Overbite (%) 9. Crossbite 10. Mediolateral relationships

Answer 64

CCCTE: Colour: general and pigmentations Contour : - Gingival margin - rounder or rolled - Papillae - bulbous, blunted or craterd Consistency: dense and firmly bound Texture: Stippling Exudate: Pus (Remember genrelised or localised and "need to confirm clinically)

Answer 65

1. Naked eye 2. Dry field 3. Good lighting 4. Magnification 5. Transillumination 6. Bitwings 7. Surface texture (explorer) 8. Dyes and detectors

Answer 66

1. Exposure 2. Orientation of detector 3. Horizontal detector position (look where is starts and ends) 4. Vertical detector position (is the Mx and Md crowns equal?) 5. Horizontal beam angulation (contact point overlaps) 6. Vertical beam angulation (superimposition of buccla and platal cusps) 7. Position of centra ray beam (cone cutting?) 8. Rotational position of the collimator (Cone cutting?) 9. Sharpness (sharp of blurry) 10. Overall digansotic quality of image

Answer 67

It means as low as reasonably achiavable

Answer 68

1. Time of exposure 2. Distance from exposure 3. Shield from exposure

Answer 69

Radiolucency is a concept in which a material is able to be easily penetrated by the X-ray particles thus is shown as darker on an X-ray or bitwing radiograph

Answer 70

It is a concept where X-ray particles are unable to fully penetrate an object, thus such object will be shown more lightly on an X-ray/bitwing radiograph.

Answer 71

1. Specificity (what radigraph area you are reffering to) 2. Radiolucency or radiopacity 3. Extent

Answer 72

1. Ttrapezoidal from labila and triangular from proximal 2. Ratio of crown height to MD diameter is close to 1 3. Rounded distoincisal corners 4. Central incisor is longer than lateral 6. ROute toward the distal

Answer 73

1. Prapezoidal from labial & triangular from proximal 2. Smaller MD crown 3. Very equal sides 4. Mesio incisal half is longer on the lateral incisor

Answer 74

1. Maxillary canines are bell shaped from labial 2. Very prominent cingulum and lingual ridge

Answer 75

1. Distinct flat mesial side 2. Less distinct cingulum 3. Cusp tip pointed toward the mesial

Answer 76

1. 2 cusps 2. Occlusal outline shape is hexagonal 3. Labial cust is slightly higher then the palatal cusp 4. Mesial developmental groove

Answer 77

1. 2 cusps 2. Both cusps are the same height 3. Less destinct features

Answer 78

1. 2 cusps 2. The lingual cusp is considerably smaller then the buccal cusp 3. There isa transverse ridge 4. There is mesiolingual developmental groove 5. Crown is at 45 degress towards lingual

Answer 79

1. Two or Three cusps (U and Y shape) 2. Crown is not on an angle

Answer 80

1. 4 cusps 2. Buckle-mesial cusp is the largest one 3. Buckle-medial bulging 4. 3 roots, 2 buckle & 1 palatal 5. Cusp of carabeli in caucasians

Answer 81

1. Less paralellogram like comparing to the First upper molar 2. 4 cusps 3. Oblique ridge is smaller

Answer 82

1. 5 cusps 2. 3 cusps 3. 2 roots 4. Buccal roll

Answer 83

1. 4 cusps 2. Hot cross bun occlusal outline 3. Buccal roll

Answer 84

Heart sits in the mediastinum. Apex of the heart is at the bottom. The location between the sternum and vertebra column facilitate cardiac compression. Heart has 4 chambers (2 ventricles and 2 atria). Left side has a thicker wall as it needs higher pressure to pump the blood to the entire body. It protected by a pericardium – a fibrous tissue bag.

Answer 85

It maintains continues supply of oxygen and nutrients, immune cell transport, transport of waste and many more. But also – heart pumps oxygen poor blood to the lungs for gas exchange, and it pumps oxygen rich blood to systemic organs and tissues

Answer 86

1. Aorta 2. Superior & inferior vena cavae 3. Pulmonary artery 4. Pulmonary veins

Answer 87

1. Pulmonary circulatory system – RHS of non-oxygenated blood is moved to the lungs 2. Systemic circulation – blood leaves the LHS of the heart to the tissues

Answer 88

Veins carry the blood to the heart and arteries carry the blood away from the heart

Answer 89

It is a multilayer sack (triple layer). 2 major parts: 1. Fibrous pericardium – the most outer layer that is tough and inelastic, full of dense irregular CT. Used for protection. 2. Serous pericardium – double layer that has a partial layer fused with fibrous pericardium and visceral layer fused with heart muscle tissue. It is the secretory part of the pericardium, and it secretes pericardial fluid that allows for heart beating without friction. Connects with simple squamous endothelium of the heart wall.

Answer 90

They are specialized muscles cells of the heart. They are arranged in spirals which improves heart performance (due to small amount shortage). They multinucleated cells (1,2 or up to 2 nuclia), branched and long. Have cross striation. Have intercalated discs.

Answer 91

1. Fascia adherents 2. Maculate adherents (desmosomes) 3. Gap junctions The intercalated discs help with cell-to-cell communication

Answer 92

Heart valves prevent back flow. As pressure builds in the ventricles the atria-ventricular valves close preventing backflow.

Answer 93

They small fibrous tissue connected to the papillary muscles that allow the heart valves to not convert.

Answer 94

1. Righ AV valve – tricuspid valve 2. Left AV valve – bicuspid 3. Aortic and pulmonary valve - tricuspid

Answer 95

They are hearts own blood supply. Myocardial infraction happens due to blockage of the coronary arteries. Heart attack patients should not have dental treatment for the next 6 months.

Answer 96

Cardiac muscle are autorhythmic but they need extra input for peacemaking. SA node and the AV node which are connected by the internodal pathway. AV node than brunches into left and right bundles of his and than into Purkinjean fibres. This occurs with use of specialized muscle cells.

Answer 97

There are three distinct layers to blood vessels: 1. Tunica intima – endothelial cells 2. Tunica media – smooth muscle – bigger in pressure vessels 3. Tunica adventitia – elastic and collagen fibres

Answer 98

Blood vessels are designed to carry fluids over long distances, allow exchange of materials, immune transit and more.

Answer 99

1. Vasodilators production 2. Antithrombotic factors 3. Growth inhibitors 4. Inflammation inhibitors 5. Vasoconstrictors And more

Answer 100

They are thin-walled capillaries, quite similar to the blood vessels. Have valves that are able to reduce the probability of backflow. They drain into subclavian veins of the heart.

Answer 101

1. Absorption of interstitial fluid 2. Carry lymph 3. Immune transit 4. Lipid transport

Answer 102

Through the contraction of skeletal muscles

Answer 103

1. Arteries – thick wall due to muscles – pressure reservoir 2. Arterioles – primary resistance function 3. Capillaries – exchange of materials 4. Venules – blood reservoir 5. Veins – thinner wall – blood reservoir

Answer 104

They are involve in stabilization of blood flow/pressure and they recoil in diastole

Answer 105

Control of blood flow to organs

Answer 106

Helps with recoil thus help with regulation of blood pressure

Answer 107

Aid in exchange of materials through diffusion because they are thin walled

Answer 108

1. Continuous – fat, muscle and nervous system – tight junctions 2. Fenestrated – intestinal villi, endocrine glands, kidney glomeruli - fenestrations 3. discontinuous capillary – liver, bone marrow, spleen – larger spaces

Answer 109

1. Arrangement of muscle fibers 2. Unique connections between individual cells 3. Specialization of muscle cells into contractile and non-contractile functions 4. Specialization of muscle proteins

Answer 110

1. Action potential spreads form cell to cell 2. Nervous innervation rate of action potential 3. Specialization of cells according to function

Answer 111

1. Contractile cells -99% 2. Autorhythmic cells – conduct action potentials

Answer 112

1. The membrane potential continues to repolarize 2. This triggers an opening of funny channels that allow inward flow of sodium. Closure of potassium channels also occurs which restricts the outflow of potassium 3. T-type Ca2+ channels open 4. Threshold is reached, the peak is achieved through opening of Ca2+ L-type channels 5. At the peak, potassium channels reopen, causing potassium outflow, this results in repolarization of the cell

Answer 113

1. SA node – 70-80 BPM 2. AV node – 40-60 BPM 3. Bundle of His – 0 4. . Purkinje fibers – 20-40

Answer 114

1. An action potential initiated at the SA node first spread through both atria 2. The spread is facilitated by two specialized atrial conduction pathways, the interatrial and internodal 3. The AV node is the only point where an action potential can spread from the atria to the ventricles 4. From the AV node, the action potential spreads rapidly throughout the ventricles, hastened by a specialized ventricular conduction system consisting of the bundle of His and Purkinje fibers

Answer 115

1. The rapid rising phase of the action potential in contractile cells is the result of Na+ entry on opening of fast Na+ channels at threshold 2. Early, brief repolarization after the potential reaches its peak is because of limited K+ efflux and inactivation of the Na+ channels 3. The prolonged plateau phase is the result of slow Ca2+ entry on opening of L-typeCa2+ channels and reduction of K+ efflux due to close of K+ transient channels 4. Rapid falling phase is the result of K+ efflux due to opening of voltage-gated K+ channels

Answer 116

1. Delivery of oxygen 2. Removal of waste 3. immune transport 4. Transport of nutrients and more

Answer 117

The volume of blood ejected by the ventricles per minute – about 5 L of blood per minutes

Answer 118

CO = SV (ml/beat) x HR (beats/min)

Answer 119

It is the volume of blood ejected from the ventricles per beat

Answer 120

The number of times heart beats per minuet.

Answer 121

Sympathetic stimulation (e.g. nervous patient) causes increase in cardiac output due to increase firing of the SA node which increase the heart rate and thus according to the cardiac output, increases cardiac output.

Answer 122

Cardiac output in elite athletes is much higher because elite athlete’s cardiovascular system has a higher stroke volume due to expansion of the heart.

Answer 123

Ventricular filling decreases as the heart rate increases. This occurs due to decreased amount of time for filling between beats.

Answer 124

The consensus idea is that not all vascular beds are fully open at rest – for the sake of conserving energy and blood pressure. When the sympathetic stimulation occurs, that triggers relaxation of precapillary sphincters which are structures that are limiting blood flow to the entire blood capillary bed. This increases the volume of blood in the skeletal muscles thus making your legs look swollen.

Answer 125

1. Systole – contraction 2. Diastole – relaxation 3. Repolarization 4. Refractoriness – no other beat is able to be produced 5. Relaxation 6. Contraction 7. Spread of action potential 8. Depolarization

Answer 126

High heart rate

Answer 127

Premature ventricular contraction – reduces cardiac output

Answer 128

1. Passive filling – diastole 2. Atrial contraction – forcefully pushing the blood into the ventricles 3. Isovolumetric Ventricular contraction – AV valves close thus creating pressure in the ventricles 4. Ventricular contraction – ventricles contract pushing the blood out into great vessels 5. Isovolumetric ventricular relaxation – end of cycle – heart is relaxed and blood is being pumped in (a bit of blood stays back)

Answer 129

Auto-rhythmic activity which a spontaneous activity that is caused by funny sodium channels

Answer 130

1. Parasympathetic stimulation – decreases heart rate – rest and digest 2. Sympathetic stimulation – increase heart rate – flight or fight 3. Hormonal influences – increases heart rate

Answer 131

As venous return increases, there is an increase in artrial stretch which causes an increase in heart rate. Thus higher blood volume due to fluid retentions causes higher heart rate.

Answer 132

End diastolic volume – end systolic volume = stroke volume

Answer 133

Mean arterial blood pressure or simply your blood pressure.

Answer 134

MAP = Heart rate x Stroke Volume x TPR

Answer 135

Because if: 1. Blood pressure is low it limits the perfusion of blood to vital tissue 2. Blood pressure is high it cause increased workload on heart, vascular damage therefore organ damage.

Answer 136

Blood pressure is regulated through both sort term and long term mechanisms

Answer 137

The skeletal that are contracted during still movement are squeezing onto the veins which due to their structure are creating a pool of blood.

Answer 138

1. Arteriolar radius 2. Blood viscosity

Answer 139

It is a type of hypotension (low blood pressure). The blood is getting pulled on the lower extremities thus reducing the pressure around the brain. This reduction in pressure causes less oxygen to get to the brain and brain shuts down.

Answer 140

Compliant arteries are arteries that are able to recoil. In older individuals compliance is lower meaning that aorta is enable to expand and recoil meaning there is lower blood pressure.

