1
Q
Intercalated discs and striations are both characteristic of skeletal muscle.
A
false
2
Q
Histology is the study of
A
tissues
3
Q
Generally what is the result of the negative feedback process
A
to maintain homeostasis
4
Q
Which of these is not part of the dorsal cavity
A
. thoracic cavity
5
Q
Found lining the digestive and respiratory tracts.
A
mucous membrane
6
Q
Makes up the pleura and pericardium.
A
serous membrane
7
Q
The epithelial membrane that lines the closed ventral cavities of the body.
A
serous membrane
8
Q
The epithelial membrane that lines body cavities open to the exterior of the body
A
mucous membrane
9
Q
Consists of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
A
cutaneous membrane
10
Q
Lines blood vessels and the heart.
A
endothelium
11
Q
Which tissue type would most likely function to hold the kidneys in place
A
adipose/fatty tissue
12
Q
Sudoriferous (sweat) glands are categorized as two distinct types. Which of the following are the two types of sweat glands
A
eccrine and apocrine
13
Q
Which one of the following systems responds fastest to environmental stimuli
A
nervous
14
Q
The genetic information encoded in DNA is by the regular alternation of sugar and phosphate molecules
A
false
15
Q
Blood vessels keep clots from sticking as long as their ________ is intact and healthy
A
endothelium
16
Q
The main component of the cytosol is
A
water
17
Q
The dorsal body cavity is the site of which of the following
A
brain
18
Q
The dermis contains blood vessels and nerve fibres whereas the epidermis does not.
A
true
19
Q
Eyebrow hairs are nearly always shorter than hairs on your head because
A
A. eyebrow follicles are only active for a few months
20
Q
Select the correct statement regarding tissue repair
A
Inflammation causes capillaries to dilate and become permeable.
21
Q
Responsiveness or irritability is the ability to sense changes in the environment and then respond to them
A
true
22
Q
What tissue has lacunae, calcium salts and blood vessels
A
bone (osseous tissue)
23
Q
The layer that contains the mitotic viable cells of the epidermis
A
Stratum basale
24
Q
The layer of the epidermis where the cells are considered protective but non-viable
A
stratum corneum
25
The layer of the epidermis that is several layers thick and contains pre-keratin
stratum spinosum
26
The layer of the epidermis that contains one to five layers of flattened cells and deteriorating organelles.
stratum granulosum
27
Mitochondria
contain some of the DNA and RNA code necessary for their own function
28
A smooth muscle cell has a central nucleus but lacks striations.
true
29
Nervous tissue consists mainly of neurons and collagen fibres.
false
30
The basic difference between dense irregular and dense regular connective tissues is in the amount of elastic fibres and adipose cells present.
false
31
Which statement correctly explains why hair appears the way it does?
Kinky hair has flat, ribbonlike hair shafts.
32
A structure that is composed of two or more tissue types that work together to perform specific functions for the body is a / an __
organ
33
Elastic cartilage tissue is found in the walls of the large arteries that leave the heart.
true
34
Which of the following is a principle of the fluid mosaic model of cell membrane structure?
. Phospholipids form a bilayer that is largely impermeable to water-soluble molecules.
35
The study of large body structures, visible to the naked eye, such as the heart is called ________ anatomy.
gross
36
The body cavities that protect the nervous system are located in the ________ cavity.
dorsal
37
The right hypochondriac region contains the majority of the stomach.
false
38
Which of the following is true about epithelia?
Endothelium provides a slick surface lining all hollow cardiovascular organs
39
Select the most correct statement.
