What do you think is the cause?
(A 72-year-old female undergoing CABG is about to go on bypass. The patient was given a standard heparin dose, but the ACT is still low.)
There are several possibilities, including –
Heparin resistance can be due to –
If Antithrombin III deficiency was thought to be the problem, then the treatment would be –
Why give FFP?
(A 72-year-old female undergoing CABG is about to go on bypass. The patient was given a standard heparin dose, but the ACT is still low.)
If I suspected that the ACT was low due to an insufficient antithrombin III, I would administer FFP to correct this deficiency.
Antithrombin III = is a serine protease that contributes to anticoagulation by irreversibly binding to thrombin and factors X, XI, XII, and XIII.
Heparin exerts its anticoagulant effect by complexing with antithrombin III and enhancing its activity 1000 fold.
Therefore, in the presence of an antithrombin III deficiency, heparin is ineffective in producing adequate anticoagulation.
(Note to self – what about giving Antithrombin III as a treatment???)
After coming off bypass, the patient is given protamine for heparin reversal at 1:1 Ratio.
Suddenly the blood pressure drops to 61/28 mmHg and the pulmonary artery (PA) pressure increases.
What do you think might be happening?
(A 72-year-old female undergoing CABG is about to go on bypass. The patient was given a standard heparin dose, but the ACT is still low.)
Protamine-induced histamine release may lead to increased pulmonary vascular resistance and decreased systemic vascular resistance.
On the other hand, the increased pulmonary artery pressure may be the result of a type III protamine reaction.
In this case, protamine-heparin complex-induced release of thromboxane A2 in the pulmonary circuit, leads to increased pulmonary artery pressures with subsequent right heart failure.
Another possible cause of hypotension and increased PA pressure is left ventricular dysfunction.
(REVIEW Protamine-induced Reactions!)
Protamine Rxns (two past exams) 3 types:
Best initial tx of severe protamine rxn = epinephrine followed by fluids.

What steps can you take to prevent a type III protamine reaction?
(A 72-year-old female undergoing CABG is about to go on bypass. The patient was given a standard heparin dose, but the ACT is still low.)
There is NO reliable way to prevent this type of reaction, but diluting the protamine (e.g., dilute in 50-100 cc and infuse via micro drip) and administering it slowly (e.g. over at least 5-10 minutes) seems a reasonable approach.
Would you infuse protamine via pulmonary artery catheter (PAC) or inject the medicine directly in the bypass circuit?
(A 72-year-old female undergoing CABG is about to go on bypass. The patient was given a standard heparin dose, but the ACT is still low.)
I would NOT administer it directly into the PAC since it could cause pulmonary HTN, nor would I administer it directly into the bypass circuit because it may result in clot formation in the bypass machine.
In general, the route of administration, central vs. peripheral, does not seem to make a difference in the likelihood of adverse reactions.
However, there is some evidence that aspirin administered one week prior to CPB may be beneficial.