Exam 2 Flashcards by William Moran

Units are designated a suffix when assigned a specific task at an incident. The correct suffix for Systems Control Unit can be found in which choice?
A: E100S

B: E100Y

C: E100C

D: E100T

A: E100S

B:✔E100Y

C: E100C

D: E100T

Explanation:
A- Communication Unit
C- CFR-D
D- Transport Backup Unit
Comm ch 2 p-18

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A Captain is discussing the probationary firefighter development program with one of his Lieutenants at the change of tours. He made the following remarks about the procedures but was incorrect in which one?
A: Probationary firefighters are provided with weekly training modules consisting of reading assignments and training videos that emphasize the fundamentals of firefighting.

B: At the end of each training module is a twenty question quiz that must be completed.

C: Probationary firefighters get three attempts to pass each quiz.

D: If a passing mark is not attained after the allowable attempts, the program will be temporarily locked and will require the company officer to contact the Probationary Firefighters Development Program via email.

A:✔Probationary firefighters are provided with weekly training modules consisting of reading assignments and training videos that emphasize the fundamentals of firefighting.

B: At the end of each training module is a twenty question quiz that must be completed.

C: Probationary firefighters get three attempts to pass each quiz.

Explanation:
Probationary firefighters are provided with MONTHLY training modules consisting of reading assignments and training videos that emphasize the fundamentals of firefighting.

AUC 323 WILL BE ON YOUR TEST

AUC 323 2.1

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Engine 100 and Ladder 100 were on the firehouse roof drilling on coffin cuts. Which of the following points below about cutting is correct?
A: Prior to venting skylights, the roof man should start cutting the roof with the saw.

B: Approximately 4x4 coffin cut is recommended.

C: The 3rd cut is considered the “knock out” cut.

D: The saw is designed that whenever possible, roof boards and coverings shall be cut in one operation.

A: Prior to venting skylights, the roof man should start cutting the roof with the saw.

B: Approximately 4x4 coffin cut is recommended.

C: The 3rd cut is considered the “knock out” cut.

D:✔The saw is designed that whenever possible, roof boards and coverings shall be cut in one operation.

Explanation:
Ladders 3 sec. 5.9
D is Correct.
A- After initial roof ventilation such as skylights, scuttles, bulkheads before getting into slower work like cutting.
B- Coffin Cut is 3’x6’.
C- 2nd cut is the “Knock out” cut.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Ladder 1 arrives at the blue light for a man under on Chambers St. They need to cross the third rail to reach a power removal box. Which action is correct?
A: Step directly on the third rail cover

B: Wait for transit personnel to escort you across

C: Never cross a third rail

D: Walk over the third rail

A: Step directly on the third rail cover

B: Wait for transit personnel to escort you across

C: Never cross a third rail

D:✔Walk over the third rail

Explanation:
AUC 207 sec 8.2.2
Walk over the third rail without stepping on the cover. The cover may fail under a persons weight if stepped on

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

One of the relatively new concepts discussed in fire dynamics is the idea that the location of the thermal interface (its height in the room) and the neutral plane are important when assessing the potential for rapid fire development. Which one statement below describing this idea is incorrect?
A: A low interface could indicate the fire is in the early stages of development or that you are close to the fire area.

B: A sudden rise in the interface could indicate that ventilation has occurred.

C: A sudden lowering of the interface could indicate a rapid intensification of the fire.

D: A neutral plane that is at or near the floor level may indicate that the fire is on the floor below.

A:✔A low interface could indicate the fire is in the early stages of development or that you are close to the fire area.

B: A sudden rise in the interface could indicate that ventilation has occurred.

C: A sudden lowering of the interface could indicate a rapid intensification of the fire.

D: A neutral plane that is at or near the floor level may indicate that the fire is on the floor below.

Explanation:
A. A HIGH interface could indicate the fire is in the early stages of development or that you are REMOTE FROM THE FIRE AREA.

Fire Dynamics Ch 2 3.5.5

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Engine 98, Engine 99, and Engine 100 operated 1st 2nd and 3rd due for a fire in the stock room of a 100’x100’ Stop and Shop grocery store. After the fire was extinguished and the line was being taking up, the Incident Commander called all three of the companies to the front of the fire building for a discussion. The companies operated incorrectly at this taxpayer in all but which of the following?
A: Engine 98 stretched a 1 ¾” hoseline into the store to extinguish the fire.

B: Engine 99 stretched a 1 ¾” hoseline to the front of building without contacting Engine 98.

C: Engine 99 did not connect to the Fire Department Connection (FDC) sprinkler system because the Engine 99’s Officer said it is Engine 100’s responsibility to ensure it is done.

D: Engine 100 stretched a 2 ½” hoseline around the rear of the store without approval from the IC.

A: Engine 98 stretched a 1 ¾” hoseline into the store to extinguish the fire.

