FC Compilation (Finished) Flashcards by Jae 🍀

A public health researcher wants to estimate the prevalence of obesity among elementary school children in a large city. Because there are over 200 schools, the researcher decides to randomly select 10 schools from the city’s list of schools, then include all students within those selected schools in the study. Which type of sampling method is being used?
A. Stratified random sampling
B. Simple random sampling
C. Cluster sampling
D. Systematic sampling
E.Convenience sampling

C. Cluster sampling

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A physical therapist attempts to examine the relationship between scores on a functional independence measure and another measurement whose validity is known. This type of example BEST describes:
A. face validity
B. predictive validity
C. concurrent validity
D.content validity

C. concurrent validity

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What is the diagnostic advantage of having a highly sensitive test?
A. With a highly sensitive test. a negative result will most likely rule in a diagnosis
B. With a highly sensitive test, a positive result will most likely rule in a diagnosis
C. With a highly sensitive test, a positive result will most likely rule out a diagnosis
D. With a highly sensitive test, a negative result will most likely rule out a diagnosis

D. With a highly sensitive test, a negative result will most likely rule out a diagnosis

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A comparison of the effects of exercise in water, on land, or combined on the rehabilitation outcome of patients with intra-articular anterior cruciate ligament reconstructions revealed that less joint effusion was noted after 8 weeks in the water group. An appropriate statistical test to compare the girth measurements of the three groups is:
A. Independent t-test
B. Analysis of variance
C. Chi square
D. Spearman rho

B. Analysis of variance

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A therapist wants to compare frequencies of low back pain occurring in different groups of individuals: truck drivers and computer programmers. The statistical tool to use is:
A. Normal distribution curve
B. One-way ANOVA
C. Chi-square
D. t-test

C. Chi-square

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A therapist has completed a study investigating the relationship between ratings of perceived exertion (RPE) and type of testing modality: arm ergometry versus leg ergometry. The therapist finds a correlation 0.59 with the arm testing while the correlation is 0.79 with the leg testing. Interpretation of these results is that:
A. both arm and leg ergometry are highly correlated with RPE.
B. both arm and leg ergometry are only moderately correlated with RPE.
C. leg ergometry is highly correlated with RPE while arm ergometry is only moderately correlated.
D. the common variance of both types of testing is only 22%.

C. leg ergometry is highly correlated with RPE while arm ergometry is only moderately correlated.

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Which of the following pertain/s to pharmacokinetics?
I. Aspirin and other NSAIDs inhibit cyclooxygenase enzyme to block production of prostaglandins and thromboxanes.
II. Side effects of opioid analgesics include sedation, mental slowness, euphoria, respiratory depression, orthostatic
hypotension, as well as gastrointestinal distress.
III. The patient’s age influences anesthetic requirements and distribution, with older individuals usually requiring less
anesthetic for a given procedure.
IV. Nitroglycerin is taken sublingually to treat an acute attack of angina.
A. I and II
B. III and IV
C. I, II, and III
D. IV only
E. All of these

B. III and IV

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Which of the following medications block receptors of the sinoatrial node and myocardial cells, thereby decreasing the force of
contraction of the heart as well as the heart rate?
A. Thiazide diuretics
B. Calcium channel blockers
C. Alpha-blockers
D. Beta-blockers
E. ACE-inhibitors

D. Beta-blockers

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Which of the following decrease catecholamine stimulation of the heart?
A. Calcium channel blockers
B. Diuretics
C. Beta blockers
D. ACE inhibitors
E. Alpha blockers

C. Beta blockers

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Which of the following classes of antibiotics exert their primary antibacterial effects by impairing bacterial cell membrane synthesis
and function?
A. Beta Lactam drugs
B. Aminoglycosides
C. Fluoroquinolones
D. Erythromycins

A. Beta Lactam drugs

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Which of the following is a medication for major depressive disorder?
A. Lithium
B. Gabapentin
C. Diazepam
D. Fluoxetine

D. Fluoxetine

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Which of the following types of cancer has the worst prognosis?
A. Breast cancer
B. Thyroid cancer
C. Lung cancer
D. Cervical cancer

C. Lung cancer

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Excessive production of cortisol by the adrenal glands is most likely to result in which of the following clinical features?
A. Weight loss and hyperpigmentation
B. Moon facies and truncal obesity with thin limbs
C. Buffalo hump and generalized muscle hypertrophy
D. Increased bone density and bradycardia

