BIOL 100 Dave Version > Exam 4 Study guide v2 > Flashcards

Exam 4 Study guide v2 Flashcards

(134 cards)

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1
Q

What is the acrosome of sperm?

A

A cap-like structure that contains enzymes to help penetrate the egg

The acrosome is crucial for fertilization.

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2
Q

What are the hormones involved in the menstrual cycle?

A
  • Estrogen
  • Progesterone

Their levels fluctuate during the menstrual cycle, especially at the start of menstruation.

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3
Q

What is fertilization?

A

The process where a sperm cell joins with an egg cell

This leads to the formation of a zygote.

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4
Q

What is the effect of FSH on follicles?

A

Stimulates the growth and maturation of ovarian follicles

FSH stands for Follicle-Stimulating Hormone.

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5
Q

What are the gamete and chromosome numbers in humans?

A
  • Gametes: 23 chromosomes (haploid)
  • Zygote/embryo: 46 chromosomes (diploid)

Human cells have 23 pairs of chromosomes, totaling 46.

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6
Q

Where does implantation occur?

A

In the uterus

This is where the fertilized egg attaches to the uterine lining.

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7
Q

How is a latex condom superior to other modes of contraception?

A
  • Provides a barrier to sperm
  • Reduces risk of STIs

Latex condoms are effective in preventing both pregnancy and sexually transmitted infections.

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8
Q

What is menopause?

A

The cessation of menstruation and fertility in women

It typically occurs in middle age.

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9
Q

What are the ovaries responsible for?

A
  • Producing ova (eggs)
  • Secreting hormones (estrogen and progesterone)

Ovaries are key reproductive organs in females.

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10
Q

What is ovulation?

A

The release of an egg from the ovary

This typically occurs mid-cycle in the menstrual cycle.

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11
Q

What role do prostaglandins play in cramping?

A

They cause uterine contractions leading to menstrual cramps

Prostaglandins are hormone-like substances.

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12
Q

What is the function of the prostate gland?

A

Produces fluid that nourishes and transports sperm

The prostate gland is part of the male reproductive system.

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13
Q

What is testosterone?

A

The primary male sex hormone

It plays a key role in male development and reproductive function.

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14
Q

What is a vasectomy?

A

A surgical procedure for male sterilization

It involves cutting and sealing the vas deferens.

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15
Q

How does cancer relate to mitosis and the cell cycle?

A

Cancer involves uncontrolled cell division during mitosis

This disrupts the normal cell cycle.

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16
Q

What is the cell cycle comprised of?

A
  • Interphase
  • Mitosis
  • Cytokinesis

These stages are crucial for cell division.

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17
Q

What contributes to genetic diversity during meiosis?

A
  • Crossing over
  • Independent assortment

These processes occur during gamete formation.

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18
Q

What is the difference between haploid and diploid?

A
  • Haploid: 23 chromosomes (gametes)
  • Diploid: 46 chromosomes (somatic cells)

This distinction is important in understanding cell types.

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19
Q

What is Klinefelter syndrome?

A

A genetic condition resulting from an extra X chromosome (XXY)

It affects male physical and cognitive development.

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20
Q

What is the big picture of meiosis?

A

The process of producing gametes with half the chromosome number

Meiosis is essential for sexual reproduction.

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21
Q

What are the stages of mitosis?

A
  • Prophase
  • Metaphase
  • Anaphase
  • Telophase

Each stage plays a critical role in cell division.

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22
Q

What is oogenesis?

A

The process of egg (ovum) formation in females

It results in the production of polar bodies.

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23
Q

What is spermatogenesis?

A

The process of sperm formation in males

It produces four viable sperm from one precursor cell.

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24
Q

What is trisomy 21 also known as?

A

Down syndrome

It is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21.