Select one:
A. The immune system is closely associated with the lymphatic system.
B. Organ systems can be composed of cells or tissues, but not both.
C. Organ systems operate independently of each other to maintain life.
D. The endocrine system is not a true structural organ system
The immune system is closely associated with the lymphatic system
40
Which of the following is NOT a step in tissue repair?
formation of new stem cells
41
A major function of serous membranes is to decrease friction.
true
42
The skin cancer most likely to metastasize is cancer of the melanocytes.
true
43
The epidermis consists of five layers of cells, each layer with a distinct role to play in the health, well-being and functioning of the skin. Which of the following layers is responsible for cell division and replacement?
stratum basale
44
The sebaceous glands are simple alveolar glands that secrete a substance known as sebum. The secretion of sebum is stimulated
by hormones, especially androgens
45
Apocrine glands, which begin to function at puberty under hormonal influence, seem to play little role in thermoregulation. Where would these glands be found in the human body?
in the axillary and anogenital area
46
Positive feedback mechanisms tend to enhance the original stimulus so that the response is accelerated.
true
47
An obstruction in the superior vena cava would decrease the flow of blood from the head and neck to the heart.
true
48
Select the correct statement about the structure of the heart wall.
Select one:
A. The fibrous cardiac skeleton forms the bulk of the heart.
B. Connective tissue in the heart wall aids in the conduction of the action potential.
C. The heart chambers are lined by the endomysium.
D. The myocardium is the layer of the heart that actually contracts.
The myocardium is the layer of the heart that actually contracts.
49
Arterial pressure in the pulmonary circulation is much higher than in the systemic circulation because of its proximity to the heart.
false
50
The pulse pressure is _
. systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure
51
Which of the following blood pressure readings would be indicative of hypertension?
C. 170/96
52
Select the correct statement about the heart valves.
Select one:
A. The mitral (bicuspid) valve separates the right atrium from the right ventricle.
B. Aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves control the flow of blood into the heart.
C. The atrioventricular (AV) valves prevent backflow of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction.
D. The tricuspid valve divides the left atrium from the left ventricle.
C. The atrioventricular (AV) valves prevent backflow of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction.
53
There are more efferent lymphatic vessels leaving a lymph node than there are afferent vessels entering a lymph node.
false
54
In the spleen, red pulp is involved in the immune functions and white pulp is involved in disposing of worn-out RBCs.
false
55
Which cells are the main "warriors" of the immune system?
lymphocytes
56
Norepinephrine acts on the heart by _____
causing threshold to be reached more quickly
57
```
Which of the following factors does NOT influence heart rate?
Select one:
A. skin color
B. body temperature
C. age
D. gender
```
A. skin color
58
A person with type B blood could receive blood from a person with either type B or type O blood.
true
59
Lymphatic capillaries are permeable to proteins.
true
60
Which of the statements below is an incorrect or false statement?
Select one:
A. Blood typing for the Kell, Lewis, and Duffy factors is always done before a blood transfusion.
B. Unique to the ABO blood group is the presence in the plasma of preformed antibodies.
C. When a transfusion reaction occurs, the oxygen-carrying capacity of the transfused blood cells is disrupted and the clumping of RBCs in small vessels hinders blood flow to tissues beyond those points.
D. Transfusion of incompatible blood can be fatal.
Blood typing for the Kell, Lewis, and Duffy factors is always done before a blood transfusion.
61
Which statement best describes arteries?
Select one:
A. All contain valves to prevent the backflow of blood.
B. All carry blood away from the heart.
C. Only large arteries are lined with endothelium.
D. All carry oxygenated blood to the heart.
All carry blood away from the heart.
62
Granulocytes called neutrophils are phagocytic and are the most numerous of all white blood cell types.
true
63
An electrocardiogram (ECG) provides direct information about valve function.
false
64
```
Which of the choices below is the parent cell for all formed elements of blood?
Select one:
A. hemocytoblast
B. megakaryocyte
C. polymorphonuclear cell
D. normoblast
```
. hemocytoblast
65
```
Which of the following is NOT part of the intrinsic conduction system of the heart?
Select one:
A. sinoatrial (SA) node
B. atrioventricular (AV) valve
C. bundle branches
D. atrioventricular (AV) node
```
atrioventricular (AV) valve
66
Because lymph vessels are very low-pressure conduits, movements of adjacent tissues are important in propelling lymph through the lymphatics.
true
67
```
Synovial fluid is present in joint cavities of freely movable joints. Which of the following statements is true about this fluid?
Select one:
A. It contains enzymes only.
B. It contains hyaluronic acid.
C. It contains lactic acid.
D. It contains hydrochloric acid.
```
. It contains hyaluronic acid.