B. Moon facies and truncal obesity with thin limbs

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An elderly patient is being examined by the PT. The therapist notes and irregularly dark pigmented ulcer over the medial malleolus. The patient states that it is not painful. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Arterial ulcer
B. Venous ulcer
C. Diabetic ulcer
D. Arterial insufficiency

B. Venous ulcer

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A therapist is examining a patient with full-thickness burns over 20% of the trunk. The correct identification of this burn type by surface
appearance characteristics includes:
A. A dry surface with no blisters
B. Intact blisters and a moist, weeping surface if blisters are removed
C. A wet surface with broken blisters
D. Parchment-like, leathery, and dry surface

D. Parchment-like, leathery, and dry surface

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A 25-year-old female patient has sustained burns to the back of the right arm, posterior trunk, front of the left leg, anterior head and neck, and perineum. Using the Rule of Nines, calculate the total body surface area percentage that is burned?
A. 36%
B. 28%
C. 46%
D. 37%

D. 37%

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Which of the following would not cause a pressure ulcer when sitting on a wheelchair?
A. Heel
B. Elbow
C. Scapula
D. Ischium

B. Elbow

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An 80-year-old male patient reports progressive weakness and difficulty climbing stairs over the past two years. He denies any major illness or unintentional weight loss. Physical examination reveals reduced muscle bulk and grip strength, but his BMI remains stable. Laboratory results are normal. Which of the following best explains the cause of his condition?
A. Protein-energy malnutrition leading to rapid loss of both fat and muscle
B. Muscle wasting secondary to chronic inflammation and malignancy
C. Age-related decline in anabolic hormones and reduced physical activity
D. Acute disuse atrophy following immobilization due to injury

C. Age-related decline in anabolic hormones and reduced physical activity

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A 75–year–old male is admitted to the hospital with severe burns after being rescued from a house fire. The patient experiences changes in cognition within a few hours of admission. The patient is confused, disoriented, and having problems focusing their attention. You realize that the patient is probably suffering from:
A. Amnesia
B. Delirium
C. Dementia
D. Alzheimer’s

B. Delirium

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According to the DSM-5-TR, dementia is primarily classified as an impairment of which of the following?
A. Memory alone
B. Cognitive functions
C. Psychosocial functions
D. Motor coordination

B. Cognitive functions

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A 19-year-old woman is referred to a psychiatrist by her internist after she admits to him that she recurrently pulls hair from her eyebrows to the point that she has scarring and there is little or no eyebrow hair left. She states that her natural eyebrows are “bushy” and “repulsive” and that she “looks like a caveman.” A photograph of the woman before she began pulling her eyebrow hair shows a normal-looking teenager.
What is the most appropriate diagnosis?
A. Normal age-appropriate appearance concerns
B. Trichotillomania (hair-pulling disorder)
C. Body dysmorphic disorder
D. Delusional disorder, somatic type
E. Obsessive-compulsive disorder

C. Body dysmorphic disorder

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Which of the following substances, when abused, is most likely to cause symptoms mimicking obsessive-compulsive disorder?
A. Heroin
B. Cocaine
C. Alprazolam
D. Marijuana
E. Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD

B. Cocaine

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Which of the following distinguishes anorexia nervosa from bulimia nervosa?
A. Binge eating
B. Compensatory behaviors
C. Intense fear of gaining weight
D. Abnormally low body weight

D. Abnormally low body weight

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Bending of the stereocilia towards the kinocilium of the hair cells results in:
A. Release of less excitatory transmitters
B. Release of more excitatory transmitters
C. Transmission of sound
D. Muffling of sound

B. Release of more excitatory transmitters

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A 56-year-old man presents with spontaneous nystagmus that decreases with visual fixation, a mild head tilt, and a wide-based gait. He reports recent onset of vertigo that worsens with rapid head movements but is not triggered by specific positions. Hearing is intact. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo B. Unilateral vestibular hypofunction C. Meniere’s disease D. Central vestibular lesion E. Bilateral vestibular hypofunction

B. Unilateral vestibular hypofunction

Which of the following is NOT a manifestation of peripheral vertigo? A. Diplopia B. Nystagmus that has slow and fast phases C. Horizontal nystagmus D. Severe, intense vertigo