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25
List examples of **recessive diseases** in humans.
* Cystic fibrosis * Albinism ## Footnote These diseases require two copies of the recessive allele to manifest.
26
List examples of **dominant diseases** in humans.
* Huntington’s disease ## Footnote These diseases require only one copy of the dominant allele to manifest.
27
What is a **Punnett square** used for?
To predict the phenotypes and genotypes of offspring ## Footnote It is a tool in genetics for understanding inheritance.
28
What is **epigenetics**?
The study of changes in gene expression without altering the DNA sequence ## Footnote It involves mechanisms like DNA methylation.
29
What is **gene therapy**?
A technique that modifies genes to treat or prevent disease ## Footnote It aims to correct defective genes responsible for disease development.
30
What is **genetic engineering** used for?
To alter the genetic makeup of organisms ## Footnote It is not typically used for cloning humans.
31
Where do **transcription and translation** take place in a human cell?
* Transcription: Nucleus * Translation: Cytoplasm ## Footnote These processes are physically separated to regulate gene expression.
32
Who's Dave's honey chiillle?
Sunnykins
33
What is an example of a **phenotype**?
ability to have x-ray vision ## Footnote A phenotype is how an allele manifests itself as a physical characteristic, such as height or eye color.
34
ABO blood type shows what type of **genetic pattern(s)**?
only codominance, recessive alleles, and multiple alleles ## Footnote The A and B alleles produce different proteins called antigens, which are codominant.
35
Which is not a typical use of **genetic engineering**?
making designer babies, such as those with a particular height ## Footnote Genetic engineering is currently incapable of making designer babies; it can only address specific genetic diseases.
36
What is the percentage of each **phenotype** if a person with normal blood has a child with a person with sickle cell anemia?
100% sickle cell trait ## Footnote The cross of SS (normal) and ss (sickle cell) results in all Ss (sickle cell trait).
37
Skin color is an example of __________.
polygenic inheritance ## Footnote Skin color is influenced by multiple genes and shows a continuous gradation of color.
38
What does **epigenetics** involve?
the factors that control gene activation at the chromosome level ## Footnote Epigenetics studies how environmental factors influence DNA coiling and gene accessibility.
39
How is **phenylketonuria** normally tested?
blood samples ## Footnote PKU is tested using blood samples from infants to diagnose the inability to catabolize phenylalanine.
40
Fragile X syndrome and cri-du-chat share what in common?
Both involve changes in lengths of chromosomes. ## Footnote Both conditions are related to chromosomal abnormalities affecting development.
41
What is the purpose of **screening all newborns for PKU**?
To identify potential disorders early ## Footnote PKU screening is part of routine newborn health checks.
42
What does an **ultrasound** use to produce an image of the developing fetus?
Soundwaves ## Footnote Ultrasounds can assess fetal development in terms of size and heart function.
43
True or false: An ultrasound can be used to look at **metabolic disorders**.
FALSE ## Footnote Ultrasounds are not suitable for diagnosing metabolic disorders.
44
What do **Fragile X syndrome** and **cri-du-chat** have in common?
Both involve changes in lengths of chromosomes ## Footnote Fragile X syndrome is due to over 200 repeats on the X chromosome, while cri-du-chat is due to a deletion on chromosome 5.
45
What is the cause of **Fragile X syndrome**?
Over 200 repeats of a codon on the X chromosome ## Footnote This leads to inactivation of a gene necessary for proper neurologic functioning.
46
What is the cause of **cri-du-chat syndrome**?
Deletion of base pairs on chromosome 5 ## Footnote This deletion results in neurologic problems and distinct facial characteristics.
47
What does the **law of segregation** ensure?
Each gamete has only one allele for each gene ## Footnote This is a result of how chromosomes separate during meiosis.
48
What is the outcome of the **AB x AB blood type cross**?
Will not produce type O blood ## Footnote AB blood type does not carry the O allele.
49
What are the possible phenotypes of children from a normal male and a carrier female for **hemophilia**?
25% normal female, 25% carrier female, 25% normal male, 25% hemophiliac male ## Footnote Hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive trait.
50
What are the possible phenotypes of children from a carrier female and a color blind male?