68
Muscle power depends mostly on the total number of muscle fibers (cells) in the muscle.
true
69
```
The structure of bone tissue suits the function. Which of the following bone tissues is adapted to support weight and withstand torsion stresses?
Select one:
A. trabecular bone
B. spongy bone
C. compact bone
D. irregular bone
```
compact bone
70
In the classification of joints, which of the following is true?
Select one:
A. All synovial joints are freely movable.
B. Synarthrotic joints are slightly movable.
C. Immovable joints are called amphiarthroses.
D. In cartilaginous joints, a joint cavity is present.
. All synovial joints are freely movable.
71
A motor neuron and all the muscle cells that it stimulates are referred to as a motor end plate.
false
72
Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system?
Select one:
A. communication
B. storage of minerals
C. production of blood cells (hematopoiesis)
D. support
communication
73
The diaphragm flattens and moves inferiorly during inspiration
true
74
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events for muscle contractions?
Select one:
A. muscle cell action potential, neurotransmitter release, ATP-driven power stroke, calcium ion release from SR, sliding of myofilaments
B. motor neuron action potential, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments
C. neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, motor neuron action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, sliding of myofilaments, ATP-driven power stroke
D. neurotransmitter release, motor neuron action potential, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke
motor neuron action potential, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments
75
```
Spongy bone contains ________.
Select one:
A. osteons
B. osseous lamellae
C. trabeculae
D. lamellar bone
```
trabeculae
76
```
What is the functional unit of a skeletal muscle called?
Select one:
A. a myofibril
B. a myofilament
C. a sarcomere
D. the sarcoplasmic reticulum
```
sarcomere
77
The sliding filament model of contraction involves ________.
Select one:
A. actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping
B. the Z discs sliding over the myofilaments
C. actin and myosin lengthening in order to slide past each other
D. the shortening of thick filaments so that thin filaments slide past
. actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping
78
```
Which of these is NOT a way of classifying muscles?
Select one:
A. the type of muscle fibers
B. muscle shape
C. the type of action they cause
D. muscle location
```
the type of muscle fibers
79
A resting potential is caused by a difference in the concentration of certain ions inside and outside the cell.
true
80
The periosteum is a tissue that serves only to protect the bone because it is not supplied with nerves or blood vessels.
false
81
Peristalsis is characteristic of smooth muscle.
| Select one:
true
82
```
The contractile units of skeletal muscles are ________.
Select one:
A. T tubules
B. myofibrils
C. microtubules
D. mitochondria
```
myofibrils
83
Rigor mortis occurs because ________.
Select one:
A. proteins are beginning to break down, thus preventing a flow of calcium ions
B. no ATP is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules
C. the cells are dead
D. sodium ions leak into the muscle causing continued contractions
no ATP is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules
84
There are seven cervical, twelve thoracic, and five lumbar vertebrae
true
85
```
The pelvic girdle does not include the ________.
Select one:
A. femur
B. ilium
C. ischium
D. pubis
```
femur
86
The hyoid bone is unique because it ________.
Select one:
A. is the only bone of the body that does not articulate with any other bone
B. is the only irregular bone found in the neck
C. is the only bone formed by the fusion of right and left halves
D. is composed of three bones joined together
is the only bone of the body that does not articulate with any other bone
87
Cells that respond to peptide hormones usually do so through a sequence of biochemical reactions involving receptor and kinase activation. In order for cells to respond, it is necessary for first and second messengers to communicate. This is possible because ________.
Select one:
A. G protein acts as the link between first and second messengers
B. hormones alter cellular operations through direct stimulation of a gene
C. peptide hormones are converted by cell membranes enzymes into second messengers
D. the hormone receptor complex moves into the cytoplasm as a unit
G protein acts as the link between first and second messengers
88
```
The structures that receive the ovulated oocyte, providing a site for fertilisation, are called the ________.
Select one:
A. infundibula
B. Graafian follicles
C. fimbriae
D. uterine tubes
```
uterine tubes
89
Oxytocin is a strong stimulant of uterine contractions.
true
90
The hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis ________.
Select one:
A. involves the release of testosterone from the anterior pituitary
B. involves posterior pituitary release of two regulating hormones
C. involves positive feedback control of spermatogenesis
D. involves FSH and LH release from the anterior pituitary
involves FSH and LH release from the anterior pituitary (i think)
91
Which male hormone provides negative feedback for the secretion of FSH?
inhibin
92
The soft mucosal lining of the uterus is the endometrium
true
93
Why doesn't semen enter the urinary bladder during ejaculation?
The smooth muscle sphincter at the base of the urinary bladder closes
94
The second-messenger mechanism of hormone action operates by ___
binding to specific receptors and employing the services of G proteins and cAMP
95
Glucagon ________.
Select one:
A. stimulates the absorption of glucose from the blood
B. triggers the conversion of glucose into glycogen
C. is considered a hypoglycemic hormone
D. triggers gluconeogenesis
is considered a hypoglycemic hormone
96
All amino acid based hormones are lipid soluble and can cross the plasma membrane.
Select one:
false
97
How do the testes respond to exposure to excessive body warmth?
Select one:
A. They move close to the pelvic cavity.
B. Excessive warmth is actually beneficial in that it speeds up the maturation of sperm.
C. They move away from the pelvic cavity.
D. Excessive warmth has no effect on the testicles because of their location in the scrotum.
They move away from the pelvic cavity.
98
Fertilisation generally occurs in the
. uterine tubes
99
The parathyroid glands respond to which type of stimulus?
. humoral
100
Glucocorticoids are steroid hormones that usually enhance the immune responses when an individual is suffering from severe stress.
false
101
Spermatogenesis ________.
Select one:
A. involves a two-part process called mitosis I and mitosis II
B. results in the formation of diploid cells
C. involves a kind of cell division limited to the gametes
D. is the process of releasing mature sperm cells into the lumen of the seminiferous tubule
is the process of releasing mature sperm cells into the lumen of the seminiferous tubule. ( not sure)
102
The number of receptors for a particular hormone can change due to consistently high or low levels of that hormone, which is referred to as up- and down-regulation.
true
103
Thyroid hormone production requires the presence of both iodine and calcium.
false
104
in women, ovulation occurs near the end of the ovarian cycle.
false
105
ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to release corticosteroid hormones.
true
106
The ability of a specific tissue or organ to respond to the presence of a hormone is dependent on ________.
Select one:
A. nothing—all hormones of the human body are able to stimulate any and all cell types because hormones are powerful and nonspecific
B. the membrane potential of the cells of the target organ
C. the location of the tissue or organ with respect to the circulatory path
D. the presence of the appropriate receptors on the cells of the target tissue or organ
the presence of the appropriate receptors on the cells of the target tissue or organ
107
Which of the following is a correct statement about uterine tubes?
Select one:
A. The mesometrium supports the uterine tubes along their entire length.
B. The ampulla is the narrow constricted region.
C. The infundibulum is the funnel-shaped region near the ovary.
D. The isthmus is the normal site of fertilisation.
The infundibulum is the funnel-shaped region near the ovary.
108
Which of the following statements about spermatogenesis is NOT true?
Select one:
A. The secondary spermatocytes each form two spermatids.
B. The spermatogonium forms the primary spermatocyte.
C. Each spermatid forms two sperm.
D. The primary spermatocyte forms two secondary spermatocytes.
Each spermatid forms two sperm.
109
A human ovum or sperm contains 23 pairs of chromosomes.
false
110
When it is cold, the scrotum is pulled away from the body.
false
111
It is necessary for the testes to be kept below body temperature for abundant, viable sperm formation.
true
112
The cells that produce testosterone in the testis are called ___
. interstitial endocrine cells
113
Select the correct statement about testosterone control.
Select one:
A. GnRH from the hypothalamus causes FSH and LH release from the anterior pituitary.
B. The pineal gland is believed to be the gland that exerts the most influence in testosterone control.
C. FSH stimulates testicular production of testosterone.
D. Inhibin and testosterone exert positive feedback on the hypothalamus and pituitary.
GnRH from the hypothalamus causes FSH and LH release from the anterior pituitary.
114
Normally menstruation occurs when ________.
Select one:
A. blood concentrations of oestrogen and progesterone increase
B. blood concentrations of oestrogen and progesterone decrease
C. the corpus luteum secretes oestrogen
D. blood concentrations of FSH decrease
blood concentrations of oestrogen and progesterone decrease
115
The size and shape of a pea; produces hormones that stimulate other endocrine glands.
pituitary gland (hypophysis)
116
Primary regulators of blood calcium concentrations
parathyroid glands
117
All anterior pituitary hormones EXCEPT growth hormone affect their target cells via a cyclic AMP second-messenger system.
true
118
Oxytocin ________.
Select one:
A. is an anterior pituitary secretion
B. controls milk production
C. release is an example of a positive feedback control mechanism
D. exerts its most important effects during menstruation
release is an example of a positive feedback control mechanism
119
Steroid hormones exert their action by ________.
Select one:
A. entering the nucleus of a cell and initiating or altering the expression of a gene
B. binding cell receptors and initiating cAMP activity
C. activating the hypothalamic release of regulating hormones
D. entering the cell and activating mitochondrial DNA
entering the nucleus of a cell and initiating or altering the expression of a gene
120
Which of the following hormones controls the release of anterior pituitary gonadotropins?
Select one:
GnRH
121
The hormone that raises blood glucose concentrations is insulin.
false
122
Direct gene activation typically involves a second-messenger system.
false
123
During the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle, ________ reaches its highest concentration.
progesterone
124
Saltatory conduction is made possible by what?
Select one:
a. large nerve fibres
b. diphasic impulses
c. erratic transmission of nerve impulses
d. the myelin sheath
the myelin sheath
125
Schwann cells are functionally similar to what other type of cell?
```
Select one:
A. Astrocytes
B. Ependymal cells
C. Microglia
D. Oligodendrocytes
```
Oligodendrocytes
126
Which of the following gives the best explanation of how the strength of a stimulus is transmitted to the central nervous system from sensory nerves?
Select one:
A. Action potential frequency is increased as stimulus' strength increases.
B. An action potential will increase in amplitude as stimulus's strength increases.
C. More than one type of receptor will respond to larger stimulus.
D. Action potentials as well as graded potentials are sent to the central nervous system when stimulus strength increases.
A. Action potential frequency is increased as stimulus' strength increases.
127
The limbic system acts as our emotional, or affective (feelings), brain.
true
128
Autonomic ganglia are sites of synapse and information transmission from preganglionic to postganglionic neurons.
Select one:
true
129
Increased temperature results in decreased O2 unloading from hemoglobin.
false
130
Bipolar neurons are:
```
Select one:
A. Motor neurons
B. Also called neuroglial cells
C. Found in ganglia
D. Found in the special sense organs (such as the retina of the eye)
```
Found in the special sense organs (such as the retina of the eye)
131
If someone spills very hot coffee (90+ 0C) on their skin, they will very likely experience a lot of pain. Which of the following receptor types is causing this sensation?
. nociceptors
132
Which fissure separates the cerebral hemispheres?
longitudinal fissure
133
Which of these is NOT a location where white matter is found?
Select one:
a. outer portion of the spinal cord
b. cerebral cortex
c. corticospinal tracts
d. corpus callosum
cerebral cortex
134
What groove separates the frontal lobe from the parietal lobe?
```
Select one:
A. longitudinal fissure
B. lateral fissure
C. parieto-occipital sulcus
D. central sulcus
```
central sulcus
135
The action potential is caused by permeability changes in the plasma membrane.
Select one:
true
136
Dorsal and ventral rami are similar in that they both contain sensory and motor fibers.
true
137
Tidal volume is air ________.
Select one:
A. forcibly expelled after normal expiration
B. exchanged during normal breathing
C. remaining in the lungs after forced expiration
D. inhaled after normal inspiration
exchanged during normal breathing
138
What does the arbor vitae refer to?
```
Select one:
A. cerebellar gray matter
B. nodes of the spinal cord
C. cerebellar white matter
D. cerebral white matter
```
cerebellar white matter
139
Which of the following would you NOT find in normal cerebrospinal fluid?