B: Engine 99 stretched a 1 ¾” hoseline to the front of building without contacting Engine 98.

C:✔Engine 99 did not connect to the Fire Department Connection (FDC) sprinkler system because the Engine 99’s Officer said it is Engine 100’s responsibility to ensure it is done.

D: Engine 100 stretched a 2 ½” hoseline around the rear of the store without approval from the IC.

Explanation:
Taxpayers sec 7.1.7A
C is Correct
It is the responsibility of the 3rd arriving engine company to ensure a supply line is stretched and connected to the FDC when the fire area or potential fire area is protected by a sprinkler system.
A- 2 ½” hoseline for taxpayers. Large, uncompartmented areas. (sec. 7.1.3)
B – 2nd arriving Engine MUST communicate with the 1st arriving Engine.(sec. 7.1.6)
D – 3rd hoseline shall be directed by the IC. (sec. 7.2.1 C)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The most correct procedure for an Immediate eCIDS entry can be found in which choice?
A: Company officer to fax a CD-201 to their administrative battalion then follow up with a phone call to inform the Chief of the pending immediate CIDS

B: Company officer to use eCIDS application to enter the proposed immediate CIDS followed by a phone call to their administrative battalion

C: Phone call to the BISP Hotline

D: Immediate eCIDS is no longer in use. Immediate eCIDS to be entered as a normal CIDS entry

A: Company officer to fax a CD-201 to their administrative battalion then follow up with a phone call to inform the Chief of the pending immediate CIDS

B:✔Company officer to use eCIDS application to enter the proposed immediate CIDS followed by a phone call to their administrative battalion

C: Phone call to the BISP Hotline

D: Immediate eCIDS is no longer in use. Immediate eCIDS to be entered as a normal CIDS entry

Explanation:
Immediate eCIDS procedure:
- Enter eCIDS application
- Change the “CIDS type” dropdown from “Original” or “Revised” to “Immediate”
- After submitting the CIDS entry, notify the admin BC by phone to inform the chief of the pending immediate CIDS
- BC to approve immediate CIDS, notify the admin DC by phone to inform the chief of the pending immediate CIDS
Paper copies of the CD-201 are no longer accepted
Comm ch 4 sec 4.3.3

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The Blitzfire Oscillating Monitor is a valuable tool that can be used in a variety of situations. Which one point below describing this tool is incorrect?
A: The maximum pressure supplied to the Blitzfire is 200psi.

B: There is one 2 ½” supply inlet which should be supplied with only one 2 ½” hoseline.

C: The vertical range is approximately from 10 degrees to 45 degrees.

D: The minimum flow of 175 GPM is required for proper oscillation.

A:✔The maximum pressure supplied to the Blitzfire is 200psi.

B: There is one 2 ½” supply inlet which should be supplied with only one 2 ½” hoseline.

C: The vertical range is approximately from 10 degrees to 45 degrees.

D: The minimum flow of 175 GPM is required for proper oscillation.

Explanation:
A. The maximum pressure supplied to the Blitzfire is 175psi.

Cross Ref Ch 9 4.5.4 The maximum allowable pressure supplied to the New Yorker Multiversal is 200psi.

Engine Operations Ch 9 8.2, 8.3, 8.7.1, 8.7.4

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

You are reviewing CFR Unit staffing procedures during a prior to the 9x6 roll call. According to CFR guidelines, what is the minimum staffing requirement for a company to be in service as a CFR Unit prior to the start of the tour?
A: One CFR-certified officer and one firefighter

B: Minimum of 2 firefighters with current CFR certification

C: Minimum of 3 firefighters with current CFR certification

D: Minimum of 1 CFR-certified officer

A: One CFR-certified officer and one firefighter

B:✔Minimum of 2 firefighters with current CFR certification

C: Minimum of 3 firefighters with current CFR certification

D: Minimum of 1 CFR-certified officer

Explanation:
CFRD Chap 2 sec 1.7
B is Correct.
2 CFR firefighters at the start of the tour. Be aware that AFTER the start of the tour, it is a minimum of 2 members (FFs or Officer ) in order to be in service to CFR responses. (sec 1.8 NOTE)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The most correct ten code for an unnecessary alarm that was caused by construction activity can be found in which choice?
A: 10-35-1

B: 10-35-2

C: 10-35-3

D: 10-35-4

A: 10-35-1

B:✔10-35-2

C: 10-35-3

D: 10-35-4

Explanation:
10-35-1 Alarm system testing or servicing
10-35-2 Construction Activity
10-35-3 Ordinary household activity
10-35-4 Other known cause e.g., cigarette smoking
Comm ch 8 p-11

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Listed below are several features of Brownstone buildings. Which one is incorrect?
A: Most brownstones do not have fire escapes.