Answer 141

Arterioles

Answer 142

Arterioles are important for peripheral resistance because they are able to maintain blood pressure that smaller capillaries are able to tolerate and not burst.

Answer 143

T=PxR or wall tension = pressure x radius. Thus reducing the radius of arterioles we increase blood pressure.

Answer 144

1. Aortic arch baroreceptor 2. Carotid sinus baroreceptor

Answer 145

Baroreceptors are able to fire signals to the heart (sympathetic stimulation) that are able to change cardiac output and cardiac function.

Answer 146

They are hormones that are released upon stretch in the heart. These hormones can cause kidneys to lose more sodium thus decreasing blood volume and decreasing blood pressure.

Answer 147

The baroreceptors response is usually very rapid while the macula dense regulated response is usually slower.

Answer 148

Microbiome = genetic material of microbes Microbiota = Ecological community of commensal, symbiotic & pathogenic microorganisms.

Answer 149

Immune system – is a series of cells tissues, proteins and other that act together to counter act foreign bodies.

Answer 150

* Due to advancements in medicine, people can now survive once fatal diseases * Many oral diseases have an immune component (e.g. periodontal disease) * Current and future therapeutics may have an impact on the function of immune system thus on oral health * Systemic and Oral diseases are interrelated and are both dependent on appropriate function of the immune system

Answer 151

**_Pathogens – are agents that cause or generate disease._** Such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, dust mites, pollen.

Answer 152

**_Antigen – a substance that has the ability to provoke an immune response. Could be pathogenic/ not pathogenic._**

Answer 153

1. The antigen is detected y a special receptor on the APC 2. The antigen is engulfed through phagocytosis of the APC 3. It is processed and then displayed on the surface of the cell’s membrane of the APC through a special antigen presenting proteins 4. The presented antigen could bind with the receptor on T lymphocytes to activate them

Answer 154

**_Antibody – a glycorptoein that is produced and secreted by plasma cells and B lymphocytes (restricted thod). Also serve as receptors on B lymphocytes._**

Answer 155

**_MADGE – IgM, IgA, IgD, IgG, IgE_**

Answer 156

**_Y shape, have variable and constant domains_**

Answer 157

IgA – Found in mucous, saliva, tears and breast milk. Protect those sites against pathogens IgD – Part of the B cell receptor. Responsible for basophils and mast cells activation. IgE – Protects against parasitic worms. Responsible for allergic reactions IgG – Secreted by plasma cells in the blood. Able to cross the placenta into the fetus. IgM – May be attached to the surface of a B cell or secreted into the blood. Responsible for early stages of immunity.

Answer 158

1. Neutralization 2. Tag 3. Activating antigen killing proteins

Answer 159

* Due to advancements in medicine, people can now survive once fatal diseases * Many oral diseases have an immune component (e.g. periodontal disease) * Current and future therapeutics may have an impact on the function of immune system thus on oral health * Systemic and Oral diseases are interrelated and are both dependent on appropriate function of the immune system

Answer 160

Pathogen is an agent that is able to cause or generate dieseas?

Answer 161

An antigen is a substance that has the ability to provoke an immune response. This could be pathogenic/not pathogenic

Answer 162

An immunoglobulin is also know is an antibody. It is a glycoprotein that produced by pklasma cells and somewhat by B lymphocytes. Antibodies also act as receptors on B lymphocytes.

Answer 163

1. Neutralisation - physical blockage of the antigen 2. Tag - antibodies act as "tags", that are able to signal phagocytic bacteria to perform phagocytosis of the molecule antibodies attach to. 3. Activating antigen killing proeins - self-explanatory

Answer 164

ACP is an antigen presenting cell. It is a cell that is able to process the antgien and present it to other cells. It could also trigerr further immune reponse by releasing cytokines.

Answer 165

1. Dendritic cells 2. Macrophages 3. Langerhans cells 4. B lymphocytes

Answer 166

1. Antigen is detected by a special receptor on the ACP 2. The antigen engulfed through phagocytosis of the ACP 3. It is processed and then displayed on the surface of the ACP cell membrane through special antigen presenting protein 4. The presented antigen could bind with the receptor on T lymphocyts to activate them

Answer 167

Cytokines are the chemicals of immunity. They are repoduced by activated cells and are able to change the behaviour of other cells.

Answer 168

Y shape, have variable and constant domains

Answer 169

It is found in mucous, saliva and tear. Protect those sites from pathogens

Answer 170

It acts as a B cell receptor. Responsible for basophil and mast cells activation

Answer 171

Protection against paracitic worms. Important in allergic reactions.

Answer 172

Secreted by plasma cells in the blood. Able to cross the placenta into the fetus.

Answer 173

Responsible for early stages of immunity.

Answer 174

1. Primary - generator organs - red bone marrow and thymus 2. Secondary - immune and other functions - lymphoid vessels, lymph nodes, spleen and follicles.

Answer 175

They are thin walled ubes lined with endothelium and surorunded by thin layer of smooth muscles. Carry lymph. Terminate near the subclavian artery.

Answer 176

Spleen is the organ of the secondary lymphati system. it has 2 functions filtering blood form the ntigen and removal of old red blood cells

Answer 177

It is an organ of the primary lymphatic system that is used for development/maturation of T lymphocytes. It has a plae center with activated T lymphocytes.

Answer 178

They are organs of the secondary lymphatic system that are used for antigen presentation.

Answer 179

They are organs of the secondary lymphatic system that are situated under the epithelium for protection from ferieng invaders

Answer 180

It is a series of tonsillar tissue that forms a ring around the oral cavity in addition to the lymphatic between each of the 3 major tonsils. Main function - to provide protection aginst harmuf substances and pathogens that may enter the body through the nose and mouth.

Answer 181

MALT - mucosa associated lymphoid tissue.

Answer 182

Innate - non-specific immunity Acquired - specific immunity

Answer 183

1. Physical barriers (epithelium and saliva for example) 2. Chemical barrier (proteins in saliva) 3. Cellular components (neutrophils, mast cells, macrophages etc.)

Answer 184

1. Humoral (memory B lymphocytes and plasma cells) 2. Cellular (T lymphocytes, NK cells and NK T cells)

Answer 185

Innate system is considerably faster, less specific and unable to amplify it's efficiency upon repeated antigen presentation. Addaptive system is slower, more specific and able to amplify it's efficiency upom repeated antigen presentation.

Answer 186

It is a process of marking an antigen for phagocytosis

Answer 187

PRR are the pattern recognition receptors, they are receptors that identify potential pathogens.

Answer 188

They are a cell with a many shaped nuclei - respond by chemotaxis from chemokine release and use diapedesis to get to the site of tissue injury - release granules - have an antimicrobial effect.

Answer 189

Macrophages are a form of a monocyte - used for phagocytosis and antigen presentsation - Use PRR receptors

Answer 190

They are a type of granulocyte - kill large parasites - contain large number of enzymes

Answer 191

They are cells that contain potent substances - cells that induce chemotaxis - one of the most important signaling cells in inflamation

Answer 192

They are cells that have similar function to macrophages and actually have similar origin - act as messengers and antigen presenters

Answer 193

They are a non-T and a non-B lymphocyte - they recognise infected or transformed cells through the MCT II recpetor - f a cell does not have an MHC receptor it must be killed

Answer 194

1. Chemotaxis and adherence of microbe to phagocyte 2. Ingestion of microbe via phagocytosis 3. Formation of a phagosome 4. Fusiion of phagosome with lysosome to form a phagolysosome 5. Digestion of the ingested microbe by enzymes 6. Formation of residual body containing indigestible material 7. Discharge of waste materials

Answer 195

1. MHC receptors used for recognition 2. Receptor - ligand engagement that induces cytoskeletal and membrane remodeling 3. Perticle engulfment 4. Destruction

Answer 196

Inflamation is an innate immune response that is protective, non-specific and results in a series of interrelated events.

Answer 197

1. Isolate, detsroy or inactivate 2. Remove debris 3. Prepare for healing

Answer 198

Redness, Swelling, Heat, Pain

Answer 199

It is caused by increased blood flow tp the area - which increases the number of red blood cells - red blood cells are red because of albumin

Answer 200

It is caused by increased leakage of protein rich fluid om the tissue are due to increased capillary permeability as a result of vasodialation.

Answer 201

Heat is caused by increased blood flow to the area - this increase in heat increases the metabolic rate of cells

Answer 202

The pain is caused by increased leakage of protein rich fluid into the tissue that aggrevates the nerve endings - specifically pain is a result of pressure receptors being hypersensetive to touch

Answer 203

1. Brief vasocontriction 2. Vasodialation - mediated by mast cells 3. Increased vasuclar permeability - to small proteins not cells (cause of edema is due to release of water due to colloid osmotic prssure) 4. Transmigration - chemotaxis and increased cell wall permeability allw=ows for extravasion and leukocyte migration 5. Phagocytosis 6. Healing

Answer 204

1. Cellular - production of Suppressor, Cytotoxic and Helper T cells. This is targeted for desctructionn of already infected body cells 2. Humoral - B cells differentiate into plasma cells and B memory cells

Answer 205

1. Antibodies - derived from plasma cells 2. Cytotoxic cells - attack directly or discharge granules

Answer 206

1. Antigen are processed by the phagocytes 2. They are presented on modified MHC II and I receptors 3. MHC II receptor is able to bind with CD4+ T lymphocyte and creat a Helper T cell which than continue the cascade to activate B cells 4. MHC I receptor is able to bind with CD8+ T lymphocyet and creat Supressor and Cytotoxic T lymphocytes

Answer 207

1. Foreign antigen phagocytes, killed & processed by the APC 2. ACP presents processed fragment 3. This is done via MHC II molecule (epitode) on the membrane surface of the APC 4. Epitode binds with TCR on naive CD4+ T lymphocyte 5. This causes activation of the naive CD4+ T lymphocyte and creates a T helper cell 6. T helper is able to bind with a B lymphocyte and cause it to transform into either B memory cell or plasma cell

Answer 208

Vaccines are able to present the antigens in weakened form in order go through the acquired immunity response to create sophisticated Plasma Cells that can produce specifc antibodies for the antigen, in order to eliminate the antigen faster when it is presented in the system next time.

Answer 209

It is a refrence to the population where 70-80% of people are vaccinated. This reduces person-to-person transmission, thus this protects the unvaccinated individuals.

Answer 210

It is a condition where bodies own antibodies develop specificity towards the bodies own tissue. This is due to defects in the aquired immune system.

Answer 211

Type I - immediate response (anaphylaxis) Type II - Transfusion (hours) Type III - Immune complexes (days) Type IV - Delayed (weeks)

Answer 212

It is an excessive immune response to harmless antigen. Involved are mast cells (degranulation processes caused by binding with IgE), B cells and T helper cells.

Answer 213

1. Antigen is processed as usual and Plasma cells are created with a speicifc IgE antibody 2. IgE antibody binds with a mast cells and act as a receptor 3. If the antigen apprearce again and binds with IgE receptor on the mast cell it will cause degranulation

Answer 214

Resident floral conssts of relativley fixed type of microorganisms regularly found in the oral cavity at a given age. It reastablishes quickly.

Answer 215

It is a group of bacteria that consists of non-pathogenic or potentially pathogenic microorganisms that inhabit the oral cavity for hours/day. They do not establish themselves permenantly.

Answer 216

The resident flora can be disturbed or the host resistance can change. This will cause the transient microorganisms to colonize the freed niches, proliferate and produce disease.

Answer 217

Because teeth are solid and non-shedding surfaces and that is why bacteria prefer to colonize them.

Answer 218

1. Tongue 2. Tonsils 3. Hard, non-shedding surfaces 4. Gingival Sulcus 5. Mucosa 6. Saliva

Answer 219

Gram system separates the microorganisms in 2 distinct groups 1. Gram positive - blue in clour - min bacteria in periodontal bacteria 2. Gram negative - pink in colour - contain LPS - major driver of inflamatory reaction

Answer 220

1. Early colonization from gram positive cocci microorganism 2. Secondary colonization by gram positive and negative rods 3. Late colonization by gram negative rod and motile bacteria 4. Microbial succession – dominance of microorganisms

Answer 221

The bacteria transition from mostly aerobic at the early colonization to mostly anaerobic. This happens due to the fact that as bacteria grow – the biofilm also grows, meaning that the aerobic bacteria that get covered by the biofilm transition to an anaerobic state due to lack in oxygen.