```
Select one:
A. red blood cells
B. protein
C. potassium
D. glucose
```
red blood cells
140
What does the brain stem consist of?
```
Select one:
A. midbrain only
B. midbrain, medulla, and pons
C. cerebrum, pons, midbrain, and medulla
D. pons, medulla, cerebellum, and midbrain
```
midbrain, medulla, and pons
141
Autonomic ganglia are motor ganglia, containing the cell bodies of motor neurons.
Select one:
true
142
Autonomic ganglia are motor ganglia, containing the cell bodies of motor neurons.
Select one:
true
143
Intrapulmonary pressure is the ________.
Select one:
A. negative pressure in the intrapleural space
B. difference between atmospheric pressure and respiratory pressure
C. pressure within the alveoli of the lungs
D. pressure within the pleural cavity
C. pressure within the alveoli of the lungs
144
The large structure that interconnects the right and left hemispheres of the brain is called what?
```
Select one:
A. longitudinal fissure
B. corpus callosum
C. internal capsule
D. arbor vitae
```
corpus callosum
145
Why are dermatome maps useful to clinicians?
Select one:
A. they can help pinpoint the location of spinal injury
B. they show doctors how to avoid striking spinal nerves during surgery
C. they show the routes of motor nerves
D. they outline the location of the numerous nerve plexus
they can help pinpoint the location of spinal injury
146
Why are dermatome maps useful to clinicians?
Select one:
A. they can help pinpoint the location of spinal injury
B. they show doctors how to avoid striking spinal nerves during surgery
C. they show the routes of motor nerves
D. they outline the location of the numerous nerve plexus
they can help pinpoint the location of spinal injury
147
Which of the following is mismatched?
Select one:
a. increase in saliva; sympathetic
b. pupil dilation; sympathetic
c. bronchiole dilation in lungs; sympathetic
d. gallbladder contracts to expel bile; parasympathetic
increase in saliva; sympathetic
148
Most of the ascending and descending pathways to and from the brain cross over (decussate) from one side of the body to the other.
true
149
The blood brain barrier is the protective mechanism and selective barrier that helps control the exchange of molecules in and out of the brain.
true
150
Which of the following provides overall integration of the ANS and is the top level of ANS control?
Select one:
a. medulla
b. reticular formation
c. hypothalamus
d. midbrain
hypothalamus
151
```
The lung volume that represents the total volume of exchangeable air is the ________.
Select one:
A. vital capacity
B. tidal volume
C. inspiratory capacity
D. expiratory reserve volume
```
vital capacity
152
```
The lung volume that represents the total volume of exchangeable air is the ________.
Select one:
A. vital capacity
B. tidal volume
C. inspiratory capacity
D. expiratory reserve volume
```
vital capacity
153
Sorting of sensory information and then relaying it to the appropriate cerebral sensory area occurs in the diencephalon, and specifically within the hypothalamus.
false
154
Cell bodies of somatic motor neurons are located in the ventral (anterior) horn of the spinal cord.
true
155
Immediately after an action potential has peaked, which of the following channels will open?
```
Select one:
A. Voltage gated potassium channels
B. Voltage gated calcium channels
C. Chemically gated chloride channels
D. Voltage gated sodium channels
```
Voltage gated potassium channels
156
What type of glial cells are an important part of the choroid plexuses in the ventricles of the brain?
```
Select one:
A. microglia
B. schwann cells
C. ependymal cells
D. astrocytes
```
ependymal cells
157
During depolarisation, the inside of the neuron's membrane becomes less negative.
true
158
Unipolar neurons have dendrites and an axon that are continuous, with the cell body located off to one side.
Select one:
true
159
What does the central nervous system use to determine the strength of a stimulus?
```
Select one:
A. Size of action potentials
B. Origin of the stimulus
C. Frequency of action potentials
D. Type of stimulus receptor
```
c
160
The second cranial nerve forms a chiasma at the base of the brain for partial crossover of neural fibers.
true
161
If the ventral root of a spinal nerve were cut, what would be the result in the tissue or region that nerve supplies?