B: The first floor is the only floor with two means of egress to the outside.

C: On upper floors do not overlook the possibility of small bedrooms having their only entrance from the hall. These rooms can be found in the front and rear.

D: An enclosed interior stair connects the second floor (parlor) and upper floors.

A: Most brownstones do not have fire escapes.

B: The first floor is the only floor with two means of egress to the outside.

C: On upper floors do not overlook the possibility of small bedrooms having their only entrance from the hall. These rooms can be found in the front and rear.

D:✔An enclosed interior stair connects the second floor (parlor) and upper floors.

Explanation:
D. An OPEN interior stair connects the second floor (parlor) and upper floors.

NOTE “B”: In brownstones the first floor is the basement. However, the word basement shall not be used for fireground communications.

Brownstones 2.1.2 A & C, 2.1.3, 2.2.7

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

During company drill, the members were practicing the leg lock maneuver on a portable ladder. Which of the following statements is correct about the leg lock?
A: The locking leg is on the same side as the working side.

B: The locking leg goes over and under the rung directly beneath the member’s feet.

C: The instep of the locking leg is placed on the beam opposite the working side.

D: The heel of the foot on the rung is placed against the other beam.

A: The locking leg is on the same side as the working side.

B: The locking leg goes over and under the rung directly beneath the member’s feet.

C:✔The instep of the locking leg is placed on the beam opposite the working side.

D: The heel of the foot on the rung is placed against the other beam.

Explanation:
Portable Ladders sec 8.2.1
C is Correct.
A – Locking leg is opposite of working side.
B - the locking leg is placed over and under the rung that is TWO rungs ABOVE the one on which the member is standing.
D – The arch of the foot.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The correct size hole to be cut on the roof of a Taxpayer can be found in which choice?
A: 3’X6’

B: 4’X4’

C: 6’X6’

D: 8’X8’

A: 3’X6’

B: 4’X4’

C: 6’X6’

D:✔8’X8’

Explanation:
Cutting a hole 8’X8’ is recommended in providing ventilation on Taxpayer roofs
Taxpayers sec 5.5.16

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Units in Battalion 99 are conducting MUD at a row of Old Law Tenements with party wall balconies. During the drill the following statements are made. Which one is incorrect?
A: In the event of a fire, the occupant would use the fire escape balcony to escape to an adjoining building.

B: The roof firefighter must inform his/her officer and the IC of the presence of party wall balconies in the rear of the building.

C: The fire escape cannot be used by firefighters to go from one floor to another for VEIS, gain access to the roof or for the stretching of hoselines.

D: The IC should consider calling an additional engine company when there are party wall balconies.

A: In the event of a fire, the occupant would use the fire escape balcony to escape to an adjoining building.

B: The roof firefighter must inform his/her officer and the IC of the presence of party wall balconies in the rear of the building.

C: The fire escape cannot be used by firefighters to go from one floor to another for VEIS, gain access to the roof or for the stretching of hoselines.

D:✔The IC should consider calling an additional engine company when there are party wall balconies.

Explanation:
D. The IC should consider calling an additional LADDER COMPANY when there are party wall balconies.

MAYBE MORE OF A BC POINT BUT I WOULDN’T GIVE THIS UP FOR COMPANY OFFICER

Multiple Dwelling 3.8.6

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

After returning to service, Tower Ladder 200’s members assembled around the apparatus to review proper positioning techniques. This was the LCC’s first tour driving out of chauffeur school. In which of the following statements about Tower Ladder positioning is incorrect?
A: The ideal horizontal distance from the center line of the turntable to an objective is 35 feet.

B: Generally, the apparatus should be parallel to the building.

C: When the center line of the turntable is 25 feet from a building there will be sufficient room for the bucket to be dropped below the horizontal with the boom perpendicular to the side of the apparatus.

D: Positioning the Tower Ladder at a corner building affords coverage on two fronts, enabling operations over a much wider area.

A:✔The ideal horizontal distance from the center line of the turntable to an objective is 35 feet.

B: Generally, the apparatus should be parallel to the building.

D: Positioning the Tower Ladder at a corner building affords coverage on two fronts, enabling operations over a much wider area.

Explanation:
Tower Ladders Chap 2 sec. 2 7th bullet.
A is incorrect.
Objective is 32 feet.
Very tight but numbers are easy test questions.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The correct width of a Trench cut can be found in which choice?
A: At least 2’ wide

B: At least 3’ wide

C: At lest 4’ wide

D: At least 5’ wide

A: At least 2’ wide

B:✔At least 3’ wide

C: At lest 4’ wide

D: At least 5’ wide

Explanation:
A trench cut is an opening made the full distance between two exterior walls or other fire stops. The width of the trench should be at least 3 feet wide. A trench cut may be made in any direction
It is NOT practical to trench a large roof area of a Taxpayer where fire has SERIOUSLY involved a major portion of the cockloft
Taxpayers sec 5.6

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Engine company 385 is operating at a fire in a storage building at the airport. The officer is directed by the IC to supply water to the intake of the ARFF Crash Truck. The officer would be correct to tell his ECC not to exceed what pressure?
A: 150psi

B: 120psi

C: 100psi

D: 80psi

Study These Flashcards

A: 150psi

B: 120psi

C: 100psi

D:✔80psi

Explanation:
NOTE: This bulletin has been revamped a few times over the last few years and may prompt examiners to ask a question from it.

AUC 325 4.1.3

A probie is assigned to the housewatch for the first time during the 9x6 tour. You are explaining the responsibilities involved, including when to notify the officer on duty immediately if visitors or employees enter the firehouse. You tell the probie that there are certain exceptions where you are not allowed to make any notifications unless directed by the employee visiting. The housewatch can notify the officer right away in which of the following below?
A: EEO staff enters the firehouse.

B: The Testing Unit enters the firehouse.

C: BITS enters the firehouse.

D: Department of Investigations enters the firehouse.

Study These Flashcards

A:✔EEO staff enters the firehouse.

B: The Testing Unit enters the firehouse.

C: BITS enters the firehouse.

D: Department of Investigations enters the firehouse.

Explanation:
Regs Chap 20 sec 20.3.9
A is correct
This member will notify the Officer-on-duty that his/her presence is required at the housewatch area. No other notification or any other announcement shall be made regarding the presence of EEO.
No Fire Department employee shall make any notification to any superior Officers or any other announcement regarding the entry or presence of DOI, BITs or Testing Unit personnel on official business unless specifically directed to do so by DOI, BITs or Testing Unit personnel.

When only one ladder company is on scene for a working fire a safety team must be established ( 2 in/2 out). The correct safety team for this scenario can be found in which choice?
A: LCC/OV FF

B: LCC/Roof FF

C: OV/Roof FFs

D: OV FF/FF to be designated by the company officer

Study These Flashcards

A:✔LCC/OV FF

B: LCC/Roof FF

C: OV/Roof FFs

D: OV FF/FF to be designated by the company officer

Explanation:
Only one ladder company on scene:
Safety Team
5 FFs…..LCC/OV FF
4 FFs…..LCC/Outside FF designated by the officer
MMID ch 1 p- 4

Aerial Ladder 100 arrived first due for a fire on the 3rd floor of a 4-story Brownstone type Rowframe that has a 1-story setback. There was no visible life hazard on arrival. They took the following actions. Which one was incorrect?
A: The roof firefighter proceeded the roof of the fire building via Ladder 100’s aerial ladder with tools including the halligan, 6’ halligan hook and the LSR.

B: The OV immediately made his way to the rear with tools including a 10’ hook or 10’ scissor ladder to perform outside vent of the floors within reach.

C: The LCC raised the aerial to the roof, waited for the completion of roof size up, and after no indication from the roof firefighter of the need for rescue, repositioned the aerial ladder to the 3rd floor for VEIS.

D: The officer proceeded to the seat of the fire in the rear bedroom on the 3rd floor and tried to contain it by shutting the door. A thorough primary search was started at that point.

Study These Flashcards

A: The roof firefighter proceeded the roof of the fire building via Ladder 100’s aerial ladder with tools including the halligan, 6’ halligan hook and the LSR.

B: The OV immediately made his way to the rear with tools including a 10’ hook or 10’ scissor ladder to perform outside vent of the floors within reach.

C:✔The LCC raised the aerial to the roof, waited for the completion of roof size up, and after no indication from the roof firefighter of the need for rescue, repositioned the aerial ladder to the 3rd floor for VEIS.

D: The officer proceeded to the seat of the fire in the rear bedroom on the 3rd floor and tried to contain it by shutting the door. A thorough primary search was started at that point.

Explanation:
C. The LCC raised the aerial to the roof, waited for the completion of roof size up, and after no indication from the roof firefighter of the need for rescue, repositioned the aerial ladder to the TOP FLOOR for VEIS.

NOTE Cross Ref Pg 36: In an OLT type Rowframe for a fire on the 3rd floor or above the LCC repositions the AL to the FIRE FLOOR for VEIS. For a fire on the 1st or 2nd floor LCC would use a portable.

Also, in this OLT Type scenario the LCC does not need to wait for the completion of roof size up before repositioning as he/she must with Brownstone type.

KNOW THESE DIFFERENCES DEPENDING ON THE TYPE OF ROWFRAME

Rowframes 5.7 A #7, D #2 & 3, E #2, F

The senior LCC of an aerial ladder company was showing the younger members how to attain accuracy when lining up the ladder with a window. Which of the following points is correct?
A: The ladder tip should be more than 6” over a window sill.

B: Recommeded distance of the tip from objective is 1”-3”.

C: For the experienced member, accuracy will be obtained by sighting along the ladder rail of the bottom section.

D: For the less experienced member, this accuracy will be attained by sighting along the underside of the ladder beam on the top sliding section.

Study These Flashcards

A: The ladder tip should be more than 6” over a window sill.

B: Recommeded distance of the tip from objective is 1”-3”.

C: For the experienced member, accuracy will be obtained by sighting along the ladder rail of the bottom section.

D:✔For the less experienced member, this accuracy will be attained by sighting along the underside of the ladder beam on the top sliding section.

Explanation:
Aerial Ladders sec. 3.1.4
D is Correct.
A- less than 6”(3.1.6)
B- 2”-6” (3.1.5)
C- Along the ladder rail of the TOP section.

Ventilation profile indicators are when smoke changes in volume, pressure or velocity and/or fire from an opening. The correct notification when these indicators occur shall be made to whom?
A: IC and Ladder Officer operating inside the fire area

B: Ladder Officer operating inside the fire area only

C: Ladder Officer operating inside the fire area and the Ladder Officer on the floor above only

D: Ladder Officer and Engine Officer operating inside the fire area

Study These Flashcards

A:✔IC and Ladder Officer operating inside the fire area

B: Ladder Officer operating inside the fire area only

C: Ladder Officer operating inside the fire area and the Ladder Officer on the floor above only

D: Ladder Officer and Engine Officer operating inside the fire area

Explanation:
Changes of ventilation profile indicators must be communicated via handie-talkie to the Ladder Officer operating inside the fire area and IC
Ventilation p- viii

Units are operating at a motor vehicle accident on the highway with a posted speed limit of 60 MPH. It is expected cars are travelling approximately 70 MPH. The officer asks two of his members to place flares for safety. What is the minimum distance to the furthest flare?
A: 220ft

B: 310ft

C: 420ft

D: 550ft

Study These Flashcards

A: 220ft

B: 310ft

C: 420ft

D:✔550ft

Explanation:
The fastest expected speed is what matters! Formula is fastest expected speed x first digit of fastest expected speed + 60.

70 x 7 + 60 = 550

They ask this on almost every test!

Training Bulletin Fires 8 8.1 #3

In a shaft fire in an Old Law Tenement exposing multiple floors, what is the first priority for the 2nd ladder company’s OV and Roof Firefighters if not needed in the original fire building?
A: Operate in the exposed building to check for fire extension and life hazard.

B: Operate on the roof on the fire building.

C: Team up and go 2 floors above the fire to check for extension.

D: Begin overhaul and start secondary searches in the fire apartment.

Study These Flashcards

A:✔Operate in the exposed building to check for fire extension and life hazard.

B: Operate on the roof on the fire building.

C: Team up and go 2 floors above the fire to check for extension.

D: Begin overhaul and start secondary searches in the fire apartment.

Explanation:
Ladders 3 sec. 4.2.3
A is correct.
If the OV and Roof are not needed in the fire building, they are available for work in the exposed building .

The Medical Officer must be notified via FDOC for all injuries and biological exposures. The correct time frame that this must occur in can be found in which choice? A: Within 24 hours B: Within 36 hours C: Within 4 days D: Within 7 days

A:✔Within 24 hours B: Within 36 hours C: Within 4 days D: Within 7 days Explanation: The Medical Officer must be notified via FDOC for all injuries and biological exposures within 24 hours. *** NEW MATERIAL... If an on-duty member is transported to a hospital or other medical facility, the Medical Officer must be notified via FDOC no more than fifteen (15) minutes after the member has been transported, and an injury report must be completed in CIRS. If an injury or biological exposure is not reported to the Medical Officer within 24 hours, a CIRS-1 form is to be completed and forwarded to the Chief of Safety Officers can create non-biological exposure reports on their own. Medical Officer notification is ONLY required when a member has symptoms from the exposure SB-1 sec 2

First alarm units are operating at the scene of a tank truck accident with a fire. The officer of the first due engine in trying to recall the pertinent points from the Foam bulletin. She is incorrect in which one point below? A: In trucks with older steel tanks a BLEVE can occur. B: With newer aluminum tanks the problem of BLEVE has been eliminated. C: When the possibility of a BLEVE exists, it is important to get a large caliber stream on the vapor area of the tank quickly. D: After stretching the initial foam handline for this operation, have a separate pumper test and hook up to a hydrant. This pumper will supply the Foam Tanker when it arrives.

A: In trucks with older steel tanks a BLEVE can occur. B:✔With newer aluminum tanks the problem of BLEVE has been eliminated. C: When the possibility of a BLEVE exists, it is important to get a large caliber stream on the vapor area of the tank quickly. D: After stretching the initial foam handline for this operation, have a separate pumper test and hook up to a hydrant. This pumper will supply the Foam Tanker when it arrives. Explanation: B. With newer aluminum tanks the problem of BLEVE has been REDUCED because the shell will melt at approximately 1220 deg. NOTE: If the aluminum shell remains intact the possibility of BLEVE still exists. Training Bulletins Foam 8.7

What is the maximum steam pressure and temperature that can be reached in generating plants? A: 1,000 psi and 600°F B: 2,000 psi and 900°F C: 500 psi and 800°F D: 900 psi and 2000°F

A: 1,000 psi and 600°F B:✔2,000 psi and 900°F C: 500 psi and 800°F D: 900 psi and 2000°F Explanation: Emergency Procedures – Steam sec 2.2 Steam pressures in the buried supply piping and in supplied buildings can be as high as 400 psi and temperatures as high as 450°F

The Emergency Action Plan (EAP) for High-Rise office buildings provides a Fire Safety/EAP Brigade to over see all non-fire emergencies. The correct staffing for this Brigade can be found in which choice? A: Building Manager, Chief Engineer, Director of Security B: Director of Human Resources, Assistant Engineer, Lobby Security Guard C: Building Manager, Lobby Security Guard, Chief Engineer D: Building Manager, Chief Engineer, Lobby Security Guard

A:✔Building Manager, Chief Engineer, Director of Security B: Director of Human Resources, Assistant Engineer, Lobby Security Guard C: Building Manager, Lobby Security Guard, Chief Engineer D: Building Manager, Chief Engineer, Lobby Security Guard Explanation: HROB add 1 sec 2

Several characteristics of the search rope are outlined below. Which is the only correct one? A: The wide end of the cone clearly identifies the direction of egress OUT of the IDLH. B: The distance between each set of directional knots is 50 feet. C: The rope is 200 feet long with a double-action snap hook at the working end and a single-action snap hook at the opposite end. D: The adjustable carrying strap on the bag has been designed to keep the bag perpendicular to the ground.

A: The wide end of the cone clearly identifies the direction of egress OUT of the IDLH. B: The distance between each set of directional knots is 50 feet. C:✔The rope is 200 feet long with a double-action snap hook at the working end and a single-action snap hook at the opposite end. D: The adjustable carrying strap on the bag has been designed to keep the bag perpendicular to the ground. Explanation: A. The NARROW end of the cone clearly identifies the direction of egress OUT of the IDLH. B. The distance between each set of directional knots is 25 FEET. D. The adjustable carrying strap on the bag has been designed to keep the bag PARALLEL to the ground. Training Bulletin Rope 6 2.1, 2.4, 3.2, 3.3

Ladder 2 were discussing the different elevators they encounter throughout Manhattan and how they need to shut power off. Where is the machine room typically located in hydraulic elevator systems? A: Above the hoistway, but may also be found in the cellar area, particularly in New Law Tenements. B: Next to the hoistway on the lowest level served by the elevator. C: On the rooftop near the elevator hoistway. D: In the building’s main electrical room.

A: Above the hoistway, but may also be found in the cellar area, particularly in New Law Tenements. B:✔Next to the hoistway on the lowest level served by the elevator. C: On the rooftop near the elevator hoistway. D: In the building’s main electrical room. Explanation: Emergency Procedures -Elevators sec 3.2.2 A&B. B is Correct. A- This is correct but in Traction Elevator systems. C- Lowest level. D- Elevator Machine Room. This bulletin has been completely rewritten and was issued May 2025.

What is the primary method of for moving patients and equipment in under river rails? A: Rail Cart B: Rescue Train C: Skeds D: Victim Removal Relay Teams

A:✔Rail Cart B: Rescue Train C: Skeds D: Victim Removal Relay Teams Explanation: Under River Rails 7.3.3

At a collapse scene, Engine companies should position their apparatus to ensure they have an adequate water and assist with street management. Which of the following is correct regarding Engine company placement at a scene of a collapse? A: 3rd Arriving Engine was used to sealed off the street. B: 4th Arriving Engine positioned at a hydrant at the rear of the collapse area. C: 1st Arriving Engine positioned at a hydrant inside of the block where the collapse occurred. D: 1st Engine on the 2nd alarm took a hydrant close by the collapse scene, on a separate main than the 1st Arriving Engine on the initial alarm.

A: 3rd Arriving Engine was used to sealed off the street. B:✔4th Arriving Engine positioned at a hydrant at the rear of the collapse area. C: 1st Arriving Engine positioned at a hydrant inside of the block where the collapse occurred. D: 1st Engine on the 2nd alarm took a hydrant close by the collapse scene, on a separate main than the 1st Arriving Engine on the initial alarm. Explanation: Collapse sec. 5.3 1st & 2nd Bullet. B is Correct. A- 2 of the 2nd alarm Engines should be used to seal off the ends of the street. C- 1st Arriving positions at a hydrant OUTSIDE of the block. D- 2nd Arriving Engine does this. They also need a separate hydrant. Note: 3rd & 4th Arriving Engine take similar positions as the 1st & 2nd Engines in the rear of the collapse area.

Engine operations at high rise multiple dwellings are often complex. Which engine operation provision listed below is incorrect? A: The first and second arriving engine companies will always operate together in order to ensure prompt and efficient placement of the first hoseline. B: The first engine officer will communicate with the ladder company officer to select the attack stairway. It need not have a standpipe outlet. C: The 2nd arriving engine will obtain the Post Radio from the 1st arriving BC and bring it to the standpipe outlet where the first hoseline is being connected and establish a communication link on the tactical channel between the fire sector and the IC if necessary. D: The 5th assigned engine company is responsible for placing the high rise nozzle into operation, it this alternate strategy is needed.

A: The first and second arriving engine companies will always operate together in order to ensure prompt and efficient placement of the first hoseline. B: The first engine officer will communicate with the ladder company officer to select the attack stairway. It need not have a standpipe outlet. C:✔The 2nd arriving engine will obtain the Post Radio from the 1st arriving BC and bring it to the standpipe outlet where the first hoseline is being connected and establish a communication link on the tactical channel between the fire sector and the IC if necessary. D: The 5th assigned engine company is responsible for placing the high rise nozzle into operation, it this alternate strategy is needed. Explanation: C. The 2nd arriving engine will obtain the Post Radio from the 1st arriving BC and bring it to the standpipe outlet where the first hoseline is being connected and establish a communication link on the COMMAND CHANNEL between the fire sector and the IC if necessary. **NOTE “B” Cross Ref High Rise Office 9.3.1E: High Rise Office is now the same as HRFPMD. The attack stair NEED NOT have a standpipe outlet. This was changed in HRO so that they are both now the same.*** Multiple Dwellings 8.1.1, 8.1.5 B, 8.2.3 B, 8.5.1

At any fire or emergency, the transfer of command should be seamless. This goes for a routine gas leak when Battalion Chief arrives on scene to a 4th Alarm fire where the Command Chief arrives on scene. In which of the following statements below is incorrect regarding command and control for a 2nd Alarm fire in a 5 story Brownstone? A: A critical role of the first to arrive BC is to monitor HT Channel 2 (command) for the transmission of mayday/urgent messages and ensure the timely response to such. B: If the first to arrive Battalion Chief is an Acting Battalion Chief, the second to arrive Battalion Chief shall exchange information and assume the position of the Incident Commander. The Acting Battalion Chief shall be assigned as the Fire Sector Supervisor. C: Upon arrival of the assigned Deputy Chief, the first to arrive Battalion Chief shall be designated the Deputy Incident Commander or the Operations Section Chief (OSC). The transfer of command will include a face-to-face exchange of information. D: The first to arrive BC shall continue to manage the tactical operations of the incident under the supervision of the IC (Deputy Chief). Both Chief Officers shall operate together for the duration of the incident. The DC and first to arrive BC shall remain at the ICP to ensure effective command and control of the incident.

A:✔A critical role of the first to arrive BC is to monitor HT Channel 2 (command) for the transmission of mayday/urgent messages and ensure the timely response to such. B: If the first to arrive Battalion Chief is an Acting Battalion Chief, the second to arrive Battalion Chief shall exchange information and assume the position of the Incident Commander. The Acting Battalion Chief shall be assigned as the Fire Sector Supervisor. C: Upon arrival of the assigned Deputy Chief, the first to arrive Battalion Chief shall be designated the Deputy Incident Commander or the Operations Section Chief (OSC). The transfer of command will include a face-to-face exchange of information. D: The first to arrive BC shall continue to manage the tactical operations of the incident under the supervision of the IC (Deputy Chief). Both Chief Officers shall operate together for the duration of the incident. The DC and first to arrive BC shall remain at the ICP to ensure effective command and control of the incident. Explanation: FFB Book 11 Command & Control Ch 2 sec. 2.1.6 Note. A is Incorrect. Critical role of the 1st BC is to monitor HT Channel 1 (tactical). This is in BOLD in the bulletin.

Members on BISP are on the roof of a building containing a cell phone site. They are discussing some operational tactics. Which one tactic described below is incorrect? A: Restrict the use of water and metal tools at these operations. B: Special call an additional engine and ladder company, if the cell site is involved. C: The roof must not be cut when a cell site is present. D: Ladder companies should consider utilizing portable dry chemical extinguishers at incipient fires.

A: Restrict the use of water and metal tools at these operations. B: Special call an additional engine and ladder company, if the cell site is involved. C:✔The roof must not be cut when a cell site is present. D: Ladder companies should consider utilizing portable dry chemical extinguishers at incipient fires. Explanation: C. Avoid cutting roof openings too close to installation equipment, coaxial cables, or support system. NOTE “B”: Only an additional engine and truck if “site involved” CODE: “SITE” Site Involved Truck Engine AUC 331 6.3, 6.8, 6.9, 6.10

Companies were operating at a Private Dwelling cellar fire and there was a delay in applying water from the interior. The Incident Commander ordered the 2nd Arriving Engine Company to operate their hoseline into the cellar window for a quick knockdown of the fire. From the choices below, which of the following reasons of operating a hoseline into a cellar window is incorrect? A: At a cellar fire involving ordinary construction. B: Unable to quickly access or locate a secondary cellar entrance and unable to advance down the interior cellar stair. C: Unable to locate any cellar entrance. D: At a serious or advanced cellar fire.

A:✔At a cellar fire involving ordinary construction. B: Unable to quickly access or locate a secondary cellar entrance and unable to advance down the interior cellar stair. C: Unable to locate any cellar entrance. D: At a serious or advanced cellar fire. Explanation: Private Dwellings Chap 3 sec. 2.6. A is Incorrect. Lightweight Construction. Remember this can be ordered by the IC (Chief OR Company Officer). Doesn’t have to be a Chief.

Depending on the situation, the engine officer may have several options available for stretching hoseline. In the event that multiple methods are available, which of the following priority orders is correct? A: Interior stairs; rope; fire escape; aerial ladder; portable ladder B: Interior stairs; rope; aerial ladder; fire escape; portable ladder C: Interior stairs; rope; fire escape; portable ladder; aerial ladder D: Interior stairs; fire escape; rope; portable ladder; aerial ladder

A: Interior stairs; rope; fire escape; aerial ladder; portable ladder B: Interior stairs; rope; aerial ladder; fire escape; portable ladder C:✔Interior stairs; rope; fire escape; portable ladder; aerial ladder D: Interior stairs; fire escape; rope; portable ladder; aerial ladder Explanation: CODE: “I’ll Run For President Again” Engine Operations Ch 4 5.7.1

Before roll call for the 6x9 tour, the Officer in Charge realizes that only one CFR-certified firefighter is working. What action must the Officer take? A: Continue normal CFR operations and document it in the company journal. B: As long as the Officer is CFR certified he will count towards 2 minimum firefighters to start the tour. C: Notify the dispatcher and Battalion, and make a journal entry; the dispatcher will update the unit’s CFR status in the STARFIRE system. D: Place the unit out of service completely until both CFR-certified members are available.

A: Continue normal CFR operations and document it in the company journal. B: As long as the Officer is CFR certified he will count towards 2 minimum firefighters to start the tour. C:✔Notify the dispatcher and Battalion, and make a journal entry; the dispatcher will update the unit’s CFR status in the STARFIRE system. D: Place the unit out of service completely until both CFR-certified members are available. Explanation: CFRD Chap 2 sec 1.8.1 C is Correct. A – OOS for CFRD responds, unless calls directly from the public to assist civilians. B- Need a min. of 2 CFR certified FIREFIGHTERS at the start tour. D- OOS for CFRD responds, unless calls directly from the public to assist civilians

When applying water to energized electrical components in a Con Ed facility certain safety precautions must be met. Which one listed below is correct? A: Straight streams are poor conductors of electricity and are therefore the preferred water stream pattern. B: Salt water shall never be used. C: The hose and appliance must be flushed clear of sediment and scale after applying the stream onto the exposed electrical equipment. D: The desired fog pattern mode is 15 degree or greater fog stream

A: Straight streams are poor conductors of electricity and are therefore the preferred water stream pattern. B:✔Salt water shall never be used. C: The hose and appliance must be flushed clear of sediment and scale after applying the stream onto the exposed electrical equipment. D: The desired fog pattern mode is 15 degree or greater fog stream Explanation: A. FOG STREAMS are poor conductors of electricity and are therefore the preferred water stream pattern. C. The hose and appliance must be flushed clear of sediment and scale BEFORE applying the stream onto the exposed electrical equipment. D. The desired fog pattern mode is 30 DEGREE or greater fog stream. NOTE: It’s challenging when a “NEVER” is the right answer. Know your “never” and “always” AUC 338 7.3, 7.5, 7.7

At a Private Dwelling fire, which company is tasked with shutting down the utilities? A: 1st Arriving Ladder Company B: Rescue or Squad C: 2nd Arriving Engine Company D: 2nd Arriving Ladder Company

A: 1st Arriving Ladder Company B: Rescue or Squad C: 2nd Arriving Engine Company D:✔2nd Arriving Ladder Company Explanation: Private Dwelling Chap 4 sec. 4.2 8th Bullet. D is Correct.

Exam 2 Flashcards

(40 cards)