25% color blind female, 25% carrier female, 25% color blind male, 25% normal male ## Footnote Color blindness is a sex-linked recessive trait.
51
What is an example of **pleiotropy**?
Sickle cell anemia ## Footnote Pleiotropy occurs when a single allele has multiple phenotypic effects.
52
What are the percentages of blood types from a type A blood parent (with type O parent) and a type B blood parent (with type O parent)?
25% A, 25% B, 25% AB, and 25% O ## Footnote This involves codominance and multiple alleles.
53
What is the **chance** of two parents having all four blood types (A, B, AB, and O)?
25% ## Footnote Blood type crosses involve codominance, multiple alleles, and dominant and recessive alleles.
54
What are the three **alleles** that deal with blood antigens?
* IA (A) * IB (B) * i (O) ## Footnote A and B alleles show codominance, while both are dominant to the O allele.
55
In a cross of **AO x BO**, what are the resulting blood types and their percentages?
* 25% type A * 25% type B * 25% type AB * 25% type O ## Footnote This is determined using a 2 x 2 Punnett square.
56
True or false: A cross can yield **75% AB** blood type.
FALSE ## Footnote It is impossible for any cross to yield 75% of the AB blood type.
57
What is the best process to increase the amount of **target DNA** from a tiny drop of blood?
Use polymerase chain reaction ## Footnote PCR amplifies DNA without the need to grow cells.
58
What is the purpose of **polymerase chain reaction (PCR)**?
To amplify the amount of DNA present in a sample ## Footnote PCR involves thermal cycling to double the DNA amount with each cycle.
59
What is the **result** of each cycle in PCR?
The number of double-stranded DNA helices doubles ## Footnote This process allows for millions of copies of a DNA sequence to be generated quickly.
60
What is the **genotype** of a child if a person with wavy hair (Ww) has a child with a person with straight hair (ww)?
* 50% wavy (Ww) * 50% straight (ww) ## Footnote This is determined using a 2 x 2 Punnett square.
61
What is the **probability** of having a child that does NOT have cystic fibrosis if both parents are carriers?
75% ## Footnote The genotypes could be FF or Ff, where F = normal and f = recessive allele.
62
What do **cystic fibrosis** and **albinism** have in common?
Both are observed only in the homozygous recessive genotype ## Footnote Both conditions are rare and require two recessive alleles to manifest.
63
What is the **chance** of Jennifer and John having a child with Huntington’s disease?
50% ## Footnote Jennifer is Hh (has the disease) and John is hh (does not have the disease).
64
In a cross of **Tt x Tt**, what are the expected offspring percentages?
* 25% TT * 50% Tt * 25% tt ## Footnote This cross indicates a recessive trait skipping a generation.
65
What does the **H** allele represent in the context of Huntington's disease?
Huntington’s ## Footnote The **h** allele represents normal.
66
What is Jennifer's genotype if she has one copy of the **H** allele?
Hh ## Footnote The **h** allele came from her healthy parent.
67
What is John's genotype if he shows no signs of Huntington's disease?
hh ## Footnote John has no copies of the **H** allele.
68
What is the cross between Jennifer and John in terms of their genotypes?
Hh x hh ## Footnote This cross is used to determine the potential genotypes of their offspring.
69
Using a **2x2 Punnett square**, what are the possible genotypes of the offspring from the cross Hh x hh?
* 2Hh * 2hh ## Footnote This indicates the potential genetic outcomes for their children.
70
What percentage of the children from the cross Hh x hh will be affected by Huntington's disease?
50% ## Footnote This means 50% will have the **Hh** genotype and be affected.
71
What is the chance of having a child with Huntington's disease if only one parent’s information is provided?
50% ## Footnote Without information about both parents, the chance cannot be determined as 100%, 25%, or 0%.
72
True or false: If both of Jennifer’s parents' information was not provided, it is possible to determine if she is **HH** or **Hh**.
FALSE ## Footnote Without information about both parents, it cannot be determined.
73
What is the result of **nondisjunction** in the first meiotic division?
* All four gametes will have the wrong number of chromosomes * Some cells will have too many chromosomes * Some cells will have too few chromosomes ## Footnote Nondisjunction occurs when homologous pairs do not separate during meiosis I or sister chromatids do not separate during meiosis II.
74
During the **second meiotic division**, how many defective gametes are produced?