Select one:
a. loss of neither sensation nor movement but only of autonomic control
b. a complete loss of sensation and movement
c. a complete loss of voluntary movement
d. a complete loss of sensation
a complete loss of voluntary movement
162
Vital life centres for the control of heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure are located where?
```
Select one:
A. brainstem
B. cerebrum
C. limbic system
D. thalamus
```
a
163
Vital life centres for the control of heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure are located where?
```
Select one:
A. brainstem
B. cerebrum
C. limbic system
D. thalamus
```
a
164
The relatively unchanging pressure in a filling stomach is due to the contraction of the stomach oblique muscle layer.
Select one:
True
False
false
165
```
Bile salts break up the fat globule into smaller fat droplets. This role of bile salts is best described as ________.
Select one:
A. lipid emulsification
B. lipid absorption
C. lipid ingestion
D. lipid digestion
```
A
166
The fatty tissue surrounding the kidneys is important because it ________.
Select one:
A. is necessary as a barrier between the adrenal glands and kidneys
B. stabilises the position of the kidneys by holding them in their normal position
C. produces vitamin D and other chemicals needed by the kidney
D. ensures adequate energy for the adrenal glands to operate efficiently
B
167
Excretion of dilute urine requires ________.
Select one:
A. the presence of ADH
B. impermeability of the collecting tubule to water
C. transport of sodium and chloride ions out of the descending nephron loop
D. relative permeability of the distal tubule to water
B
168
```
The molecule that serves as the major source of readily available fuel for neurons and blood cells is ________.
Select one:
A. glucose
B. acetyl CoA
C. fat
D. protein
```
A
169
The thin segment of the nephron loop's descending limb ________.
Select one:
A. is easily broken and replaced often
B. aids in the passive excretion of nitrogenous waste
C. helps to pack a greater number of nephron loops into a smaller space
D. aids in the passive movement of water out of the tubule
D
170
The major stimulus for production of intestinal fluid is distention or irritation of the intestinal mucosa by hypertonic or acidic chyme.
TRUE
171
From the oesophagus to the anal canal, the walls of every organ of the alimentary canal are made up of the same four basic layers. Arrange them in order from the lumen.
Select one:
A. muscularis externa, serosa, mucosa and submucosa
B. submucosa, serosa, muscularis externa and mucosa
C. serosa, mucosa, submucosa and muscularis externa
D. mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa and serosa
D
172
Obligatory water reabsorption involves the movement of water along an osmotic gradient.
TRUE
173
```
The capillaries that nourish the epithelium and absorb digested nutrients lie in the ________.
Select one:
A. submucosa
B. serosa
C. lamina propria
D. adventitia
```
C
174
```
Chemical digestion reduces large complex molecules to simpler compounds by the process of ________.
Select one:
A. mastication
B. catabolism
C. anabolism
D. fermentation
```
CATABOLISM
175
Aldosterone is a hormone that causes the renal tubules to reclaim sodium ions from the filtrate.
TRUE
176
Tubular secretion is effective in controlling blood pH.
TRUE
177
The major means of propulsion through the alimentary canal is peristalsis.
TRUE
178
The presence of protein in the urine indicates which of the following?
Select one:
A. damage to the filtration membrane
B. too much protein in the diet
C. damage to the renal tubules
D. high levels of transcription and translation by the bodies tissues
A
179
Fluid in the spaces between cells.
INTERSTITIAL
180
Do not dissociate in solution.
NON ELECTROLYTES
181
Do not dissociate in solution.
NON ELECTROLYTES
182
The main fluid compartment outside the cells.
EXTRACELLULAR
183
Processes that break down complex molecules into simpler ones are anabolic.
FALSE
184
The function of angiotensin II is to ________.
Select one:
A. decrease the production of aldosterone
B. decrease water absorption
C. constrict arterioles and increase blood pressure
D. decrease arterial blood pressure
C
185
The peritoneum is the most extensive serous membrane in the body.
TRUE
186
Which of the following is true about epithelia?
A) Simple epithelia are commonly found in areas of high
abrasion.
B) Stratified epithelia are associated with filtration.
C) Endothelium provides a slick surface lining all hollow
cardiovascular organs.
D) Pseudostratified epithelia are commonly keratinized.
Endothelium provides a slick surface lining all hollow
| cardiovascular organs.
187
The integumentary system is protected by the action of cells
that arise from bone marrow and migrate to the epidermis.
Which of the following cells serve this function?
A) cells found in the stratum spinosum
B) macrophages called epidermal dendritic cells
C) keratinocytes, because they are so versatile
D) tactile cells
macrophages called epidermal dendritic cells
188
A needle would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm in
which order?
A) basale, spinosum, granulosum, corneum
B) basale, spinosum, granulosum, lucidum, corneum
C) granulosum, basale, spinosum, corneum
D) corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale
corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale
189
```
Which of the following is not a function of the lymphatic
system?
A) draining excess interstitial fluid
B) carrying out immune responses
C) transporting dietary fats
D) transporting respiratory gases
```
transporting respiratory gases
190
Oxytocin ________.
A) release is an example of a positive feedback control
mechanism
B) is an adenohypophyseal secretion
C) exerts its most important effects during menstruation
D) controls milk production
release is an example of a positive feedback control
| mechanism
191
The neurohypophysis or posterior lobe of the pituitary gland
is not a true endocrine gland because ________.
A) it is strictly a part of the neural system and has little or
nothing to do with hormonal release
B) embryonically it was an endocrine tissue, but in the adult
human it is no longer functional
C) it is unable to function as an endocrine tissue because it is
actually part of the neural system due to its location
D) it is only a hormone storage area that receives hormones
from the hypothalamus for release
it is only a hormone storage area that receives hormones
192
The structures that receive the ovulated oocyte, providing a
site for fertilization, are called the ________.
A) Graafian follicles
B) fallopian tubes
C) infundibula
D) fimbriae
fallopian tubes
193
All of the following can be considered male secondary sex
characteristics except the ________.
A) development of body hair
B) lowering of the voice
C) development of testes as opposed to ovaries
D) increasing mass of the skeleton
C
194
Because the lungs are filled with fluid during foetal life,
which of the following statements is true regarding
respiratory exchange?
A) Respiratory exchanges are made through the ductus
arteriosus.
B) Respiratory exchanges are not necessary.
C) Respiratory exchanges are made through the placenta.
D) Because the lungs develop later in gestation, foetuses do
not need a mechanism for respiratory exchange.
C
195
Excretion of dilute urine requires ________.
A) relative permeability of the distal tubule to water
B) impermeability of the collecting tubule to water
C) transport of sodium and chloride ions out of the
descending loop of Henle
D) the presence of ADH
B
196
```
The filtration membrane includes all except ________.
A) glomerular endothelium
B) podocytes
C) renal fascia
D) basement membrane
```
C
197
From the oesophagus to the anal canal, the walls of every
organ of the alimentary canal are made up of the same
four basic layers. Arrange them in order from the lumen.
A) muscularis externa, serosa, mucosa, and submucosa
B) serosa, mucosa, submucosa, and muscularis externa
C) submucosa, serosa, muscularis externa, and mucosa
D) mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa
D
198
Choose the incorrect statement regarding bile.
A) Bile is both an excretory product and a digestive secretion.
B) Bile functions to emulsify fats.
C) Bile functions to carry bilirubin formed from breakdown of
worn-out RBCs.
D) Bile contains enzymes for digestion.
D
199
action potential is caused by permeability changes in plasma membrane
true
200
the subarachnoid space lies between
arachnoid and pia
201
the period after intitial stimulus when a neuron is not sensitive to another stimulus is called
the absolute refractory period
202
what structure includes thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus
diencephalon
203
what type of glial cells are an important part of choroid plexuses in the ventricles of the brain
ependymal cells
204
what does the central nervous system use to determine the strength of a stimulus
frequency of action potentials
205
preparing the body for fight or flight response is the role of what part of the nervous system
sympathetic division
206
the amount of air that can be inspired above the tidal volume is called
inspiratory reserve volume
207
NOT a function of autonomic nervous system
innervation of skeletal muscle
208
relationship between gas pressure and gas volume is described by
boyle's law
209
the craniosacral division is another name for parasympathetic division
true
BIO 1203
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