A. Diplopia

Which of the following is NOT part of the seven deadly sins of management and supervision? A. Using snap judgment in the selection of employees B. Playing everything close to the chest C. Being a leader instead of a boss D. Letting the eager beaver’s job grow like topsy while letting the goldbrick get away with substandard performance E. Failure to make assignments and instructions clear, in a courteous manner, and with enough authority to the people who are to carry them out

C. Being a leader instead of a boss

Based on Herzberg’s Theory of Motivation, which of the following is not included as a hygiene (maintenance) factor? A. Company policies and administration B. Open communications C. Salary and fringe benefits D. Achievement

D. Achievement

Republic Act 5680 mandates that the Board of PT-OT should be composed of _________. A. A Physical therapist as Chairman, 2 Physiatrists and 2 Occupational therapists B. A Physical therapist as Chairman, 1 Physiatrist and 1 Occupational therapist C. A Physiatrist as Chairman, 1 Physical therapist and 1 Occupational therapist D. A Physiatrist as Chairman, 2 Physical therapists and 2 Occupational therapists

D. A Physiatrist as Chairman, 2 Physical therapists and 2 Occupational therapists

In this lifting technique the individual establishes a wide, solid base of support with one foot positioned in front of the other. The body is slightly over the load with the knees bent in half squatting position. No bending at the waist takes place. In beginning the lift, the head moves first, followed by the straightening of the legs: A. Power lift B. Tripod lift C. Squat lift D. Diagonal lift E. Golfer’s lift

A. Power lift

The fluids outside and inside the cell is important to maintain the homeostasis. Which of the following is true about extracellular fluids and intracellular fluids? a. The intracellular fluids contain large amount of potassium, magnesium, chloride ions. The extracellular contain sodium, bicarbonate ions and phosphate ions b. The intracellular fluids contain large amount of potassium, magnesium, sodium. The extracellular contain sodium, bicarbonate ions and phosphate ions c. The intracellular fluids contain large amount of potassium, magnesium, phosphate ions. The extracellular contain sodium, bicarbonate ions and chloride ions d. NOTA

c. The intracellular fluids contain large amount of potassium, magnesium, phosphate ions. The extracellular contain sodium, bicarbonate ions and chloride ions

Which of the following describes the positive feedback? a. Most common feedback in the body b. This type of feedback triggers when some factors of the body is deficient or excessive c. Vicious cycle d. Changes that return the factor toward certain mean value

c. Vicious cycle

All of the following describe the organelles, Except a. Little organs in the cytoplasm b. Subcellular structures specialized for specific functions such as manufacturing proteins or producing ATP c. Organelles can be thought of as individual workstations within the cell, each responsible for performing specific tasks d. NOTA

d. NOTA

Simple Diffusion and facilitated diffusion share which of the following characteristics? a. Can be blocked by specific inhibitors b. Do not require ATP c. Require transport protein d. Saturation kinetics

b. Do not require ATP

Which of the following describes the diffusion? I. Diffusion through the cell membrane is divided into two subtypes, called simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion II. Simple Diffusion means that kinetic movement of molecules or ions through a membrane opening or through intermolecular spaces without any interaction with carrier proteins in the membrane III. Facilitated diffusion requires interaction of a carrier protein. IV. The carrier protein in facilitated diffusion aids passage of the molecules or ions through the membrane by binding chemically with them. a. I,II,III b. I,II,III c. I,II,III,IV d. Only I

c. I,II,III,IV

_________ migration of each set of chromosomes is complete. The chromosomes unravel to become less distinct chromatin threads. The nuclear envelope forms from the endoplasmic reticulum. The nucleoli form, and cytokinesis continues to produce two cells. a. Prophase b. Metaphase c. Anaphase d. Telophase

d. Telophase

All of the following describes about the Blood, EXCEPT: a. Type of connective tissue consisting of a liquid matrix containing cells and cell fragments b. Plasma is the liquid matrix c. The formed elements make up 45% of the total blood volume d. Blood makes up about 55% of the total weight of the body

d. Blood makes up about 55% of the total weight of the body

Erythropoietin a. Inhibits the production of red blood cells b. Production increases when blood oxygen decreases c. Production is inhibited by testosterone d. All of these are correct

b. Production increases when blood oxygen decreases

Whenever a vessel is severed or ruptured, hemostasis is achieved by several mechanisms. All of the following describes the hemostasis, EXCEPT a. Vascular constriction b. Formation of a platelet plug formation c. In this mechanism there is activation of all clotting factors d. NOTA

d. NOTA

Each muscle fiber contains several hundred to several thousands_________ a. Myofilament b. Myofibrils c. Muscle fiber d. Fascicle

b. Myofibrils

All of the following are true about the skeletal muscle fiber, EXCEPT a. A cross-bridge forms when the myosin binds to the actin b. Muscle fiber is a single cell consisting of a plasma membrane (sarcolemma), cytoplasm (sarcoplasm), several nuclei, and myofibrils c. Sarcomeres are bound by Z disks that hold actin myofilaments d. NOTA

d. NOTA

Which of the following describe the muscle fibers? a. Slow twitch fibers are small rich in myoglobin and responsible for maintaining the posture. Fast oxidative glycolytic fibers use aerobic and anaerobic cellular respiration in creating ATP. Fast Glycolytic fibers are large in diameter and resistance to fatigue is low. b. Slow twitch fibers are small rich in myoglobin and responsible for sprinting and walking. Fast oxidative glycolytic fibers use aerobic and anaerobic cellular respiration in creating ATP. Fast Glycolytic fibers are large in diameter and resistance to fatigue is low. c. Slow twitch fibers are small rich in myoglobin and responsible for maintaining the posture. Fast oxidative glycolytic fibers use aerobic and anaerobic cellular respiration in creating ATP. Fast Glycolytic fibers are large in diameter and resistance to fatigue is high. d. NOTA

a. Slow twitch fibers are small rich in myoglobin and responsible for maintaining the posture. Fast oxidative glycolytic fibers use aerobic and anaerobic cellular respiration in creating ATP. Fast Glycolytic fibers are large in diameter and resistance to fatigue is low.

The membrane becomes permeable to sodium ions, allowing tremendous numbers of positively charged ions to flow to the interior of the axon. The normal polarized state is lost. a. Resting Stage b. Depolarization stage c. Repolarization stage d. AOTA

b. Depolarization stage

Iron ions are actively absorb in the a. Large intestine b. Small intestine c. Stomach d. Pancreas

b. Small intestine

Sacral pain occurs when _________ is stimulated such as during a bowel movement or when passing a gas and relieved after each of these events a. Stomach b. Rectum c. Esophagus d. Small intestine

b. Rectum (large intestine)

Which of the following are true about Disaccharide? a. Compose of two monosaccharide unit b. Compose of two polysaccharides c. Molecules of the monosaccharides glucose and fructose combine to form a molecule of the disaccharide lactose d. Molecules of the monosaccharides glucose and galactose combine to form a molecule of the disaccharide sucrose

a. Compose of two monosaccharide unit

Stimulate the release of Aldosterone a. A II b. Renin c. Angiotensinogen d. ANP

a. A II

All of the following are true about the nephron, EXCEPT I. proximal tubular membranes are highly permeable to water II. As fluid flows down the descending loop of Henle, water is absorbed into the cortex III. The thin ascending limb is essentially impermeable to water but reabsorbs some sodium chloride IV. The thick part of the ascending loop of Henle is also virtually impermeable to water, but large amounts of sodium, chloride, potassium, and other ions are actively transported from the tubule into the medullary interstitium V. The concentration of fluid in the medullary collecting ducts also depends on ADH a. II,III,IV b. II,III c. Only IV d. Only II e. NOTA

d. Only II

Urine formation begins with a. Tubular secretion b. Tubular reabsorption c. Glomerular filtration d. AOTA

c. Glomerular filtration

Place the route of blood flow through the kidney in the correct order: I. Renal Artery, II. Segmental Artery III. Interlobar Artery IV. Interlobular Artery V. Afferent Arterioles VI. Peritubular Capillaries VII. Efferent Arterioles VIII. Arcuate Arterioles IX. Glomerular Capillaries a. I, II, III, VIII, IV, V, IX, VII, VI b. I, II, III, VIII, V, IV, IX, VII, VI c. I, II, III, VII, IV, V, IX, VIII, VI d. I, II, III, VIII, IV, VI, IX, VII, V

a. I, II, III, VIII, IV, V, IX, VII, VI Note: **ARS-IA-IA-GEP** I. Renal Artery, II. Segmental Artery III. Interlobar Artery VIII. