1
Q
What does a blue light on the overhead panel signify?
A
Normal but temporary use of a system
2
Q
What happens when the EMER CANCEL button on the ECAM panel is pressed?
A
Suppresses all caution messages but not aural warnings
3
Q
When is the CRZ page automatically displayed on the SD?
A
When level at the planned cruise altitude
4
Q
During MAN ENG START when should the master switch be turned ON?
A
At 20 percent N2
5
Q
What powers the FADEC?
A
Self-powered above 58 percent N2 and electrically until 5 min after engine shutdown
6
Q
What happens at 50 percent N2 during automatic start?
A
Igniters OFF and start valve closes
7
Q
To receive navaid idents what must be selected on the ACP?
A
ON VOICE button illuminated green
8
Q
Which RMP SEL lights illuminate with RMP 1 on VHF 1
A
RMP 2 on VHF 3
9
Q
What happens automatically after first engine start?
A
PTU test runs
10
Q
How is the emergency generator driven?
A
By the RAT through the green hydraulic system at 2500 psi
11
Q
When do all ten spoilers deploy together?
A
Rejected take-off above 72 knots
12
Q
With autopilot off and no sidestick inputs what does the aircraft maintain?
A
Pitch attitude and bank angle remain constant
13
Q
Which protections are available in Normal Law?
A
Pitch Roll Load factor Overspeed and Stall protections
14
Q
In Alternate Law what is the lowest speed achievable?
A
Below VSW (no stall protection)
15
Q
After gravity gear extension what happens to the gear doors?
A
They remain open
16
Q
What is the maximum speed for lowering the gear?
A
260 knots IAS
17
Q
What indicates vertical amber lines each side of a wheel number on WHEEL SD?
A
Brake temperature greater than 300 °C
18
Q
If both outer-tank transfer valves fail what is displayed on FUEL SD?
A
ECAM message OUTER TK FUEL NOT XFRD
19
Q
When does fuel recirculation occur?
A
Recirculated fuel is returned to centre tank
20
Q
When do centre tank pumps stop?
A
When flap 1 is selected for take-off
21
Q
What does the cabin oxygen half-box amber indicate on SD?
A
Pressure below 1500 psi – maintenance required
22
Q
What triggers CAB PRESS (red) flashing on a passenger door?
A
Residual cabin pressure with engines OFF and slides disarmed
23
Q
What causes engine fire warning to trigger?
A
Overheat detected by either loop A or loop B
24
Q
In Normal Law what are the maximum pitch and bank angles?
A
Pitch +30°/-15° bank 67°
25
In Alternate Law what characteristic speeds appear low on the speed scale?
VLS Alpha Prot and VSW
26
What do Wing Tip Brakes do?
Lock slats and flaps to prevent asymmetry cannot be reset in flight
27
What is signified by A-LOCK on EWD?
Slats will not retract from 1 to 0 due to high alpha reduce angle of attack to retract
28
What is demanded by sidestick inputs in Normal Law?
Pitch load factor and roll rate of roll
29
What does green dot on PFD speed tape indicate?
Best lift/drag speed
30
Where can VOR 1 beam bar be displayed?
Capt ND ROSE VOR mode only
31
Which indications on ND are from ADIRS?
Wind velocity and groundspeed
32
When do transfer valves close?
When fuel transfer is complete
33
What do two amber lines across a fuel quantity mean?
Outer tank fuel failed to transfer to inner tank
34
What is the minimum fuel for take-off?
1500 kg and no WING TK LO LVL ECAM
35
What happens when ENG 2 MASTER is ON?
Centre tank pumps start running
36
What happens when cargo door is selected OPEN?
Yellow electric pump runs supplying door circuit only
37
When is the PTU inhibited?
From electrical power-up until after second engine start
38
Which parts are anti-iced?
Outboard slats and engine nacelles
39
Which windows remain heated if WHC 1 fails?
Captain’s windscreen and F/O side window
40
When are probe heaters automatically on?
At first engine start
41
What happens if ANTISKID is inoperative?
Pilot must limit brake pressure to below 1000 psi
42
What is the nose-wheel steering angle with full pedals and tiller?
Up to 75 degrees
43
When does the EGT needle pulse amber?
Above 915 °C except for take-off power
44
What is the maximum EGT for TOGA?
950 °C for 5 minutes (10 minutes single engine)
45
When is use of MAX reverse permitted?
To full stop on ground only
46
What is the maximum crosswind for take-off?
38 knots gust inclusive
47
What is the maximum altitude for APU start?
39 000 feet
48
What is the maximum speed for flaps 3?
185 knots
49
What is the maximum speed with gear down locked?
260 knots
50
What is the maximum speed for gear retraction?
220 knots
51
What is the maximum speed for windscreen wipers?
230 knots
52
What is the maximum wind for passenger door operation?
65 knots
53
What is the maximum altitude for using APU to supply one pack?
25 000 feet
54
What is the ENG starter N2 limit for re-engagement?
Below 20 percent N2
55
What does column 4 “0” mean in the MEL?
Crew must perform operational procedure
56
What are initial actions for WINDSHEAR warning on approach?
TOGA thrust AP ON SRS follow
57
What are captain’s initial actions for RTO at 100 kts?
Call STOP apply reverse MAX monitor autobrake or pedal brake as required
58
What are initial actions for GPWS PULL UP warning?
AP OFF sidestick fully aft TOGA thrust
59
What are initial pitch and thrust for unreliable IAS after take-off?
TOGA thrust pitch +15 degrees
60
What are initial actions for TCAS CLIMB RA?
AP OFF FDs OFF adjust V/S to green area on PFD
61
What are initial actions for Emergency Descent from FL330?
Oxygen masks on set ALT and HDG pull thrust idle
62
What happens when lower ECAM SD display fails?
Systems page pops up on EWD when warning occurs
63
What indicates Level 3 warning?
Continuous chime plus red master warning light plus red message on EWD
64
What does LDG INHIBIT memo mean?
Most warnings suppressed until after touchdown
65
What does SRS speed target give on go-around?
Higher of Vapp or speed at engagement
66
What do the five FMA columns represent?
Speed Altitude Heading Capability and AP FD engagement
67
How is managed guidance engaged?
Push desired FCU selector knob
68
How is ECON descent speed range shown on PFD?
Two magenta brackets 40 knots apart
69
What does white box around FMA item indicate?
Mode armed
70
What symbol shows track on ND Rose?
Green diamond
71
How can radar display brightness be adjusted?
Radar panel brightness knob
72
73
What voltage are the A320 AC systems?
115 or 200 volts AC
74
What voltage are the A320 DC systems?
28 volts DC
75
How many main AC power sources are there?
Four (two engine generators one APU and external power)
76
What drives the emergency generator?
The RAT via the blue hydraulic system
77
Which DC battery can convert to 115 volt AC through the static inverter?
Battery 1
78
What is the AC power source priority order?
Engine generators external power APU emergency generator then batteries
79
What controls each generator?
The Generator Control Unit GCU
80
What controls external power input?
The Generator Power Control Unit GPCU
81
Which colour circuit breakers are monitored by ECAM?
Green
82
Which colour circuit breakers are unmonitored?
Black
83
Which colour circuit breakers can only be reset by maintenance?
Red
84
How many Integrated Drive Generators are fitted?
Two
85
What is each IDG rated at?
90 KVA 115 or 200 volts 400 hertz
86
How does APU generator output change with altitude?
It reduces as the aircraft climbs
87
What colour is shown if the engine is not running?
Amber
88
What colour is shown if the engine is running?
White
89
Which bus is powered by GEN1?
AC BUS1
90
Which bus is powered by GEN2?
AC BUS2
91
Which TR supplies DC ESS bus?
ESS TR
92
How many DC batteries are connected to the hot buses?
Two
93
What are the DC batteries used for?
APU start battery charging and power below 100 knots if no other source
94
What is the function of the static inverter?
Converts DC to 115 volt AC to supply AC ESS bus until RAT online
95
How long until RAT supplies power?
Approximately eight seconds
96
What is the battery capacity?
23 amp hour
97
Which buses are batteries permanently connected to?
Hot BUS 1 and Hot BUS 2
98
Which battery supplies the AC ESS bus?
Battery 1
99
Which battery supplies the DC ESS bus?
Battery 2
100
How long can the IDG be disconnected for?
Maximum five seconds
101
How many ADIRUs are installed?
Three
102
At what difference does the HDG or ALT error flag appear?
More than 5 degrees heading or 250 feet below and 500 feet above
103
What does ACSC1 control?
Cockpit temperature
104
What does ACSC2 control?
Cabin zones temperature
105
What happens if there is a trim air fault?
Switch off hot air
106
What happens if one ACSC lane fails?
The other lane turns off
107
At what cabin altitude does an amber CAB PRESS warning occur?
9550 feet
108
At what cabin altitude do emergency lights automatically illuminate?
11300 feet
109
At what cabin altitude do passenger oxygen masks automatically deploy?
14000 feet
110
What is the temperature control range?
18 to 30 degrees Celsius
111
When does the avionics ventilation close on the ground?
At 3 degrees Celsius
112
When does the avionics ventilation open on the ground?
At 40 degrees Celsius or above
113
What is the intermediate ventilation configuration temperature?
About 35 degrees Celsius until airborne
114
At what pressure differential does the PTU operate?
500 psi
115
What pressure differential drives the PTU dog sound?
50 psi
116
How many full brake applications from the yellow accumulator?
Seven
117
How long does the parking brake accumulator hold pressure?
About 12 hours
118
What do hydraulic priority valves do?
Offload high load users during low pressure
119
When does the RAT deploy automatically?
Loss of two hydraulic pumps
120
What is normal hydraulic pressure?
3000 psi
121
What is hydraulic pressure with RAT?
2500 psi
122
What is the takeoff climb gradient for sector 1?
35 feet obstacle clearance continuing to sector 4
123
What is the climb gradient for sector 2?
2.4 percent
124
What is the climb gradient for sector 4?
1.2 percent
125
When is the APU generator available after start?
Above 95 percent N for two seconds
126
When is the APU at full rated speed?
99.5 percent N
127
At what N speed does the amber line appear?
Above 102 percent N
128
At what N speed does the red line appear?
Above 107 percent N
129
When is the EGT indication amber?
When within 33 degrees of limit
130
What is the maximum EGT for engine start below FL350?
1090 degrees Celsius
131
What is the maximum EGT for engine start above FL350?
1120 degrees Celsius
132
What is the maximum continuous operating EGT?
675 degrees Celsius
133
What does a LOW OIL LEVEL indication mean?
Oil level low maintenance within 10 hours
134
How many start attempts before cooling required?
Three cycles then 60 minutes cooling
135
What is the additional cooling time after bleed use?
60 seconds on top of normal shutdown cooldown
136
What is full APU fuel flow?
Approximately 125 kilograms per hour
137
What is the maximum altitude for APU start on batteries?
25000 feet
138
What is the maximum altitude for APU bleed supplying one pack?
22500 feet
139
What is the maximum altitude for APU bleed supplying two packs?
15000 feet
140
When does NAV mode engage after takeoff?
At 30 feet RA
141
What must be engaged before managed vertical modes?
Managed lateral navigation
142
What colour is a level-off constraint when satisfied?
Magenta
143
What colour is an altitude constraint predicted to be missed?
Amber
144
What happens if descent started before top of descent?
Aircraft maintains 1000 feet level until re-intercepting path
145
What is the speed window tolerance?
Plus or minus 20 knots
146
What defines soft altitude?
Two minutes after reaching planned cruise within 50 feet variation
147
Which modes are active during takeoff?
SRS and RWY
148
What are RWY TRK conditions?
Below 30 feet RA without NAV or RWY LOC engaged
149
What are SRS pitch limits?
18 degrees maximum with minimum 120 feet per minute climb
150
What happens at 40 feet RA during landing?
FLARE mode engages
151
What happens at 30 feet RA during landing?
AP FD aligns with runway centreline
152
What happens at 10 feet RA during landing?
Retard callout sounds
153
On ECAM when does blue text turn green?
When the action is complete
154
When does landing memo appear?
At 2000 feet RA with landing gear down until 80 knots after landing
155
When does wheel page automatically display?
After 10 seconds from engine start
156
When does flight control page appear?
When control stick or rudder is moved
157
When does engine page display automatically?
During takeoff power application
158
When does cruise page appear automatically?
After climb power set and 1500 feet AGL
159
When does wheel page reappear automatically?
Below 16000 feet until last engine shutdown
160
What permanent data is displayed on lower ECAM?
TAT SAT ISA UTC time and gross weight after second engine start
161
What G load values are shown permanently on lower ECAM?
Between plus 1.4 and 0.7g
162
What defines a Level 3 ECAM alert?
Red warning continuous chime and voice message
163
What defines a Level 2 ECAM alert?
Amber warning with single chime
164
What defines a Level 1 ECAM alert?
Amber message loss of redundancy no master caution or aural
165
What is an independent failure on ECAM?
Single system fault shown left side of EWD
166
What is a primary failure on ECAM?
Failure that causes loss of secondary system shown left side of EWD
167
What is a secondary failure on ECAM?
Consequence of primary failure shown right side of EWD
168
What colour is slip indicator after engine failure?
Blue
169
What is pitch scale range on PFD?
Minus 80 to plus 80 degrees
170
What is minimum displayed airspeed?
30 knots
171
What does the speed arrow on PFD indicate?
Predicted speed in 10 seconds minimum 2 knots change
172
When does Mach number appear on PFD?
Above Mach 0.5
173
What is backup speed based on?
Angle of attack
174
When does altitude window pulse on PFD?
Within 750 feet of selected altitude
175
When is radio altimeter amber?
Within 100 feet above DH or 400 feet if no DH
176
When does red radio altimeter tape appear?
Below 570 feet RA
177
What is minimum vertical speed displayed?
200 feet per minute
178
When does vertical speed turn amber?
Greater than 6000 fpm or 2000 fpm below 2500 feet RA or 1200 fpm below 1000 feet RA
179
When does tailstrike pitch limit indicator appear?
Below 400 feet RA
180
What colour shows heading on ND?
Yellow lubber line
181
What colour shows actual track on ND?
Green diamond
182
How are VOR and ADF indicators shown on ND?
Single line for number 1 double line for number 2
183
Which control adjusts weather radar and ND brightness?
Same brightness knob on EFIS control panel
184
What is scale of ROSE VOR mode?
Five degrees per dot
185
What permanent data is displayed at bottom of ND?
TAT SAT and time
186
Which spoilers operate only on the ground?
Spoiler 1
187
Which spoilers provide roll control?
Spoilers 2 to 5
188
Which spoilers act as flight spoilers?
Spoilers 2 to 4
189
If the flaps are jammed what remains available?
Slats remain available
190
If the slats are jammed what remains available?
Flaps remain available
191
How many flight control computers are fitted to the A320?
Seven
192
What do the FACs control?
Rudder functions and flight envelope laws
193
At what speed does the RTO function activate?
Above 72 knots
194
What is VMCL for the A320?
114 knots
195
Does the yaw damper move the rudder pedals?
No
196
What are the load factor limits in clean configuration?
+2.5g to -1.0g
197
What are the load factor limits with slats or flaps extended?
+2.0g to 0g
198
What is the maximum pitch attitude in clean configuration?
30 degrees (25 degrees at low speed)
199
What is the maximum pitch attitude in FULL configuration?
25 degrees (20 degrees at low speed)
200
What is the maximum bank angle in normal law?
67 degrees
201
What happens if the sidestick is released beyond 33 degrees of bank?
Aircraft returns to and holds 33 degrees of bank
202
What happens if the sidestick is released beyond 33 degrees of bank at high speed?
Aircraft returns to level flight
203
Which aural warning indicates alpha protection activation in normal law?
SPEED SPEED SPEED
204
Which aural warning indicates stall warning in alternate law?
STALL STALL STALL
205
What is the flap speed associated with alpha lock function?
148 knots
206
In alternate law how does the roll rate response change?
Roll rate doubles to 30 degrees per second
207
After stick deactivation how long before control reverts?
40 seconds (30 seconds on newer aircraft)
208
What happens if the hot air pressure regulating valve fails open?
Optimized regulation is lost
209
What is the mixer unit connected to?
Packs and cabin air
210
If both lanes of an air conditioning system controller fail
what happens?
211
During landing run when does the ram air inlet flap open?
70 knots after a 20 second delay
212
During ground operation what is the position of the outflow valve?
Fully open
213
If CPC 1 fails in flight what happens?
Control transfers automatically to CPC 2
214
On the ECAM cabin press page when does the outflow valve indicator turn amber?
When the valve opens more than 95 percent in flight
215
What happens if one lane of an air conditioning controller fails?
The second lane operates as backup and regulation is not optimized
216
Where is the VHF 1 antenna located?
On top of the forward fuselage
217
Where are the localizer and glideslope antennas located?
Behind the nose radome
218
Which cargo compartment can handle containers?
Aft cargo compartment only
219
Before engine start which switch activates the cockpit voice recorder?
The GND CTL pushbutton
220
Who can be contacted through the flight interphone system?
The cabin attendants and the mechanic on the ground
221
When selecting CAPT 3 on the audio switching panel which equipment is used?
The captain uses his own acoustic equipment and the third occupant ACP
222
If AC BUS 1 fails what supplies the AC ESS bus?
AC BUS 2
223
In normal configuration how is the DC ESS bus supplied?
From TR 1
224
In flight on batteries only are AC and DC ESS SHED buses lost?
False
225
How long will emergency lighting internal batteries last?
24 minutes
226
How many escape ropes are in the cockpit?
Two each used through its corresponding window
227
What are the load factor limits for manoeuvre protection?
+2.5g to -1g clean and +2.0g to 0g with flaps extended
228
With only blue hydraulic system remaining and before landing gear extension what law applies?
Normal law
229
When is CONF 1 plus F available again after flap retraction?
At 100 knots or less
230
In normal law when is the stall warning activated?
At stall speed times 1.03
231
When does the amber FAULT light illuminate on the fuel MODE SEL pushbutton?
When inner wing tank has less than 750 kilograms
232
How is the IDG cooled?
By fuel from the high pressure fuel line in the engine
233
When does the amber FAULT light on a fuel pump pushbutton illuminate?
When the delivery fuel pressure drops
234
What does a boxed amber indication for center tank fuel on ECAM mean?
Both center tank pumps failed or switched off
235
How many cells in each wing tank normally contain fuel?
Five
236
Are wing tank pumps running while center tank is supplying fuel?
No only when center tank is empty
237
What does a half boxed amber FOB on the EWD mean?
Both transfer valves failed to open when inner tank low level reached
238
Before engine start with AC power available what is the status of the blue pump?
Energized when blue pump OVRD pushbutton is pressed
239
How are the wing anti ice valves controlled?
Two WHC
240
How is the engine nacelle anti iced?
Exhaust air from fan pre cooler
241
If electrical power is lost what is the state of the wing anti ice valve?
Open
242
What happens when the wing anti ice pushbutton is turned on while on ground?
The wing anti ice valves do not open
243
In loss of electrical power what happens to the engine anti ice valve?
Opens when the engine is running
244
How are primary and secondary failures indicated?
Primary boxed secondary indicated by a star
245
When is V/S indication inhibited?
Below 100 feet radio altitude
246
During which flight phases is TO INHIBIT displayed on EWD?
Phases 3 4 and 5
247
What is the maximum speed with landing gear extended?
280 knots
248
The brakes are actuated by which hydraulic systems?
Green and yellow hydraulic systems
249
At what speed does the landing gear safety valve open?
250 knots
250
Which hydraulic systems supply the alternate brake system?
Yellow hydraulic system and accumulator
251
When is brake pressure from the accumulator available?
In alternate braking without anti skid
252
With green hydraulic system available and A SKID NW STRG switch OFF what is status?
Braking alternate nose wheel steering normal
253
With APU running and PARK BRK set what colour is shown on EWD?
Blue temporary
254
What is the maximum nose wheel steering angle via pedals?
6 degrees or less depending on aircraft speed
255
Which ADIRU closes green hydraulic safety valve when speed above 260 knots?
ADIRU 1 only
256
To check a faulty annunciator light what position should ANN LT switch be in?
BRT
257
Which TAT sensor supplies ADIRU 3?
The standby TAT sensor
258
How is data sent between MCDUs?
Direct from MCDU 1 to MCDU 2
259
What does pressing LOC on the FCU arm?
A published localizer approach
260
In ROSE VOR mode with VOR 1 selected what does the captains ND show?
Deviation bar selected course and bearing pointer
261
If ADIRU 2 fails what should be selected?
Set ATT HDG and AIR DATA selectors to CAPT 3
262
How do FMGCs operate normally?
According to master slave principle
263
When does LAND appear green on FMA during approach?
At 1000 feet radio altitude
264
How many motors drive the cross bleed valve?
Two one high speed and one low speed
265
How is air bleed from the engines cooled?
By the pack primary heat exchangers
266
When APU bleed selected what position does cross bleed valve go to?
Closed position
267
To provide external air for engine 2 start what switching is required?
Pneumatic cross bleed AUTO
268
With engines and APU bleed ON what happens to valves?
Engine bleed valves open cross bleed valve opens APU bleed valve closes
269
Below what altitude does the toilet vacuum generator operate?
Below 16000 feet
270
How is the toilet flush sequence controlled?
A spring loaded mechanical valve controls the flush sequence
271
What is the maximum EGT during engine start?
725°C
272
How is the oil cooled?
By the fuel oil heat exchanger and the air oil heat exchanger
273
When does EGT indication pulse red on EWD?
When EGT is higher than 650°C
274
What is the maximum continuous oil temperature limit that may be exceeded?
165°C for less than 15 minutes
275
What device provides direct closure of the HP and LP shut off valves?
The master switch in the OFF position
276
What is the maximum N2?
1
277
During an automatic start on ground what is the correct sequence?
Ignition and HP fuel valve opening after 30 seconds dry cranking start valve closure by N2 greater than 43 percent
278
What is the maximum allowable flex temperature?
ISA plus 55°C
279
During an automatic starting sequence when does the pack valve close?
When IGN START is selected
280
What is the maximum deflection of the nose wheel if controlled by the rudder pedals?
6 degrees
281
Which computer controls the Landing Gear indicator panel lights?
LGCIU 1 only
282
Which hydraulic system is used for gear retraction and extension?
Green system
283
What is the purpose of the red DOWN arrow next to the landing gear lever?
To indicate that the landing gear is not locked down when the aircraft is in the landing configuration
284
How many turns and in which direction must the flight crew crank the EMERGENCY EXTENSION handle to extend the landing gear by gravity?
3 turns clockwise
285
When is the LO LVL warning displayed on ECAM?
When fuel quantity in one wing tank goes below 750 kilograms
286
Will the center pumps operate if slats are extended?
Yes if the CTR TK MODE SEL is set to MAN
287
What is the purpose of the Fuel Recirculation System?
It ensures IDG cooling
288
Where is the external refuelling panel located?
On the side of the fuselage beneath the right wing
289
How many PHCs (Probe Heat Computers) are installed on the A320?
Three
290
How many power levels are available for window heat?
Low and Normal for the Windshield and Windows
291
Is it possible to select Wing Anti-Ice on the ground?
Yes the wing anti-icing control valves open for 30 seconds only (test sequence)
292
What is the minimum engine oil quantity for aircraft dispatch?
At or above 11 quarts plus estimated consumption (max average estimated 0.3 quarts per hour)
293
What is true regarding reverse thrust?
All are correct
294
How many channels does each FADEC have?
Two channels one active and one standby
295
During a manual engine start on the ground what is true?
FADEC monitors the start and aborts if EGT limit is exceeded before reaching 50 percent N2
296
When a manual start is carried out when is the start valve closed?
By the FADEC when N2 reaches 43 percent
297
Which engine parameters are displayed on EWD?
EPR EGT N1 N2 and fuel flow
298
What is the function of the TMR RESET pushbutton?
Used by maintenance to reset the control circuit after the system has operated
299
When passenger oxygen masks are released what happens?
Passenger address system automatically broadcasts pre-recorded instructions
300
What does HI ALT SET memo on ECAM indicate?
Cabin altitude increased by 2000 feet and mask release increased by 2000 feet
301
How many cargo fire extinguisher bottles are installed?
One bottle that can discharge in either compartment
302
How is fire and overheat detection provided for engines and APU?
Two identical gas detection loops (A and B) in parallel with a Fire Detection Unit
303
What does amber DISCH indication on ENG FIRE panel mean?
Associated fire extinguisher bottle has lost pressure
304
Can an engine fire be detected if one loop is faulty?
Yes
305
If an APU fire occurs on the ground what happens?
System shuts down the APU automatically and discharges extinguishing agent
306
Which VHF transceiver functions in emergency electrical configuration?
VHF 1
307
What happens if the captain’s RMP is unserviceable?
Captain can set Audio Switching switch to CAPT 3
308
Which panel is used to select a VHF transceiver?
RMP
309
What does the SEL indicator on an RMP mean?
A transceiver normally associated with one RMP is tuned by another
310
Can you open a door with an escape slide from outside without disarming the slide first?
Yes the slide is automatically disarmed when opened from the outside
311
How many passenger doors are fitted on an A320?
Two
312
What is true about the cockpit sliding windows?
Each escape rope is long enough to reach the ground from any window
313
What position should ANN LT switch be in to check a faulty annunciator light?
TEST
314
What is the difference between NAV & LOGO switch positions 1 and 2?
Position 1 turns on logo and first set of nav lights position 2 adds second set
315
What does LDG LT in green on the memo display mean?
At least one landing light is extended
316
How is waste from toilets transferred below 16000 feet?
A vacuum generator produces the necessary pressure differential
317
Where is the water and waste control panel located?
On the forward attendant control panel
318
When does the pack flow control valve close automatically?
Pack overheat engine starting or fire pushbutton pressed
319
What happens if both lanes of an air conditioning controller fail?
Pack is lost
320
How many pressurization controllers are there?
Two identical controllers one active and one standby
321
To which areas is conditioned air normally distributed?
Cockpit forward and aft cabin
322
What do hot air pressure regulating valves do?
Regulate pressure of hot air upstream of packs and fail closed
323
When APU is supplying packs what valve is commanded for more airflow?
Pack flow control valve
324
When does ECAM safety valve indication turn amber?
When valve opens more than 95 percent
325
During ground operation what is the outflow valve position?
Fully open
326
On ECAM when does outflow valve indicator turn amber?
When valve opens more than 95 percent in flight
327
Is it recommended to use packs and LP ground air together on hot stops?
Yes
328
How is the outflow valve powered?
By one of three electric motors
329
When does cabin pressurization start?
At takeoff
330
What is the maximum normal cabin altitude?
8000 feet
331
When does ECAM cabin altitude turn red?
When cabin altitude exceeds 9550 feet
332
Which ECAM page shows outflow valve position?
Press page
333
To what is the mixer unit connected?
Packs cabin air emergency ram air inlet and LP ground connector
334
During landing run when do ram air inlet flaps open?
Below 70 knots after 20 second delay
335
What happens if a hot air pressure regulating valve fails open?
Optimized regulation is lost
336
What happens if one lane of air conditioning controller fails?
The second lane takes over
337
When landing elevation is AUTO what sends landing elevation to controller?
FMGC
BA A320 TR
flashcards
Decks in class (4)
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