* Two defective gametes * Two normal gametes ## Footnote Nondisjunction during the second division results in only two defective gametes, as homologous pairs have already separated.
75
What is the difference between **meiosis I** and **meiosis II**?
* Meiosis I: separation of homologous pairs * Meiosis II: separation of sister chromatids ## Footnote Meiosis I produces haploid cells, while meiosis II separates sister chromatids.
76
True or false: The **nucleus reforms** during prophase.
FALSE ## Footnote The nucleus reforms during telophase, not prophase.
77
Which process is critical for replacing damaged cells: **mitosis** or **meiosis**?
Mitosis ## Footnote Mitosis is essential for growth and repair, while meiosis is necessary for gamete production.
78
What is produced at the end of mitosis in a cell with 20 chromosomes?
Two cells with 20 chromosomes each ## Footnote Mitosis results in two identical daughter cells.
79
What stage comes after **anaphase** in the cell cycle?
Telophase ## Footnote Telophase is characterized by the formation of two nuclei and the beginning of cytokinesis.
80
A human diploid cell is represented as _______.
2n ## Footnote Diploid cells have pairs of chromosomes, totaling 46 in humans.
81
What is the outcome of **spermatogenesis** compared to **oogenesis**?
* Spermatogenesis: four functional gametes * Oogenesis: one functional gamete and three polar bodies ## Footnote Oogenesis involves unequal cytokinetic divisions to ensure the egg has sufficient nutrients.
82
What happens during **prophase**?
* Chromosomes condense * The nuclear envelope breaks down * The spindle forms ## Footnote Prophase is the first step of mitosis, where DNA converts from chromatin to chromosomes.
83
What is a **diploid cell** represented as?
2n ## Footnote In humans, diploid cells have a total of 46 chromosomes, consisting of 23 pairs.
84
How many chromosomes do **haploid cells** have?
23 ## Footnote Haploid cells are the gametes, which include eggs and sperm.
85
What process do gametes undergo to become **haploid**?
Meiosis ## Footnote Meiosis separates homologous pairs of chromosomes, resulting in haploid cells.
86
What is the total number of chromosomes in **diploid** human cells?
46 ## Footnote This is derived from having 23 pairs of chromosomes.
87
The **cell cycle** consists of which stages in the correct order?
* Interphase * Prophase * Metaphase * Anaphase * Telophase ## Footnote This sequence describes the events leading to cell division.
88
What occurs during **interphase**?
* Cell growth * DNA replication * Organelle synthesis ## Footnote Interphase is crucial for preparing the cell for division.
89
During which phase of meiosis are **homologous chromosomes** pulled apart?
Anaphase I ## Footnote Sister chromatids remain together at the centromere during this phase.
90
What is the outcome of a sperm with a **Y chromosome** fertilizing an egg with a nondisjunction?
Klinefelter syndrome ## Footnote This results in an XXY karyotype, leading to male characteristics with some feminine features.
91
What is **not true** about mitosis and meiosis?
Meiosis occurs in body cells ## Footnote Meiosis occurs in gonads, not body cells.
92
What does **independent assortment** result in?
Random distribution of maternal and paternal chromosomes in the daughter cells ## Footnote This increases genetic variability in gametes.
93
Which phase of the cell cycle has chromosomes lining up **end to end**?
Metaphase ## Footnote This is the stage where chromosomes are aligned for separation.
94
What is the **function** of histones?
Condense DNA into tightly coiled structures ## Footnote Histones do not encode information for protein synthesis.
95
What is the **correct order** of the cell cycle stages?
Interphase, Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase ## Footnote This order is essential for proper cell division.
96
What is **true** about interphase?
* The cell grows * It takes up the majority of the cell cycle * DNA replicates ## Footnote The nucleus is not replicated during interphase.
97
What is the **result** of crossing over during meiosis?
Increased genetic variability ## Footnote Crossing over occurs between homologous chromosomes.
98
What is the **function** of mitosis?
Produce two identical daughter cells ## Footnote Mitosis is essential for growth and repair in somatic cells.
99
What stage of the cell cycle is identified by chromosomes lining up end to end?
Metaphase ## Footnote Metaphase is characterized by the presence of chromosomes positioned at the equator of the cell, with the spindle apparatus attached to the centromeres.
100
During which stage does **recombination** occur?
Prophase I ## Footnote Recombination results from crossing over, which occurs when homologous pairs of chromosomes exchange genetic material.
101
How does **mitosis** differ from **meiosis**?
* Mitosis produces two identical cells * Meiosis produces four nonidentical cells ## Footnote Mitosis occurs in somatic cells for growth and repair, while meiosis produces gametes and reduces chromosome number.
102
What do **centromeres** connect?
Sister chromatids ## Footnote Centromeres are structures that hold sister chromatids together and are involved in their movement during cell division.
103
A single cell going through the second meiotic division is __________.
n ## Footnote The first meiotic division reduces the chromosome number from diploid (2n) to haploid (n), and the second meiotic division involves haploid cells.
104
What is not true about a vasectomy?
There is a significant decrease in circulating testosterone in males after this sterilization procedure.
105
What is associated with menopause?
hot flashes, decreased estrogen levels, and osteoporosis.
106
Choose the group of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) that are caused by bacteria.
Gonorrhea, Chlamydia, and Syphilis.
107
Menstrual cramps are due to the release of __________.
prostaglandins.
108
What is not true about progesterone being used as a contraceptive?
It decreases the chances of obtaining a sexually transmitted disease.
109
What is true about a zygote?
It is produced from the union of a sperm and an egg.
110
Place the correct order that sperm must travel starting with their formation until they leave the body.
seminiferous tubule, epididymis, vas deferens, urethra.
111
Which is not associated with a gonad?
releases follicle-stimulating hormone.
112
What occurs in the uterus during the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle?
endometrium development.
113
The second meiotic division of spermatogenesis produces four __________.
spermatozoa.
114
early spermatids
The trick is to look for the step where two cells give rise to four cells. A second way to make sure you are getting this is to look at the next stage in which flagella start forming on the cells. Early spermatids don’t have flagella, but the next stage cells do have flagella.
115
secondary spermatocytes
The primary spermatocytes undergo the first meiotic division producing two secondary haploid spermatocytes. Each of these cells undergoes second meiotic division to produce four early spermatids.
116
latex male condom
The latex male condom offers the best protection against sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) for sexually active people since the latex material has the smallest pore size compared to other materials used for condoms.
117
diaphragms
While it is effective as a mechanical barrier to prevent sperm from fertilizing the egg, it is not effective for preventing transmission of STDs.
118
46
Diploid cells contain 46 total chromosomes.
119
decreased follicle-stimulating hormone
Decreased follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels will cause new follicles to not develop.
120
oviduct
The oviduct is typically where the egg is fertilized.
121
testosterone
Interstitial cells produce testosterone.
122
acrosome
The acrosome contains enzymes that digest the outer layers of the egg.
123
order that an egg needs to travel from ovulation until birth
The correct order from ovulation to birth is: ovaries, oviducts, endometrium, cervix, vagina.
124
before birth
All of the eggs are made before birth.
125
latex male condom
The latex male condom is the best way to prevent pregnancy for those wanting to avoid surgery and hormones, as it is the only barrier method answer option.
126
Depo-Provera
involves the injection of progesterone hormone compounds.
127
tubal ligation
is a form of sterilization done on females. The oviducts are either clamped or cut and tied off to prevent sperm from meeting with the eggs. This method requires surgery.
128
the patch
is a transdermal device that is placed on the skin and the device slowly releases progesterone or a mix of estrogen- and progesterone-based compounds.
129
vaginal ring
is made of a mixture of progesterone and estrogen hormone compounds. It is inserted into the vagina and slowly releases the hormones for a three-month period.
130
luteinizing hormone
directly stimulates ovulation.
131
gonadotropin-releasing hormone
is released at the beginning of the cycle.
132
estrogen
promotes growth of the follicle.
133
follicle-stimulating hormone
is released along with LH, but it is the release of LH that directly promotes ovulation.
134
progesterone
is produced by the corpus luteum, which is a structure that is produced from the follicle after it has ovulated the oocyte.
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