Answer 222

1. Epithelial desquamation – constant shedding of the epithelial cells does not allow the bacteria to attach to those surfaces 2. Saliva flow – pick up and moves the bacteria 3. Soft tissue movement – moves the biofilm 4. Mastication – moves the biofilm

Answer 223

1. Saliva – has antibacterial action – Immunoglobulin A, lysozymes, lactoperoxidase 2. Antimicrobial Peptides – peptides stored in saliva, used for destruction of bacteria and more

Answer 224

GCF is gingival crevicular Fluid. It is the transudate or exudate of the periodontal tissues collecting sulcus. It has 4 functions: 1. Cleansing the sulcus 2. Antimicrobial function 3. Antibody activity 4. Cell adhesion.

Answer 225

Theory 1: Increased permeability due to inflammation in the capillaries near the sulcus. Theory 2: Fluid is in a form of transudate due to osmotic gradient. And upon inflammation becomes an exudate.

Answer 226

The junction epithelium has a very fast turn over rate, meaning it is constantly shedding. This results in inability for the bacteria to attach to junction epithelium. Also the shedding of cells outside the sulcus, physically pushes bacteria that are floating around the sulcus (this occurs with help of Gingival Crevicular Fluid).

Answer 227

Polymorph nuclear Neutrophils (neutrophils)

Answer 228

Through junction epithelium. They have three modes of action: 1. Phagocytosis 2. Granulation 3. NETosis (neutrophils extracellular traps – extinction of chromatin in the extracellular space that kills bacteria)

Answer 229

Periodontal health should be defined as a state free from inflammatory periodontal disease that allows an individual to function normally and not suffer any consequences as a result of past disease.

Answer 230

It is defined as total absence of clinical inflammation and physiological immune surveillance on a periodontium with normal supports

Answer 231

It is defined as absence or minimal levels of physiological immune surveillance or clinical inflammation in periodontium with normal support

Answer 232

1. Protection of respiratory surfaces – such as water loss, temperature, microorganisms and particulate matter 2. Sound production 3. Olfactory input – smell 4. Blood pH regulation

Answer 233

They allow for sthrength and passive recoil (elastic fibres).

Answer 234

1. Upper respiratory tract – nose, nasal cavities, paranasal sinuses and pharynx 2. Lower respiratory tract – larynx, trachea, bronchial tree and lungs

Answer 235

1. Conduction part – involved with transfer of gases – nasal cavity, nasopharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles 2. Respiratory part – respiration mechanisms – respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts and alveoli

Answer 236

The epithelium lining of the respiratory tract changes due to change in function mainly: 1. Height of the epithelium changes – changes occur to the height of the cells, as we travel down to the respiratory part cells become more vertically challenged 2. The complexity of the epithelium changes – there are less cells of different types present in the epithelium lining as we travel from the conduction to respiratory part of the respiratory tract.

Answer 237

Muco-ciliary escalator

Answer 238

A pseudo-stratified ciliated epithelium

Answer 239

A stratified squamous epithelium

Answer 240

A pseudo-stratified ciliated epithelum

Answer 241

Simple cuboidal

Answer 242

Simple squamous epithelium

Answer 243

1. Pseudostratified columnar ciliated 2. Mucous goblet 3. Brush 4. Basal 5. Small granule

Answer 244

They are the most common cell in the respiratory tract. There function is to be the muco-ciliary escalator.

Answer 245

To produce mucus.

Answer 246

We don’t know but they are there.

Answer 247

They act as stem cells

Answer 248

They act as enteroendocrine (release hormones) cells.

Answer 249

1. Moisten / humidify – serous & mucous secretion 2. Warm & humidify – vein network 3. Trap dust / allergens – mucus 4. Move trapped particles – muco-ciliary escalator

Answer 250

It prevents the entry of food from the pharynx to the larynx.

Answer 251

1. Prevent air entry to oesophagus 2. Prevent food/liquid entry to lower respiratory tract 3. Allow phonation

Answer 252

1. The C shape hyaline cartilage which provides structure 2. The muscle and ligament on the posterior surface which allows for contraction and change in shape of the cartilage and prevention of over extension.

Answer 253

Irregular shaped hyaline cartilage.

Answer 254

This occurs when terminal bronchioles brunch into respiratory bronchioles.

Answer 255

It is a double serous membrane with collagen and elastic CT. 2 layers – visceral and parietal.

Answer 256

1. Larger bronchioles 2. Terminal bronchioles 3. Respiratory bronchioles

Answer 257

1. Type 1 alveolar cell – flat cell that is used in the blood gass barrier 2. Type 2 alveolar cell – produces surfactant 3. Alveolar macrophage – typical macrophage function – protection by engulfing pathogens and antigens

Answer 258

1. Respiratory bronchioles – carry gasses to and from the alveolar sacs, connect the alveolar sacs together. 2. Alveolar sacs – sac like collection of alveoli 3. Alveolar ducts – connect the alveoli together 4. Alveoli – respiratory conducting part that have a direction connection to blood gas barrier.

Answer 259

1. Produce one component of surfactant 2. Bronchiolar progenitor cells 3. Immune system regulation 4. Environmental protection function (thru use of GAGs, enzymes and other substances).

Answer 260

In order to achieve the optimal diffusion of gasses – the distance between the alveolus and the capillaries need to be minimized. This is done by fusing the basement membrane of the alveolar septum and the endothelium (capillaries) into 1 shared basement membrane. This means that instead of traveling through 2 seprate membrane, the gas only needs to diffuse through 1 basement membrane, which induces a higher rate of gas exchange between the alveoli and capillaries.

Answer 261

Their function is to synthesize and release surfactant. The surfactant is able to reduce the alveolar surface tension and prevent alveolar collapse during expiration.

Answer 262

1. A few fibroblasts 2. Reticular fibers 3. Collagen fibers 4. Elastic fibers (elastic recoil)

Answer 263

Asthma – a chronic inflammation of the bronchioles. Potential relation to oral health include: • Increased caries development • Reduced saliva flow • Changes in oral mucosa • Orofacial abnormalities

Answer 264

1. Mouth if part of the upper respiratory system thus dental procedures can impede airflow 2. LA and sedation can alter respiratory function 3. Potential to cause of respiratory episodes 4. Clients pre-existing respiratory conditions could interact with dental procedures

Answer 265

1. Homeostasis of oxygen and carbon dioxide 2. Homeostasis of pH

Answer 266

It is a metabolic process in cells. Cells use oxygen for metabolism and excrete carbon dioxide.

Answer 267

It is the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between atmosphere and cells of body. It has 4 steps.

Answer 268

1. Ventilation or gas exchange between the atmosphere and air sacs in the lungs 2. Exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between air in the alveoli and the blood in the pulmonary capillaries 3. transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide by the blood between the lungs and the tissues 4. Exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the blood in the systemic capillaries and the tissue cells

Answer 269

Cartilage provides structure to the upper airways which prevents if from deflating or collapsing when large forces are apply in respiration in order to have ultimate flow of gases. The alveoli need an ability to stretch for ultimate gas exchange thus having cartilage around them will be counterintuitive. Rather they have elastic tissue for recoil.

Answer 270

The laryngeal muscle that can open/close are able to provide protection for the glottis thus protecting the lungs from potential pathogens.

Answer 271

1. Muscle of respiration involved 2. Elastic properties of the lungs 3. Elastic properties of the chest wall 4. Airway resistance

Answer 272

These muscles contract every inspiration and their relaxation causes passive expiration. 1. Diaphragm 2. External intercostal muscles

Answer 273

On top the diaphragm and the external intercoastal muscles we also have the: 1. Sternocleidomastoid muscles 2. Scalenus muscles

Answer 274

Following muscle contract only during active expiration 1. Abdominal muscles 2. Internal intercoastal muscles

Answer 275

1. Atmospheric pressure (pressure outside) – 760 mm Hg 2. Intra-alveolar pressure (pressure in the alveoli) – 760 mm Hg 3. Intrapleural pressure (pressure in the first cavity where the intrapleural fluid is) – 756 mm Hg

Answer 276

Because, technically, the alveoli and the atmosphere are connected through the airway thus are they display the same pressure at rest.

Answer 277

It states that pressure of any gas varies inversely with the volume of the said gas. Basically if the same amount of gas is put in a contain with volume x, another with volume 2x and another with volume 4x, the container x will have 2 timer the pressure than container 2x and 4 times the pressure then container 4x.

Answer 278

1. Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract 2. Thoracic cage expands up and out 3. Lungs expand 4. This causes a drop in intrapulmonary pressure 5. This cause a drop in intra-alveolar pressure thus movement of air from the atmosphere to the alveoli

Answer 279

1. Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles relax 2. Thoracic cage moves in and down 3. Lung’s recoil toward pre-inspiratory size 4. Air in lungs compressed 5. Pressure rises above atmospheric 6. Air flows out of the lungs down the pressure gradient

Answer 280

Compliance is the effort required to expand the lungs. Some factors may reduce compliance thus making is hard to breathe. Some things, such as elastic connective tissue that facilitate alveolar recoil, increases elastic compliance.

Answer 281

Surface tension is a force that make it hard for the alveoli to expand. Basically there are water molecules on the epithelium lining of the alveoli which create the “air-water interface”, but those water molecules are more strongly attracted to each other than the air thus are able to resist the pulling apart while the alveoli expand.

Answer 282

Through use of a surfactant released by type 2 alveolar cells. Surfactant can be released through tubular myeline. It reduces the attraction between the hydrogen bonds of the water molecules thus reducing their resistance to separation while the alveoli expand resulting in an increase in pulmonary compliance.

Answer 283

1. Neural (sympathetic drive) 2. Chemical (increase carbon dioxide) 3. Hormonal (adrenaline)

Answer 284

1. Neural (parasympathetic) 2. Chemical (reduction in carbon dioxide)

Answer 285

It is the air remaining in the airways that cannot participate in gas exchange – around 150ml.

Answer 286

It is the volume of air exchanged between the atmosphere and alveoli per min.

Answer 287

The pulmonary ventilation includes the entirety of the gas injested by a person while alveolar ventilation only includes a part of the gas that is exchanged in the alveoli (pulmonary volume – dead space)

Answer 288

It is basically constant. Thus if a person has shallow breathing that does not create tidal volume that exceeds the dead space value, they won’t actually perform alveoli respiration.

Answer 289

Through net diffusion. Thus following appropriate gradients, gases move from area of high concentration to the area of low concentrations until dynamic equilibrium is reached. Note: particles can still move even if equilibrium is reached (hence why it is called dynamic equilibrium).

Answer 290

Through used of hundreds and millions of alveoli that can expand, lungs are able to create high surface area which following Fick’s law is great for diffusion of substances.

Answer 291

Percentages of the gas times by the total atmospheric pressure.

Answer 292

Because as air passes through the nasal cavity and the mouth it get saturated with water molecules creating water vapor, thus total pressure of air coming in is altered lowering the oxygen partial pressure. Also the fresh air that comes in contact and mixes with dead space air thus lowering partial pressure of oxygen even further.

Answer 293

Partial pressure in different mediums drive diffusion as the gasses will move down their partial pressure gradients. For example, the partial pressure in the alveoli upon inspiration is higher than the alveolar capillaries – thus oxygen moves into the capillary. It travels down the circulatory system and reaches target tissue which has lower partial oxygen pressure than the capillary – thus oxygen moves from the capillary into said tissue. Carbon dioxide follows a similar blue print but in reverse.

Answer 294

1. Surface area – Fick’s law 2. Difussion coefficient of the molecule 3. Distance – that is why the basement membrane is fused to reduce the distance – can be increased by pathological conditions thus reducing the gas exchange rate

Answer 295

By physically dissolving in blood or bound to hemoglobin (majority transporter) in red blood cells. Deoxyhamoglobin (non-oxygen hemoglobin) is able to bind up to 4 molecules of oxygen (creating saturated oxyhamoglobin). Thus hemoglobin is way more effective way to deliver oxygen.

Answer 296

1. Hemoglobin is able to carry the oxygen molecules that are dissolved in blood] 2. This uptake of oxygen reduces the partial pressure of oxygen within the blood capillaries 3. This decrease in partial pressure of oxygen changes the concentration gradient 4. Lower concentration of oxygen leads to a higher uptake of oxygen by diffusion from the alveolar

Answer 297

It is a description of factors that influence the release of Oxygen from haemoglobin These are 1. Carbon dioxide levels – reduces affinity 2. Acidity – reduces affinity 3. Temperature – reduce cell metabolism 4. BPG – changes affinity by binding

Answer 298

It is usually the same amount as the oxygen we consume

Answer 299

10% - physically dissolved 30% - bound to haemoglobin – carbamino haemoglobin 60% - as bicarbonate – combining with water in RBC and carbonic anhydrase (catalyst) – thus bicarbonate and hydrogen ions. Bicarbonate is moved though the chloride counter pump and hydrogen ions combine with haemoglobulin (Haledon effect at the alveolar)

Answer 300

At the lungs, carbon dioxide is given up by red blood cells into the alveoli. Carbon dioxide concentration falls, thereby shifting the oxygen equilibrium curve to the left; the increase in hemoglobin oxygen affinity enhances uptake of oxygen from the alveoli.

Answer 301

Breathing is sustained through rhythmic contraction of the skeletal muscles that are innovated with nerves and involved in inspiration and active expiration.

Answer 302

1. Pons respiratory center – smooth breathing – vagal efferent fibres 2. Medullary respiratory center – quite breathing – contains the dorsal respiratory group with respiratory neurons that connect to the motor nerves of the inspiratory muscles – also contains ventral respiratory group – used for active breathing.

Answer 303

It is thought to be a pacemaker center of the respiratory system

Answer 304

Fires signals to DRG to reduce breathing

Answer 305

Fires signals to the DRG to increase breathing

Answer 306

Chemical control: Chemoreceptors: 1. Peripheral chemoreceptors – carotid bodies and aortic bodies – respond within second to blood gas and pH changes (H+ ions) 2. Central chemoreceptor – located in medulla – detect changes in pH in brain extracellular fluid

Answer 307

Because, chemoreceptors are unable to appropriately measure the amount of oxygen in the body as majority of it is bound with haemoglobin. It is only used as the emergency mechanism.

Answer 308

Basically when arterial partial pressure of oxygen drops bellow a threshold of 60 mm Hg, the peripheral chemoreceptors are able to detect it and fire a signal to the medullary respiratory center. The medullary respiratory center is able to increase ventilation thus increasing the arterial partial oxygen pressure.

Answer 309

1. The peripheral chemoreceptors have a very weak response to the increase of carbon concentration in blood 2. The central chemoreceptors are the main receptors in the cascade that relates to the increase in respiration in response to increased carbon dioxide levels.

Answer 310

The central chemoreceptors are very sensitive to the amount of H+ ions in the brain ECF. Thus: 1. CO2 travels in the blood 2. It is able to convert into bicarbonate and a hydrogen ion with use of carbonic anahydrase near the brain ecf 3. The increased H+ concentration results in chemoreceptor detection and triggering the firing of neurons and increase in respiration

Answer 311

1. Decrease PoO2 and and increate in PoCO2 in the arterials 2. Increased extreccular fluid CO2 in the brain 3. This triggeres an increase in H+ in the brain 4. Stimulation of central chemoreceptors activate MRC 5. Inspiration occurs

Answer 312

Alkalosis by decrease of CO2

Answer 313

1. Use of accessory muscles 2. Dyspnea – mental anguish associated with lack of air – elevated levels of CO2 or feedback from muscles 3. Wheezing – due to narrow airways 4. Cyanosis – very late sign – blue color of nail beds – remember that hemoglobin level is the same it is just the ability to acquire oxygen form the atmosphere is reduced

Answer 314

1. Airways obstruction and loss 2. Alveoli loss 3. Restrictive – loss of compliance due to fibrosis and loss of elasticity – could also be due to scoliosis or kyphosis which restricts the ability of the thoracic cage to inlarge

Answer 315

It is an umbrella term that stands for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. These disease are able to increase airway resistance in a multitude of way – but primarily through narrowing of lower airways.

Answer 316

Asthma, Chronic bronchitis and emphysema.

Answer 317

Asthma can be triggered by irritants, allergens, respiratory infections or vigorous exercise. Asthma is a result of over secretion of thick mucus as well as airway hyper responsiveness – spasm of smooth muscles.

Answer 318

It is a disease that is caused by air allergen of cigarette smoke. Airway oedema and thick mucus over production. As well as impaired cilia, so mucous not cleared even with coughing. This results in frequent bacterial infection. Not able to use bronchodilators.

Answer 319

It is caused by irritants and is mediated by a sever respiratory macrophage response. Macrophage produce trypsin, an enzyme that degrades protein in excessive mounts thus damaging the elastic fibers reducing the alveolar recoil.

Answer 320

Patients with COPD need to use more energy to perform appropriate respiratory function due to 1. Decreased compliance of the lungs 2. Increased airway resistance 3. Decrease elastic recoil Thus they use accessory respiratory muscles thus requiring more energy.

Answer 321

The reduction in airway radius increases the resistance

Answer 322

1. Under normal circumstance the airway pressure remains slightly above the intrapleural pressure 2. During force inspiration by a patient with COPD – there is an increase in intra-alveolar and intrapleural pressure 3. Airway pressure drops below pressure in chest 4. Thus the airway that are not supported by cartilage collapse 5. That is why COPD patient find it harder to breath out than breath in as collapsed airway lead to loss of elastic recoil and increased airway resistance

Answer 323

A person with COPD can inspire normally but expire poorly. While a person who have restricted elasticity in alveoli inspires poorly and expires fine.

Answer 324

Parasympathetic nervous system cause the contraction of bronchiolar smooth muscle thus causing a constriction of airway and increased airway resistance.

Answer 325

Through relaxation of smooth muscle by adrenaline and sympathetic signaling which will cause dilation of the airway and decreased airway resistance.

Answer 326

Hypoventilation is able to change pressure gradients for both oxygen and carbon dioxide. It reduces the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli due to dead space air, thus less oxygen is able to diffuse into blood capillaries – reducing the overall oxygen saturation in the organism. It reduces the excretion of carbon dioxide thus increasing the carbon saturation of blood.

Answer 327

Inadequate amount of O2 at the level of the cells – limits cellular energy production.

Answer 328

1. Hypoxic hypoxia – low arterial PO2 and Poor Hb saturation – caused by insufficient gas exchange and high altitude 2. Anemic hypoxia – diminished capacity to transport oxygen in blood – low RBC, insufficient Hb, CO poisoning 3. Circulatory hypoxia – limited transport of O2 – potential local blockage in the vasculature or congestive heart failure 4. Histotoxic hypoxia – cells can not utilize O2 – cyanide poisoning

Answer 329

Contribution to homeostasis by absorbing water, minerals, secrete waste and breakdown food in order to create molecules that can be used for energy conversion.

Answer 330

Oral Cavity – biting, chew, swallow Pharynx & esophagus – transport Stomach – mechanical disruption (via muscular contraction); chemical digestion Small intestine – chemical & mechanical digestion & absorption Large intestine – absorption of electrolytes & vitamins Rectum and anus – storage and excretion

Answer 331

1. Ingestion - mouth 2. Mixing/propulsion – orthopharynx and peristalsis 3. Mechanical Digestion - chewing 4. Chemical digestion – enzymes and acid 5. Absorption - intestines 6. Excretion/Defecation – rectum and anus

Answer 332

1. Mucosa 2. Submucosa 3. Muscularis 4. Serosa

Answer 333

Lamina propria – the connective tissue layer – contains MALT, nerves and used as route for nutrient absorption.

Answer 334

Simple columnar epithelium in the small intestine and remainder of the tract. Stratified squamous in the mouth, esophagus & anal canal.

Answer 335

Mainly mucous release

Answer 336

Tight junctions

Answer 337

It is a layer of muscles that are present in the GIT that are composed of mostly smooth muscles and sometimes skeletal muscles.

Answer 338

Autonomous smooth muscle function – internal pacemaker activity – initiated of the interstitial cells of Cajal

Answer 339

Intrinsic nerve plexuses – myenteric plexus between the two layers of the muscularis – submucosal plexus – both used to regulate local action

Answer 340

Extrinsic nerves – autonomic nervous system division – increase GIT function with increase parasympathetic pathway – coordinate activity between different regions of the tract

Answer 341

GI hormones – released by enteroendocrine cells of the mucosa – released into the blood stream and act on nerves, muscle, glands – gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin, GDIP, motilin

Answer 342

It is a large muscular tube that transports from mouth to stomach. Non-keratinised stratified squamous epithelium. Same layers as remainder of GIT. Has submucosa glands that secrete fluid that helps with transport. Proximal end – skeletal muscles. Distal – smooth.

Answer 343

It is a C shaped sack that contain rugae for expansion. Starts at the esophagus and ends at the pyloric sphincter. Has normal layers of the GIT + a third muscularis layer which helps with mechanical digestion.

Answer 344

Simple columnar epithelium with gastric pits and glands. The layer that separates the mucosa from submucosa is the muscularis mucosa. All the columnar cells of the mucosa release alkaline mucus which is important for protection and defense. There are also glands that are able to produce acid, enzymes and hormones.

Answer 345

1. Cardia – narrow circular band – mostly secretory cells that produce mucous & lysozymes 2. Fundus and body – has fundic glands and most of acid producing cells 3. Pylorus – very deep gastric pits – secrete mucus & lysozymes

Answer 346

1. Mucous surface cells – produce insoluble mucous 2. Mucous neck cells – produce thinner and more soluble mucous – irregular shape cells Both mucous cells produce mucous, a special coating that helps with protection of the stomach as well as not allowing the gastric juice to damage the stomach and “self-digest”.

Answer 347

Parietal cells are mainly found on the upper parts of gastric glands. Bright pink (eosinophilic). Resting or active. Secrete H+ and Cl- which combine to form HCl. Also secrete intrinsic factor for B12 absorption.

Answer 348

They are cells that are mainly found in lower regions of glands. Synthesis protein. Have granules that contain inactive pepsinogen. Produce lipase.

Answer 349

They are cells found in neck and base of gastric gland. Fundus of stomach secretes serotonin. Body of stomach secretes histamine. Pylorus of stomach secretes gastrin and somatostatin.

Answer 350

Duodenum (5%), jejunum (40%) and Ileum (60%)

Answer 351

Small intestine has villi that are projections rather than rugae with gastric pits.

Answer 352

Smaller villi and presence of lymphatic nodules in the Ileum

Answer 353

They are tall columnar cells with oval nucleus. Contain microvilli and function to absorb nutrients and secrete enzymes.

Answer 354

They are cells that are interspersed between enterocytes. They increase in number down the tract. They produce mucins.

Answer 355

They are cells located in base of crypts. They contain lysozyme which has antibacterial activity.

Answer 356

They are a part of MALT and are situated in the lamina propria of the small intestine.

Answer 357

1. Segmentation – it is a ring-like contraction and relaxation of muscularis that causes mixing and is controlled by pacemaker cells. 2. Migrating motility complex – propagating contractions propel chyme forward and is controlled by hormones.

Answer 358

1. Non-propulsive – main motility, pacemaker cells, segmental and slow 2. Propulsive – mass movement, moves real fast, controlled by hormones

Answer 359

1. Salivary glands 2. Liver 3. Gallbladder 4. Pancrease

Answer 360

It is a hollow pear-shaped organ; divided into 3 regions fundus, body and neck. It is located in the fossa in posterior surface of liver’s right lobe, Has a cystic duct that extends to union with hepatic duct forming the common bile duct. Than joins the pancreatic duct and releases pancreatic juice into the duodenum. Simple columnar epithelium.

Answer 361

Main function is bile storage – because bile is constantly produced by the liver, but during meals the bile can not be used to close of hepatopancreatic sphincter, thus gallbladder is need to store the up low of bile. It also modifies the bile by absorbing water and concentrating the salts. This could cause the gallstones.

Answer 362

1. Neural: Vagal stimulation causes increased liver bile flow and gallbladder contraction. 2. Hormonal: Secretin (produced by the duodenum) 3. Cholecystokinin which is part of hormone release 4. Chemical: Bile salts also stimulate bile secretion

Answer 363

With bile salts: 1. Process of emulsification – triglycerides are insoluble thus aggregate like lipid droplets – bile salts embed themselves within droplets as they are amphipathic – this cause a creation of shell meaning that the triglyceride droplets are broken down and could be broken down by pancreatic lipase. 2. Formation of micelles – after the breakdown the digestion products (free fatty acid, vitamin, cholesterol) are put into micelles through use of bile salts – this creates an easier site of absorption (enterocytes).

Answer 364

It has a simple columnar epithelium with an underlying lamina propria and muscularis with all direction fibers. Has serosa and adventitia. The lining of the gallbladder has lining epithelial cells which are specialized for water uptake – they have abundant microvilli and prominent mitochondria. Highly dependent on sodium transport.

Answer 365

1. Endocrine function – pancreatic islets – produce insulin, glucagon and somatostatin - pale 2. Exocrine function – groups acinini grape like clusters – form lobules separated by septa – majority of the pancrease – composed of serous cells containing zymogen granules

Answer 366

Intercalated duct – intralobular – interlobular – main pancreatic duct.

Answer 367

Bicarbonate ions & digestive enzymes. Some enzymes become activated as they arrive at the small intestine to not damage the pancrease.

Answer 368

2 hormones – secretin and cholecystokinin 1. CCK release is caused by presence of triglycerides in the duodenum 2. Secretin release is caused by acid presence in the duodenum

Answer 369

1. Beta cells – insulin production – anabolic hormone that lower blood glucose levels by promoting cellular uptake – increase after ingesting a meal 2. Alpha cells – glucagon production – catabolic hormone that increase blood sugar by mobilizing energy-rich molecules from their stores 3. D cell – somatostatin production

Answer 370

1. Smell 2. Taste 3. Sight 4. Hear 5. Maintain equilibrium & balance

Answer 371

Both olfaction and gustation rely on interaction of molecules with receptor cells wich generator neural signals that project to cerebral cortex & limbic system.

Answer 372

1. Salty (sodium) 2. Sweet (glucose and alcohols) 3. Sour (hydrogen ions – acid) 4. Bitter (alkaloids) 5. Umami (L-glutamate)

Answer 373

1. Vagus nerve 2. Glossopharyngeal nerve 3. Facial nerve

Answer 374

1. Vallate – taste buds on the lateral surface 2. Fungiform (mushroom) – taste buds on the apical surface 3. Foliate (leaf shape) – taste buds on the lateral surface 4. Filiform – does not contain taste buds

Answer 375

1. Gustatory – receptors cells 2. Supporting – basic support role 3. Basal cells – develop into new receptor cells

Answer 376

1. Tastant binds to gustatory receptor cell 2. Causes a depolarizing receptor potential (calcium entry) 3. Neurotransmitter release from the receptor cell 4. Detected by afferent nerve fibers that synapse with receptor cell 5. Initiates action potential in terminal endings

Answer 377

1. It needs to be volatile 2. It needs to be water soluble to dissolve in the mucosa

Answer 378

The top of the nasal cavity.

Answer 379

1. Olfactory cells 2. Supporting cells 3. Basal cells

Answer 380

They are bipolar neurons with cilia. The cilia are long & nonmotile and used to increase the surface area in order to better respond to odoriferous substances by generating a receptor potential.

Answer 381

1. The cilia on the olfactory cells recognizes and help to bind the odorant molecule 2. The signal is generated 3. Signal travels through the olfactory receptor to the olfactory bulb 4. In the bulb, olfactory receptors bind with different mitral cells 5. Mitra cells carry the signal to the olfactory and orbitofrontal cortex

Answer 382

Basically support. They are free surface containing microvilli and are binded to the olfactory cells. They also contain a light-yellow pigment, lipofucin.

Answer 383

They act as stem cells and continually undergo division to replace receptors.

Answer 384

To produce mucus which moistens surface & dissolves odorants so that transduction can occur.

Answer 385

1. Mouth – buccal phase – food is passed into the oropharynx voluntarily 2. Pharynx – pharyngeal phase – involuntary boulus passed from the pharynx into the oesophagus 3. Oesophagus – oesophageal phase – involuntary passage of bolus through the oesophagus into the stomach

Answer 386

1. Compression of the bolus against hard palate 2. Retraction of the tongue forces bolus into the oropharynx 3. Elevation of the soft palate seals off the oropharynx 4. Once bolus enters the oropharynx, reflex response are initiated and the bolus is moved towards the stomach

Answer 387

1. Tactile receptors on palatal arches & uvula are stimulated 2. Pattern of muscle contraction in the pharyngeal muscles is triggered by th swallowing center in the medulla 3. Elevation of the larynx & folding of the epiglottis results from contractions of the pharyngeal muscles 4. Pharyngeal constrictors then force the bolus thru the pharynx, past closed glottis and into oesophagus

Answer 388

1. Blood is evenly distrivuted through the body when lying flat 2. On standing blood pools in the legs due to contraction of skeletal muscles and squeezing of veins 3. Pooling blood cuases reduction in venous return, this causes the reduction in cardiac output, reducing blood pressure 4. The body is unable to appropritley regulate it due to multiple factors 5. Reduced pressure to the brain causes the brain to shut down due to lack of oxygen 6. Person falls

Answer 389

When the person suddenly stands upright, gravity acts on vascular volume causing blood to accumulate in the lower extremities. This reduces venous return thus reduce cardiac output thus reducing total peripheral blood pressure.

Answer 390

1. Setting 2. Patient 3. CC 4. SHx 5. MHx 6. DHx 7. Exam

Answer 391

1. Hemorage leads to loss of blood which reduces fluid volume thus reduces blood pressure 2. Sympathetic response - baroreceptors are able to detect low blood pressure and increase sympathetic stimulation to the heart almost instantly - this increase cardiac output thus increasing blood pressure 3. Catecholamitic response - the sympathetic stimulation also causes the release of catecholamines like epinephrin and norepinephrin which increase vasocontriction, heart rate and stroke volume of the heart - these combine to increase blood pressure 4. RAAS response - the sympathetic stimulation causes release of renin by the macula densa cells - this triggers the begining of the RAAS cascade which ultimatley increase water and Na+ reabsorbtion (through vasopressin release), increase vasocontriction and cause thirst - these will cause an increase of blood pressure through volume increase as well as vasocontriction.

Answer 392

1. Vascular spasm/local vasocontriction - the cut vessels immediately contrict to slow blood flow and minimise blood loss 2. Formation of a platelet plug via adhesion, activation & aggregation of platelets: a. von Willebrand factor adheres to the exposed endoepethilial collagen, creating sites which allow platelets to bind forming a platelet plug - than platelets release factors that aggregate other platelets b. Thromboxane A2 - major component produced by platelets - involved in platelet aggregation adn vasocontriction c. ADP is also produced by platelets - it stimulates release of prostocyclin and nitric oxide which can limit platelet aggregation - platelets plug size control 3. Blood coagulation = transformation of blood from liquid to solid gel a. Platelets are stimulated to relase prothrombin activator which converts the plasma protein prothrombin into the enzyme, thrombin b. Thrombin converts the plasma protein fibrinogen into threads of the protein fibrin which wind around the platelet plug to form a framework of fibres - this holds the plug and other blood cells in the blood vessel c. Platelets in the clot begin to shrink - tightening the clot 4. Clot dissolution occurs via: a. TPA, a protein on endothelial cells activates the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin b. Plasmin breaks down clots by breaking down the fibrin netwrok c. Macrophages & phagocytic WBCs then phagocytose the debris

Answer 393

1. Paracetamol transiently inhibits the formations of thromboxane which prevents platelet aggregation 2. Asprin supresses the production of protaglandis and rheomboxane due to its irreversible inactivation of the cyccloxygenase enzyme which is required for prostaglandin & thromboxane synthesis - will last for the entrie lifecycle fo the platelet which is around 8 days

Answer 394

1. Kidneys 2. Uterers 3. Bladder 4. Urethra

Answer 395

Move the urine from the kidneys to the bladder

Answer 396

It is the symetrical contraction of muscle and is a primary method of transportation of urine from the kidneys to the bladder.

Answer 397

400 - 600 mL

Answer 398

Movement of urine from the bladder out of the body

Answer 399

1. Stretch of the bladder stimulates the PNS to contract smooth muscle and relax the internal urethral sphincter 2. After the voluntary controlled external urethral sphincter is relaxed 3. Urine exits the urethra

Answer 400

1. Zona glomerulosa 2. Zona fasciulata 3. Zona reticularis

Answer 401

Zona glomerulosa - aldosterone

Answer 402

Zona fasciulata - cortisol

Answer 403

Zona reticularis - sex hormones

Answer 404

Catecholamines - adrenaline & noradrenaline

Answer 405

1. Salt and water regulation 2. Acid regulation 3. Blood pressure regulation 4. Removal of by-products, toxins, drugs

Answer 406

Kidney can be considered as: 1. Major organ that helps to control whole body homeostasis 2. An endocrine gland

Answer 407

1. Renin production 2. Erythropoietin (EPO) production 3. VItamin D activation/deactivation

Answer 408

Nephrons are functional components of kidneys.

Answer 409

1. Filtration of plasma 2. Concentrating urine 3. Removal of toxins and by-products

Answer 410

1. Tubular 2. Vascular

Answer 411

1. Juxtamedullary 2. Cortical

Answer 412

Cortical is more common than juxtamedullary

Answer 413

Juxtamedullary nephrones have long loops of henle while cortical have short once.

Answer 414

Juxtamedullary have a vasa recta structure - meaning straight blood vessels. Cortical have a meshed structure.

Answer 415

It is the functional unit of filtration

Answer 416

Ultrafiltration

Answer 417

The afferent artriole is larger than the efferent artriole

Answer 418

The afferent arteriole and the distal tubule

Answer 419

They are able to regulate blood pressure with greater control

Answer 420

1. In capilaries 2. Through the bowman's capsule 3. Into the proximal tubule for further prosessing

Answer 421

1. Granular cells are specialised smooth muscle cells 2. Found primarily on the afferent arteriole 3. Function: synthesise, store and secrete renin

Answer 422

1. Renin is released by the granulwar cells in response to: low blood pressure, low NaCl in tubules via macula densa cells and sympathetic nervous drive 2. Renin is used in the RAAS system

Answer 423

1. Glomerular filtration 2. Tubular secretion 3. Tubular resorbtion

Answer 424

1. Blood vessels are **fenestrated** 2. Fenestrations **allow the pessage of some waste products but not whole cells** 3. They move according to **concentration gradients**

Answer 425

1. Lumen of the capilaries 2. Basement membrane 3. Lumen of Bowman's capsule

Answer 426

It is the rate of filtered fluid through both kidneys per minute. It is a measure of total kidney function. Normal 125 ml/min

Answer 427

By using substances that can be freely filtered and not at all resorbed. SUch substance is creatinine - a bi-product of muscle metabolism.

Answer 428

GFR = (urine concentraion x urine flow)/plasma concentration

Answer 429

It is the pressure that oposes filtration due to the fact that the bowman's capsule already has some liquid in it, so the liquid pushes in the opposing direction to the filtration

Answer 430

It is a pressure that is excereted by large protein molecules that keeps the water and deisolved substances within vascular system

Answer 431

Increased net filtration pressure increases the GFR (the relationship is proportional)

Answer 432

1. Myogenic mechanism 2. Tubularglomerular feedback

Answer 433

It is the automatic contraction of muscles in response to stretch to high blood flow

Answer 434

1. Detection of concentration of Na+ and Cl- in the distal tubule by macula densa cells 2. If flow rate is high = Na+ and Cl- is high = vasoconstriction = reduction in GFR 3. If flow rate is low = Na+ and Cl- is low = vasodilation = increased GFR

Answer 435

1. Diarrhoea occurs 2. Recudction in plasma volume (colloid osmotic pressure increases) 3. Decrease in venous return 4. Reduction in blood pressure (Reduced capillary pressure) 5. Baroreceptor stimulus 6. Contriction of afferent arteriole 7. Reduced flow 8. Reduced GFR

Answer 436

They are cells that cover basal lamina of the bowman's capsule

Answer 437

The movement of actin like filaments allows them to increase their size, constrict the area of filtration thus reduce GFR

Answer 438

The destruction of podocytes, basement mebrane or charge barrier will allow proteins to be filtrated, thus reduce the plasma-colloidosmotic pressure. This can lead to back pull of fluids into the blood vessels resulting in oedema.

Answer 439

1. Reabsorption - the taking up of solutes fomr the filtrate back into the peritubular capilaries. 2. Substance such as gucose, amino acids, sodium, Cl- and water can be reabsorbed 3. This is achieved by osmosis, diffusion and active processes 4. Can be regulated by Aldosterone and Vasopressin

Answer 440

1. Secretion - the taking up of solutes from peritubular capillaries back into the filtrate 2. K+, H+ and some drugs are secreted 3. Achieved by active processes 4. Can be hormone controlled by Aldosterone

Answer 441

Through the interstitial fluid

Answer 442

1. Passive reabsorption - no energy use, down the concentration gradient 2. Active reabsorption - energy is used, against concentrwation gradient

Answer 443

1. Microcvilli to increase surface area and thus increase reabsorption 2. Increased number of mitochondria for energy production for active transport 3. Glucose, amino acids, 65% of the sodium, Cl-, K+ and water are reabsorbed unregulated back into the peritubular capilaries Overall the proximal tubules reabsorbes 65% of Na+ and 65% of water

Answer 444

1. Water 2. NOT salts

Answer 445

1. Salts 2. NOT water

Answer 446

25% of Na+ and 15% of water

Answer 447

1. It rarley contains microvilli thus is perfect for secretion 2. Regulates pH through reabsorbtion of bicarbonate and secretion of hydronium ions 3. Fine tuning of Na+ and K+ with aldosterone 4. Secretion of drugs, metabolites and toxins

Answer 448

1. Fine tuning of water reabsorption controlled by vasopressin 2. Fine tuning of Na+ and K+ with Aldosterone Overall collecting duct absorbes 4-5% Na+ and 5% of water

Answer 449

It is a mechanism by which desscending and ascending loops of henley are able to creat an osmotic gradients thus release more water and ions into the medula respectivley

Answer 450

It is a theoretic process in which active transport mechansism can reabsorbed substances at max. Beyond tubular maximum reabsorbtion rate can not increase and surplus of materials is lost in urine.

Answer 451

Diabetes mellitus is a condition where there is a large amount of glucose in blood. Upon filtration in the glomerulus it is released in the tubular system. Due to high amounts the glucose excides the maximum tubular reabsorption rate thus is excreted in urine. This cause a shift in osmotic pressure against reabsorption thus increasing the urine volume. Thus the thirst is increased.

Answer 452

Constant: 1. Proximal tubule 65% 2. Ascending loop of henle 25% Variable: 1. Ditant convoluted tubule and collecting 0-10%

Answer 453

High sodium load = increased water reabsorption

Answer 454

Granular cells on the afferent arteriole release renin in response to: 1. Low salt levels 2. Low blood pressure 3. Extra cellular fluid volume decrease

Answer 455

1. Baroreceptor like - granular cells can act as baroreceptors 2. Stimulation from macula densa cells that detect changes in salt in the distal tubule 3. SNS signalling

Answer 456

1. Aldosterone binds with cytoplasmic receptor 2. Initiation of transcription 3. Synthesis of new protein channels 4. Modulation of existing channels 5. Modified and new channels are able to reabsorb more Na+ and secrete K+

Answer 457

Renin works via RAAS system to increase Na+ reabsorption

Answer 458

Aldosterone is part of the RAAS and increase the reabsorption of Na+ by kidneys. This changes the osmotic pressure to hold more water. Thus increasing blood volume. Increasing blood pressure.

Answer 459

Angiotensin II triggeres the relaaese of vasopressin by the posterior putunitary gland. Vasopressin is able to increase the water reabsobtion in kidney tubules by binding to type 2 vasopressin receptor and increasing the work of aquapourins 2 and increasing there number in the collecting duct.

Answer 460

Overproduction of aldosterone can lead to high fluid retention and this odema

Answer 461

ACE is a hormone that converts Angiotensin 1 into Angiotensin 2 trigeering aldosterone releae and vasocontriction. IF ACE is blocked, angiotensin 1 can not be converted into angiotensin 2 thus it is undable to cause vasocontriction and increase sodium retention.

Answer 462

Constant: 1. Proximal tubule 65% 2. Descending loop of henle 15% Variable: 1. Collecting duct and sital tubule 5-19.4%

Answer 463

1. Hypothelamus receptors detect the hgih salt concentrtions 2. Receptors send a signal to the posterior pituitary gland via neurosecretory cells 3. Vasopressin is released

Answer 464

1. Baroreceptors on the aortic arch detect low blood pressure and via SNS signal the posterior pituitary gland 2. Vasopressin is released

Answer 465

Vasopressin is able to binf to V1 receptor on the smooth muscle and cause the contriction of the muscle

Answer 466

Osmolarity: 1. Day-today response 2. Very sensetive 3. Fast acting Blood pressure: 1. Emergencies only 2. Not sensetive to small changes

Answer 467

1. Vasopressin in blood is able to bind to the basolateral membrane of a distal or collecting tubule cell 2. This binding activates cyclic AMP 3. AMP promotes the insertion of the water channels in the opposite membrane that faces the tubule, which is impermiable to water without aquapourins 4. Water is able to enter the tubular cell and exit into the peritubular fluid and into the capillary

Answer 468

1. It becomes diluted 2. Volume increases

Answer 469

1. Urine reduces in volume 2. Urine is more concentrated 3. Blood pressure increases

Answer 470

It is released from the atria of the heart

Answer 471

It is released from the ventricles of the heart

Answer 472

High plasma volume detected by the baroreceptors

Answer 473

Main objective: Reduction of blood pressure in nephron. Methods: 1. Inhibition kidney Na+ reabsorbtion 2. Inhibitng the effect of RAAS 3. DIlation of afferent arterioles in glomerulus Also inhibition of Sympathetic drive thus decrease in cardiac output

Answer 474

1. ANP binds to sodium channels on the luminal membrane 2. Block the channels 3. Block sodium reabsorption 4. Block water reabsorption

Answer 475

ANP is able to inhibit the Aldosterone

Answer 476

It is able to increase the GFR through vasodilation of the Afferent arteriole. This means that more blood is able to travel for filtration increasing the GFR.

Answer 477

K+ helps to regulate the resting membrane potential of cells thus cells are very sensetive to K+ fluctuations in the plasma

Answer 478

Constant active rebasorption, up to 100%

Answer 479

Active reabsorption up to 20-30%

Answer 480

Controlled active secretion 1-80%

Answer 481

Aldosterone through the Sodium - Potasium pump

Answer 482

Kidneys try to secrete as much potasium as possible in order to conserve as much sodium as possible.

Answer 483

Acidosis occurs due to increased CO2 levels in blood. Increaased CO2 increases the ionisation of H2CO3 to H+ and HCO3-.

Answer 484

Acidosis occurs due to increasing H+ levels in blood due to lactic acid or ketone bodies. This reduces the amount of bicarbonate as they are used to buffer the said increase in H+

Answer 485

It is the most common type of non-carious damage to the teeth and occurs when an acidic agent is presented to the oral environment which is not mediated by cariogenic bacteria.

Answer 486

Physical damage caused by mechanical rubbing of one tooth surface onto another.

Answer 487

Rubbing a foreign agent onto the tooth surface.

Answer 488

Disturbance in matrix formation and is characterised by pitted, groove or thinned enamel

Answer 489

Disturbance of calcification. Affected enamel appears white and opaque, but post-eruptive may become brown. Enamel is weak and prone to breakdown.

Answer 490

Extrinsic and intrinsic

Answer 491

It occurs due to porosities in the enamel

Answer 492

It occurs by non-vitality of the tooth, damage from eruption or tetracycline stains.

Answer 493

WSL, Cavitated, Root and Rampant

Answer 494

active caries - intact, loss of normal enamel translucency, white chalky appearance, fragile, border often indistinct.

Answer 495

Next stage of WSL when cavitation occurs

Answer 496

caries that involves both enamel and the dentine in the root region

Answer 497

occurs due to prologned exposure to simple carbs eg baby formula

Answer 498

An increased in acidification of biofilm

Answer 499

1. Visual (using mirror, air, explorer) 2. Transillumination 3. Radiographs 4. Electronic caries detectors 5. Chemical detection

Answer 500

Tri-plaque ID Gel

Answer 501

Red - new plaque Dark blue - old plaque Light blue - cariogenic plaque that is with pH below 4.5

Answer 502

1. Enhancing remin and inhibiting demin 2. Anti-microbial at High concentrations (above 5000 ppm) 3. Intra-oral fluoride reservoir

Answer 503

1. Increasing concentrations of Ca++ 2. Improves effectivness of fluoride 3. Effective in xerostomic conditions

Answer 504

Milk - milk coagulation in stomach impedes diffusion of F and slows rate of absorption

Answer 505

0.05-0.07 mg/kg body weight/day at the time of enamel calcification

Answer 506

More than 100 ppm

Answer 507

It could act as a slow release mechanism for creation of fluroxiapattite

Answer 508

1. Lack of fluoride 2. High amount of simple CHOs & acidic foods 3. Mature and acidic plaque 4. Poor salivary protection

Answer 509

1. Adequate fluoride 2. Low amount of simple CHOs & acidic foods 3. Low levels of cariogenic bacteria 4. Good salivary protection

Answer 510

Fluoride is incorporated into enamel and dentine during formation as flurapatite

Answer 511

1. Acts during maturation 2. Acts during demin/remin 3. Bacteria interference

Answer 512

Low and continuous concentrations of F ion immediatley adjacent to the enamel to enhance remineralisation and prevent demineralisation

Answer 513

1000 - 1500 ppm

Answer 514

400 - 550 ppm

Answer 515

Due to fluorosis

Answer 516

No need to use fluoridated tooth paste

Answer 517

USe small head tooth brush, low concentration of fluoride, parent supervision, spit no rinse, twice a day

Answer 518

1. To desensitise root surfaces 2. Arrest early lesions 3. Erosion lesions 4. Alternative to tray fluorides

Answer 519

1. Thin white banded lines 2. Small pitting

Answer 520

Changes in the structure and composition of enamel as a result of excessive F ingestion

Answer 521

Due to the concentration of F within the microenvironment of the ameloblasts

Answer 522

1. Saliva 2. Triplex 3. Blood

Answer 523

1. Many restorative materials are hydrophobic 2. Patient managment 3. Operator managment

Answer 524

1. Retraction 2. Triplex 3. Absorbent material 4. Rubber damn

Answer 525

1. Tooth assessment and tooth prep 2. Clamp selection and preparation 3. Dam preperation 4. Clamp placement 5. Clamp and dam placement 6. Anchorage 7. Dam Frame 8. Inversion 9. Finishing 10. Removal

Answer 526

1. Mechanical removal of plaque 2. application of fluoride

Answer 527

Multi-tufted soft bristle

Answer 528

In order to achive ultimate fluoride protective effect

Answer 529

Chlorhexidine

Answer 530

Location: Site of plaque equmulation or not Colour: opaque, dull Texture: rough gritty pourus Contour

Answer 531

1. Identify 2. Prevention 3. Healing

Answer 532

1. Intrinsic – saliva quality change and creation of niches 2. Extrinsic – lifestyle changes - changes in diet, oral hygiene, fluoride

Answer 533

1. Increase concentration for remin (things like APF can reminerlise at pH 3) 2. Antimicrobial

Answer 534

1. Higher concentrations of Ca++ = super saturated conditions 2. Improves the effectiveness of fluoride to produce HA 3. Effective in xerostomia conditions

Answer 535

1. Inhibition of biofilm growth 2. Reducing the number of bacteria 3. Affecting virulence factors of specific bacteria 4. Modifying enzymes controlling acid formation and plaque

Answer 536

1. Attachment between tooth and connective tisue 2. Epithelial barrier 3. Bacterial sensor 4. Transition of immune components 5. Rapid turnover via exfliation

Answer 537

1. Root - protect the pulp 2. Sharpeys fibres - connect the cemntum and the alveolar bone 3. Periodontal ligament - connection of tooth to alveolar bone and armatisation 4. Alveolar bone - bone function

Answer 538

1. Attachment of teeht to bone 2. Soft tissue case to protect neurovascular complex 3. Nutrition and sensory 4. Transmission of occlusal forces to the bone 5. Constant adaptation to functional demands 6. Resistance to the impact of occlusal forces

Answer 539

1. Cementoblasts 2. Cementocytes 3. Cementoclasts 4. Fibroblasts

Answer 540

Uniformly plae pink with potential pigmentation

Answer 541

1. Rolled 2. Recession 3. Clefted

Answer 542

1. Bulbous 2. Blunted 3. Cratered

Answer 543

Firm, tight, well bound

Answer 544

Matte and stippled (sometimes)

Answer 545

It is apical shift of the gingival margin

Answer 546

You measure the distance beween the cemento-enamel junction to the gingival margin

Answer 547

Grade 1 - Horizontal mobility of less than 1 mm Grade 2 - Horizontal mobility of more than 1 mm and no vertical component Grade 3 - Horizontal mobility of more than 1 mm and vertical component movememnt

Answer 548

Degree I - Horizontal loss of periodontal tissue support of less than 3 mm Degree II - Horizontal loss of support more than 3 mm, but not encompassing the total width of furcation area Degree III - Horizontal through and through destruction of the periodontal tissue in the furcation

Answer 549

1. Prepare rubber dam equipment 2. Assess tooth to be clamped 3. Prepare the rubber dam 4. Floos up the clamp 5. Try clamp onto tooth 6. Apply rubber dam and the clamp 7. Put the frame on 8. Invert the dam 9. Cut the inteproximal spaces 10. Remove the dam and clamp 11. Floss the rubber in the interproximal areas

Answer 550

1. Dam preperation (hole positionin, punching) 2. Clamp selection (choice, gingival trauma, retention) 3. Clamp placement (gingival trauma) 4. Dam placement (alignment of dam) 5. Frame placement (positioning of frame) 6. Dam finish (isolation of appropriate teeht, moistture control) 7. Dam removal

Answer 551

It has no submucosa

Answer 552

When there are cells within the keratinised epithelium, e.g. gingiva

Answer 553

Normaly keratinised epithelium e.g. outer part of the lip

Answer 554

It is an area that attaches to the enamel

Answer 555

1. Skin 2. Vermillion border 3. Labial mucosa

Answer 556

1. Filiform 2. Fungiform 3. Foliate 4. Circumvallate

Answer 557

Keratinised stratified squamous epithelium

Answer 558

Non-keratinised stratified squamous epithelium

Answer 559

The most numerous, conical with keratinised tips, no taste buds.

Answer 560

Mushroom-shaped, highly vascularized connective tissue core, taste buds present.

Answer 561

Surrounded by a circular trench, opening of the ducts of serous glands of Von Ebner.

Answer 562

Gene expression profiles of oral and skin epithelium are quite different.

Answer 563

1. Wet and lubricate the oral cavity 2. Provide anti-bacterial protection 3. Facilitate swallowing & initiate digestion

Answer 564

1. Parotids 2. Submandibular 3. Sublingual

Answer 565

Branched acinar gland, secretory portion composed of serous cells

Answer 566

Branched tubuloacinar gland, secretory portion contains both mucous and serous cells.

Answer 567

Branched tubuloacinar gland, secretory portion contains predominantly mucous cells

Answer 568

1. Parenchyma (functional tissue) 2. Connective tissues (supporting tissue)

Answer 569

1. Serous (produce proteins and polysaccharides) 2. Mucous cells (mucinogen and glycoproteins)

Answer 570

1. Pyramid in shape 2. Active protein production

Answer 571

1. Cuboidal to columnar 2. Pale staining

Answer 572

Cuboidal epithelium

Answer 573

They are cells that wrap around the secretory cells and promote secretion by contraction

Answer 574

1. 99% water 2. 0.5% Electrolytes & proteins

Answer 575

1. Primary saliva - isotonic 2. Secondary saliva - modified in the duct

Answer 576

1. Mechanical 2. Gustatory 3. Olfactory

Answer 577

Through parasympathetic or Sympathetic

Answer 578

The parasympathetic - slow and digest. The sympathetic - flight or fight.

Answer 579

1. Attachment between tooth and connective 2. Epithelial barrier against biofilm bacteria 3. Bacterial sensor 4. Allows transition of components of the immunological host defence into the sulcus 5. Rapid turn over rate allows for fast repare.

Answer 580

1. Protection of the brain 2. Sense Organs 3. Airway 4. Mastication of Food

Answer 581

1. Temporal Bone 2. Articular eminence 3. Articular Disc 4. Condyle

Answer 582

1. Masseter 2. Medial pterygoid 3. Temporalis 4. Lateral pterygoid 5. Digastric

Answer 583

Bones can only grow through the appositional growth where new layers formed under the periosteum

Answer 584

Appositional & interstitial growth

Answer 585

1. Intramembranous ossification 2. Endochondral ossification

Answer 586

Woven bone

Answer 587

Lamellar bone

Answer 588

Through the intramembranous ossification

Answer 589

(All of the steps occur in the layer of mesenchyme) 1. Creation of ossification centre 2. Calcification 3. Formation of trabeculae 4. Development of periosteum

Answer 590

1. Cartilage changes 2. Ossification

Answer 591

The mesial palatal cusps of upper molars are in the lower central fossae

Answer 592

It is when the Mesial Buccal cusp of the upper 1st permanent molar is aligned with Mesial Buccal Groove of the lower 1st permanent molar

Answer 593

It is when the Mesial Buccal cusp of the upper 1st permanent molar is protruded forward in association to the Mesial Buccal Groove of the lower 1st permanent molar

Answer 594

It is when the Mesial Buccal cusp of the upper 1st permanent molar is retruded backwards in association to the Mesial Buccal Groove of the lower 1st permanent molar

Answer 595

1. Bone 2. Enamel 3. Dentine 4. Cementum

Answer 596

On the incisal edges

Answer 597

Posity, semipermeable dens, translucent, crystalline, hard, low thermal conductivity, low thermal expansion

Answer 598

Hexagonal rods and interrod enamel

Answer 599

70% mineral, 20% organic material, 10% water

Answer 600

Type I collagen, Type III collagen, Type V collagen

Answer 601

They are structures that extend from the pulp to the dentino-enamel junction

Answer 602

It is the dentine that forms the wall of each tubule. Little to no collagen.

Answer 603

It is the dentine between the tubules. There is a network of type I collagen fibres

Answer 604

They are lines that run perpendicular to the tubules

Answer 605

1. Production of dentine 2. Maintenance of dentine 3. Repair of dentine 4. Sensation 5. Defence

Answer 606

1. Fibroblasts 2. Odontoblasts 3. Undifferentiated mesenchymal cells 4. Immune cells

Answer 607

The junction between the epithelium and the underlying tissue is papill like. This increases the the rate of exchange between the two layers. And anchors the epithelium to the underlying connective tissue

Answer 608

Negative and positive

Answer 609

It is a tightly coiled, non-conducting regions. Stained darkly.

Answer 610

It is programed cell death

Answer 611

It is spatial differences in shape, structures and functions of cells.

Answer 612

1. Proteins 2. Polysaccharides 3. Nucleic acids 4. Lipids

Answer 613

It is a reversible change in epithelium type due to changes in the environment

Answer 614

AGS, fibres and CT cells

Answer 615

Spongy and Compact

Answer 616

Hyaline, fibrocartilage, elastic cartilage

Answer 617

Collagen has high levels of proline and lysine amino acids that undergo modification in the RER. Vitamin C is required to modify these amino acids.

Answer 618

1. Solvation water 2. Viscosity 3. Support 4. Limiting the amount of free fluid in CT 5. Oedema

Answer 619

Collagen type II

Answer 620

They sit in the lacunae and support the already existing bone matrix

Answer 621

There are blood vessels running parallel to the epidermis in the papillary layer of the dermis

Answer 622

Schwann cells and connective tissue

Answer 623

1. Myalination of axon using a schwan cell of oligodendrocyte creates node of Ranvier 2. Such nodes contain high concentration of voltage gated Na+ channels 3. By using only the nodes of Ranvier instead of the whole length of an axon, the time travelled by the electrical signal is reduced

Answer 624

It is found on the outer shell in the brain and inner shell of the spinal cord

Answer 625

Densley packaged neuronal cell bodies and their dendrites+ most glial cells

Answer 626

It is found on the inner shell in the brain and outer shell in spinal cord.

Answer 627

It consists of bundles of myelinated nerve fibres

Answer 628

It is the overlap fo the thick and thin filament

Answer 629

1. Neural factors 2. Muscular factors

Answer 630

They are joined by tight junctions which limits the movement of eletrolytes across the epithelium

Answer 631

1. Parotid 2. Submandibular 3. Sublingual

Answer 632

Carbonic acid

Answer 633

To allow for protection during cleaning and eating

Answer 634

1. Oral epithelium 2. Sulcular epitheliu - non-keratinised 3. Junctional epithelium

Answer 635

Patient, intervention, comparison, outcome

Answer 636

1. Noxious stimuli 2. Transduction 3. Transmission 4. Perception 5. Modulation

Answer 637

Metabolism – is the chemical reactions in living organisms that maintain life.

Answer 638

Anabolism is the synthesis of larger macromolecules.

Answer 639

Catabolism is the degradation of larger molecules.

Answer 640

1. When proteins, carb and fat are first ingested – body tries to digest it into it’s monomers through means of chemical and mechanical digestion – end results are: proteins become amino acids, carbs become glucose and fat becomes fatty acids and monoglycerides. 2. Next step is the absorption of the monomers and putting them into the metabolic pool – which is an umbrella term which includes the monomers and number for anabolic or catabolic enzymes that are able to convert said monomers. 3. Monomers are turned into fuel storage (body proteins, glycogen storage or adipose tissue) or fuel use (mostly through oxidation which helps to convert ADP into ATP). There is also small amount of fuel lost through urea.

Answer 641

Protein synthesis

Answer 642

Proteolysis

Answer 643

Gluconeogenesis

Answer 644

Glycogenesis

Answer 645

Glycogenolysis

Answer 646

Lipogenesis

Answer 647

Energy is primarily extracted from the glucose molecule by breaking it down to smaller molecules and extracting electrons. There are 3 basic steps of metabolism: 1. Glycolysis – an anerobic process occurring in the cytoplasm of cells with the main objective to breakdown a molecule of glucose with 6 carbons into 2 molecules of pyruvate 2. Citric acid cycle – the pyruvate molecule joins with and acyl unit with help of oxygen in order to undergo multiple steps of the citric cycle in order to extract the maximum amount of electrons for electron carriers 3. Electron transport chain – ADP converted into ATP

Answer 648

Approx. 30

Answer 649

1. Glucagon – is a hormone secreted by pancreatic islets alpha cells that is able to induce glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis and ketogenesis in order to increase blood glucose concentration or provide similar type molecule that can be used as source of fuel for cells. Secreted when blood glucose levels are low. 2. Insulin – is a hormone secreted by pancreatic islets beta cells that is able to induce glucose oxidation, glycogen synthesis, fat synthesis and protein synthesis. Secreted when blood glucose levels are high.

Answer 650

1. Insulin is released and it binds on the surface receptor of cells. 2. This triggers the transduction cascade 3. Glucose channels are synthetized and are transferred to cell surface through exocytosis 4. Glucose is able to enter the cell through the glucose channels

Answer 651

The GLUT-4

Answer 652

1. Plasma glucose decreases 2. Insulin secretion by pancreatic cells is reduced 3. Glucagon secretion increases 4. Glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis is induced 5. \* In case of prolonged hypoglycemia – ketones can be synthesized

Answer 653

Basically: Type 1 – deficient insulin secretion Type 2 – insulin resistance – receptors cannot recognize the insulin

Answer 654

Sterilization with hydrochloric acid. It also partially denatures proteins in order to make digestion easier in the small intestine.

Answer 655

Digestion and absorption of nutrients

Answer 656

Removal of water

Answer 657

Through use of vascular villi and microvilli. This increases the surface are need for absorption of the nutrients. Monosaccharides and most amino acids are taken up by the blood vessels, while fats enter the lymph system.

Answer 658

1. Protein are broken down into amino acids 2. Amino acids are co-transported (active transport) into an epithelial cell by using sodium-co-transport 3. Accumulation of amino acids within epithelial cells changes a concentration gradient 4. This leads amino acids to defuse through from the epithelial cells into the blood vessels

Answer 659

Zymogens are inactive forms of enzymes that can be activated by a co-factor enzyme. Such zymogen is present in the stomach – pepsinogen. Pepsinogen can cut the inside of the protein into small chains of amino acids.

Answer 660

To slow down the milk movement in order to extract more nutrition out of it.

Answer 661

The basic function of salivary amylase is to have limited starch digestion. But it is not used primarily for digestion of starches, rather to break them down to a point where they can trigger the chemoreceptors of taste buds to recognize taste.

Answer 662

1. Carbs are broken down into monosaccharides 2. They are co-transported into the cell 3. Like protein absorption

Answer 663

1. Peristalsis breakdowns fat into smaller droplets and fatty acids through lipase 2. Bile saults are able to emulsify fat and put it into micelles 3. Micelles are transported into the epithelial cells 4. Than the fatty acids are made back into a triacylgycerol and it is able to enter the lymphatic system

Answer 664

1. Zymogen production 2. Protection of the intestinal epithelial cells by mucus

Answer 665

We harvest electrons from breaking chemical bonds

Answer 666

1. Gluconeogenesis – creation of glycogen 2. Pentose Phosphate Pathway – conversion of glucose into ribose and then nucleotides 3. Oxidative phosphorylation – includes glycolysis and krebs cycle 4. Glycogen metabolism – breaking down glycogen into glucose

Answer 667

It takes place in the cytoplasm – end result is 2 x pyruvate

Answer 668

It takes place in the mitochondria – end result is NADH

Answer 669

End result – 2 pyruvate molecules – as well as conversion of 2 ADP molecules into 2 ATP molecules – this process includes 10 steps

Answer 670

Pyruvate is converted into lactate (lactic acid) in order to convert NADH into NAD+.

Answer 671

Pyruvate is converted into ethanol and CO2 in order to convert NADH into NAD+.

Answer 672

Cariogenic bacteria – are simple organisms that convert ADP to ATP through glycolysis, and thus to replenish NAD+ reserves they go through anerobic glycolysis. Anaerobic glycolysis is able to convert pyruvate into lactic acid, which is when in accumulation is released by bacteria. In the oral environment lactic acid causes dissociation of hydroxyapatite crystals – which is the caries process.

Answer 673

Oxidative Phosphorylation (which includes Krebs Cycle) is able to produce 24 ATP from one molecule of glucose while glycolysis is able to produce 2 ATP from one molecule of glucose

Answer 674

Hexokinase has high affinity to glucose – meaning it can bind to glucose even if it is in very low concentrations.

Answer 675

1. NAD+ 2. NADH

Answer 676

The main way this is regulated is through regulating enzyme activity but there is also an insulin pathway: 1. Enzymes – activation/inhibition of rate-limiting enzymes is short term (minutes-hours) 2. Insulin – slower control for liver and muscle cells and is influenced by the amount of enzyme secreted

Answer 677

Pyruvate is converted into lactate (lactic acid) in order to convert NADH into NAD+.

Answer 678

1. Through Availability of ADP 2. Activation and inhibition of allosteric enzymes

Answer 679

1. Synthesis of Ribose 5-P which is used in synthesis of nucleotides 2. Synthesis of NADPH (electron carrier) – helps with functions such as steroid synthesis, detoxification etc.

Answer 680

Occurs in cytosol

Answer 681

It converted into fructose 6-P which can be used in glycolytic pathway

Answer 682

It can be broken down into glucose to maintain blood glucose levels or to perform exercise in flight or fight response

Answer 683

Primarily – brain cells and cells with no mitochondria.

Answer 684

Main difference: Muscle glycogen – is used just by muscles that store it. Liver glycogen – can be used to breakdown glycogen and release it into the blood stream for other cells.

Answer 685

About 24 hours’ worth of glycogen

Answer 686

Muscle and liver cells

Answer 687

Epinephrine (adrenaline) and glucagon promote glycogen breakdown. Epinephrine and glucagon downregulate glycogen synthase action and increase the action of glycogen phosphorylase. Thus, more glycogen is broken down than produced. Also, AMP is able to upregulate the action of glycogen phosphorylase.

Answer 688

Type 1 and type 2 diabetes

Answer 689

1. Glycogen synthesis 2. Protein synthesis 3. Fat synthesis

Answer 690

It is able to supply constant nutrient source for the brain, rbc, kidney medulla. This occurs when lactic acid from Kerb cycle and pyruvate can be converted back to glucose.

Answer 691

It mostly occurs in the liver (90%) and some occurs in the kidneys (10%)

Answer 692

1. Pyruvate enters the Krebs cycle 2. It goes through the Krebs cycle until it becomes oxaloacetate 3. Oxaloacetate is than transported out of the mitochondria into the cytosol 4. It becomes phosphoenolpyruvate 5. It undergoes reverse reaction 6. End result if glucose-6-p which is converted into glucose that can be released into blood

Answer 693

Glucagon – prevents reverse glycolysis by inhibiting pyruvate kinase which increase the concentration of phosphoenolpyruvate, driving reaction towards gluconeogenesis. On top of that remember the oxaloacetate – amino acids from muscle breakdown from prolonged starvation are used to create more oxaloacetate thus increasing the rate of gluconeogenesis.

Answer 694

NO – consumption of fructose is not dependent & does not illicit insulin secretion.

Answer 695

Through sucrase and bi-glycolysis. Through glycolysis is it just becomes a fructose – 1 – p molecule.

Answer 696

Carbohydrates in a form of glucose, fructose and other

Answer 697

Triglycerides (fat) that are able to be broken down into carbon molecules needed for harvesting electrons

Answer 698

1. Glucagon and adrenaline levels are high 2. Glycerol is split and put into blood, and fatty acids are split and put into blood where it attaches albumin for transportation

Answer 699

It is the next stage of pyruvic acid, large molecule that can be used in the Krebs cycle and be broken down by multiple enzyme through weak, non-covalent interactions.

Answer 700

Fatty acids are chopped u into segment of 2 carbons. These segment can connect to the acetyl molecule and create acetyl co A that can be used in Krebs cycle yeeeehhawwwww. The process of beta-oxidation is this one.

Answer 701

They are derived during the breaking down of bonds – when you break down bonds you release electrons.

Answer 702

It is a shuttle molecule that is able to more the fatty acid into the mitochondria

Answer 703

They are synthesized in the liver during starvation or diabetes. As gluconeogenesis occurs, levels of oxaloacetate reduces, and the Krebs cycle slows down. Thus Acetyl Co A is converted into ketone bodies. Ketone bodies can than enter the blood stream and be used for ATP production by the brain.

Answer 704

Acetyl-co-A is used to synthesize fatty acids with use of malonyl-Co-A (an enzyme that inhibits transfer of fatty acids to the mitochondria).

Answer 705

Acetyl-Co-A + bicarbonate = Malonyl-CO-A

Answer 706

When they combine they create a longer chain of carbons, which keeps going and BANG you get a fat molecule.

Answer 707

Insulin activates acetyl-Co-A carboxylase which produces Malonyl-Co-A Glucagon inactivates acetyl-Co-A carboxylase which slows down lipogenesis.

Answer 708

Essential amino acids are obtained from the diet while non-essential amino acids can be synthesized

Answer 709

1. Body protein synthesis 2. Glucose and glycogen synthesis 3. Ketones, fatty acids and steroids 4. Synthesis of other molecules like neurotransmitters

Answer 710

1. Transamination – transfer of an amino group from amino acid to a different molecule with use of amino transferases 2. Oxidative deamination – the amino group gets taken again with use of NAD to create NADH and wow we can create ATP with use of NADH 3. Conversion of ammonia into urea 4. Carbon skeleton is produced

Answer 711

Carbon skeleton of a-keto acids may be metabolized to: 1. CO2 + H2O 2. Glucose 3. Fat 4. Ketones

Answer 712

Any excess amino acids get turned into metabolic fuel but before nitrogen needs to be removed through transamination

Answer 713

Phosphorus: 1. 75% in bones 2. Tissue fluids (ortho-phosphate) Calcium: 1. 99% in hard tissue 2. Soft tissues (extracellular)

Answer 714

Apatite crystals can grow around collagen fibrils.

Answer 715

This allows the hydroxyapatite to grow between the fibers – unlike in soft tissue.

Answer 716

It maybe involved in the nucleation of hydroxyapatite at the mineralization front. It basically puts the crystals in the right position.

Answer 717

Involved in binding to Ca and HA

Answer 718

It binds to both HA and collagen.

Answer 719

Enamel contains no collagen

Answer 720

Ameloblasts

Answer 721

Because the hydroxyl group start to disassociate at pH 5.5.

Answer 722

The number of amelogenins decrease as the enamel matures

Answer 723

Basically organic tissues act as scaffolding upon which calcified materials can deposit

Answer 724

1. Homogenous nucleation is very challenging in a constantly evolving environment 2. There too many process occurring thus calcium ions may not join together.

Answer 725

Reversible reaction usually require low input of energy to be performed, thus depending on concentrations and equilibrium, this reaction could go from reactant to products and back

Answer 726

LeChetile principal states that if we change the concentration of products or reactant in an equilibrium state of the reversible reaction, the reaction will be driven in the other direction to once again reach equilibrium. This applicable for the mouth, as saliva is super saturated with calcium and phosphates thus promote remineralization.

Answer 727

Saliva is supersaturated with calcium and phosphates which means it is able to promote remineralization using the LeChateile principal

Answer 728

Acid is able to bind with phosphate to create orthophosphate which disrupts the equilibrium in the reaction causing more demineralization and less remineralization.

Answer 729

It is a substance that is not in a crystalline form. Calcium phosphate is like that in the saliva – it is bound to statherin to prevent precipitation.

Answer 730

Casein phosphopeptide – amorphous calcium phosphate maintenance supersaturation to favor remineralization by binding to pellicle and plaque.

Answer 731

Tooth structures (enamel and dentine), saliva, blood

Answer 732

1. Parathyroid hormones is released 2. Parathyroid hormones triggers the release of calcitriol 3. Calcitriol increase reabsorption og Ca & Phosphorus in the small intestine 4. Parathyroid hormone and calcitriol act on skeleton to increase mobilization of Ca & P

Answer 733

Yes - calcidiol effect phosphorus levels

Answer 734

It is amorphous, it is not crystalline

Answer 735

10calcium, 6 phosphates and 2 hydroxyls.

Answer 736

1. It is very strong because of the hydroxyapatite 2. Enamel is highly ceramic 3. Has little enamel

Answer 737

1. It has collagen 2. It acts as a amortization for enamel

Answer 738

Amelogenin

Answer 739

Amelogenin acts as scaffolding (aka epitactic agent)

Answer 740

Soft: 1. Periodontal ligament 2. Gingiva and dento gingival junction Hard: 1. Cementum 2. Alveolar bone

Answer 741

Sharpey’s fibres

Answer 742

1. Bacteria in the plaque release chemicals – called inflammatory cytokines 2. Inflammatory cytokines are able to travel to the junction epithelium and damage the tissues 3. This causes a secondary response by the immune system 4. This could upregulate the activity of osteoclasts – resulting in loss of alveolar bone

Answer 743

1. Mechanical support/protection 2. Calcium homeostasis 3. Production of blood cells

Answer 744

1. Calcium homeostasis 2. Modelling 3. remodeling

Answer 745

1. Hormone imbalance 2. Inflammation 3. Giant cell tumors

Answer 746

The osteoblast by producing collagenase, an enzyme that breaks down the osteoid

Answer 747

Hydrochloric acid and an enzyme

Answer 748

1. Removal of non-mineralised osteoid 2. Attachment and digestion of mineral and matrix 3. Removal of collagen protruding from surface of vacated lacuna 4. Osteoblast than again produce collagenase to remove the excess collagen left by the osteoclasts

Answer 749

It promotes healing + growth + preventing oral leukoplakia

Answer 750

Helps to control Ca2+ thus helps tooth mineralisation

Answer 751

The defficency could cause red tongue

Answer 752

Good for gum health

Answer 753

Good for alveolar bone

Answer 754

Deficiency leads to incread caries risk

Answer 755

1. Stimulate secretion of gastric acid and intrinsic factor from parietal cells 2. Stimulate secretion of pepsinogen from chief cells

Answer 756

1. Stimulate gallbladder contraction 2. Stimulates release of pancreatic enzymes 3. Release of bile and enzymes

Answer 757

1. Stimulateds secretion of HCO3 from pancrease 2. Inhibits gastrin and gastric acid secretion

Answer 758

1. Increases water and electrolyte secretion from pancrease and gut 2. Relaxes smooth muscles of the gut

Answer 759

1. Reduces gastric acid secretion 2. Stimulates insulin release

Answer 760

1. Increases smll bowel motility and gastric emptying

Answer 761

Inhibits secretion and action of many hormoens, including gastrin, secretin and CCK

Answer 762

1. Upon inpiration - the pressure within the thoraic cavity decreases 2. This causes a decrease in Right atrium pressure 3. This allows for larger pre-load thus cause an increase in atrium stretch - more blood from superior and inferior vena cava 4. Increase in atrium stretch signals for increase in cardiac output which ultimatley increases MAP

Answer 763

1. Osteo blasts release protein called RANK 2. RANK is able to bind to RANKL receptors on osteoclast progenitors causing fissuion and deffirentiation 3. RANK is also able to activate osteoclasts 4. Osteoblasts are also able to excrete OPG 5. OPG is able to bind to RANK as it has a similar structure to RANKL receptors 6. This reduces the effect of RANK thus reduces osteoclasts activity

Answer 764

1. RANK could be one of the cytokines that is released in an immune response 2. Thus if RANK is released during gingival inflimation it would be able to act on osteoclasts in the alveolar bone causing bone resorption

Answer 765

Parathyroid hormone is able o act directly on the osteoclasts causing bone resorption for the sake of calcium and phosphate regulation

Answer 766

Calcitonin is released by the parathyroid gland in response to increased calcium levels

Answer 767

MEG: Mask Eyewhear (alcohol gel) Gloves

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