Exam 2 Flashcards

(58 cards)

1
Q

Abnormal urination pattern that produces less than 50-100mL excretion in 24hrs

A

Anuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Abnormal urination pattern that is reduction of excretion (100-500mL) in 24hrs

A

oliguria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Abnormal urination pattern of excessive excretion

A

polyuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Abnormal urination pattern of excessive excretion at night

A

nocturia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

painful urination

A

dysuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

blood in urine

A

hematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

8 normal characteristics of urine

A

color, amount, clarity, odor, presence of sediment, pH, specific gravity, constituents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Principles of sterile technique

A

-Perform hand hygiene
-Ensure that sterile objects touch only other sterile objects to maintain a sterile environment
-Open sterile packaging away from the body to avoid contamination
-Keep sterile surfaces dry
-Keep all sterile items above the waistline to ensure that the sterile object is kept in sight
-Avoid coughing, talking, sneezing, or reaching across sterile field
-Keep items sterile that are used to enter a normally sterile environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How do you perform a 24hr urine specimen sample?

A

-Clamp catheter tubing below the level of the port, for about 15 minutes
-Clean specimen port
-Using syringe aspirate 10-30mL of urine, and squirt urine into a sterile specimen cup
-Clean port with alcohol again
Unclamp tubing
-Post a sign on the patients bathroom door as a helpful reminder not to discard urine
-Indicate a collection at a specific time
-Discard the first uring and then collect all urine voided for the next 24hrs
-At end of the 24hrs, ask the pt to void. Keep this uring and add it to previously collected urine and send to lab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How do you obtain a urine sample from an anchored urinary catheter?

A

-Clamp catheter tubing below the level of the port, for about 15 minutes
-Clean specimen port
-Using syringe aspirate 10-30mL of urine, and squirt urine into a sterile specimen cup
-Clean port with alcohol again
-Unclamp tubing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How do you do a clean-catch, midstream urine specimen collected?

A

-Cleanse the peri-area around the urinary meatus with an antiseptic wipe
-Have the pt void a small amount of urine into the toilet, then void into a sterile specimen container
-Finish voiding in the toilet, cap sample, place in designated area
-The first amount of urine voided helps flush away any organisms near the meatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Type of urinary incontinence that is caused by loss of urine during increased intra-abdominal pressure

A

stress incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Type of urinary incontinence that is caused by sudden strong urge to void with rapid bladder contraction

A

urge incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Type of urinary incontinence that is caused by combination of stress and urge incontinence

A

mixed incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Type of urinary incontinence that is caused by physical limitations preventing timely toilet access

A

functional incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Type of urinary incontinence that is caused by incomplete bladder emptying leading to constant dribbling

A

overflow incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Type of urinary incontinence that is caused by neurological conditions affecting bladder control

A

reflex incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are the Causes of dehydration

A

insufficient fluid intake, excessive fluid loss, confusion/altered mental status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are the Signs/symptoms of dehydration

A

poor skin turgor, delayed capillary refill, orthostatic hypotension, muscle weakness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the causes of fluid overload?

A

excessive IV fluid administration, heart failure, renal impairment, endocrine disorders, high sodium intake, ARDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of fluid overload?

A

weight gain, bounding pulse, increased bp, pulmonary edema, lethargy, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

type of wound healing that includes clean surgical incisions w/ minimal tissue loss, edges approximated w/ sutures, minimal scarring, results in fine linear scar

A

primary intention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

type of wound healing that includes large and irregular wounds from trauma or infection, extensive tissue loss, edges can’t be approximated, requires debridement, heals from bottom up, forms larger scar

A

secondary intention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

type of wound healing that includes initially contaminated wounds, left open temporarily and closed with sutures after wound clean, common in contaminated surgical wounds

A

Tertiary intention

25
Postoperative complications include:
-dehiscence (separation of previously joined wound edges) -evisceration (protrusion of internal organs through dehisced wound) -Infection
26
what are the immediate nursing interventions for wound complications?
notify healthcare provider immediately, document signs/symptoms, obtain wound culture if ordered, monitor vital signs, assess pain level, inc frequency of dressing changes
27
What is the proper care for the Jackson-Pratt Drain?
compress bulb before capping, maintain negative pressure, empty when 1/2 to 3/4 full, measure and record output, clean insertion site, secure to prevent dislodgment, strip tubing if ordered
28
What is the proper care for the Hemovac Drain?
compress unit to create suction, empty when collection chamber full, maintain sterile connection, monitor for clots/obstructions, secure properly, clean insertion site, document characteristics
29
What is the proper care for the Penrose Drain?
allow gravity drainage, change dressing as needed, monitor skin around drain, note drainage on gauze, document amount of soaking through, protect surrounding skin, position for optimal drainage
30
What is included in a comprehensive wound assessment documentation?
- Location (anatomical site, size, clock position reference, proximity to landmarks) - Wound characteristics (type of wound, age/duration, wound margins/edges, wound bed appearance, stage/classification, tunneling/undermining, presence of necrotic tissue) - Drainage Amount (amount, color, odor, consistency, type, changes for previous assessment - Surrounding tissue (skin color, temperature, edema, induration, maceration, inflammation signs) - Pain assessment (intensity on 1-10 scale, character, timing, aggravating factors, relief measures) - Treatment details (dressing type, cleaning solution used, debridement if performed, presence of drains/tubes - Healing process (changes since last assessment, complications, expected vs actual healing, pt compliance)
31
What are the pressure injury characteristics of a stage 1 pressure injury?
intact skin with non-blanchable redness
32
What are the pressure injury characteristics of a stage 2 pressure injury?
partial thickness skin loss, exposed dermis
33
What are the pressure injury characteristics of a stage 3 pressure injury?
full thickness tissue loss
34
What are the pressure injury characteristics of a stage 4 pressure injury?
full thickness tissue loss with exposed bone/muscle
35
what are the risk factors for pressure injuries?
limited mobility, incontinence, poor nutrition, advanced age, impaired sensation, medical devices, dark skin tones, moisture, poor perfusion, comorbidities
36
Forms of medication include:
tablets, capsules, granules, suppositories, elixirs, liquid
37
What does the abbreviation "ac" stand for?
before meals
38
What does the abbreviation "pc" stand for?
after meals
39
What does the abbreviation "bid" stand for?
twice daily
40
What does the abbreviation "tid" stand for?
three times daily
41
What does the abbreviation "hs" stand for?
at bedtime
42
What does the abbreviation "prn" stand for?
as needed
43
What does the abbreviation "PO" stand for?
by mouth
44
What does the abbreviation "SL" stand for?
sublingual
45
What does the abbreviation "PR" stand for?
per rectum
46
What does the abbreviation "IM" stand for?
intramuscular
47
What does the abbreviation "IV" stand for?
intravenous
48
What does the abbreviation "GT" stand for?
gastric tube
49
What does the abbreviation "SC/SG" stand for?
subcutaneous
50
What is the "study of drug effects on the body?"
Pharmacodynamics
51
Can Extended-release medications be crushed or split?
no
52
Can sustained-release medications be crushed or split?
no
53
Can controlled-release medications be crushed or split?
no
54
Can Enteric-coated tablets be crushed or split?
no
55
Can sublingual medications be crushed or split?
no
56
Can scored tablets be crushed or split?
yes, in half or fourths
57
Can immediate-release tablets be crushed or split?
yes
58
Can non-coated tablets be crushed or split?
yes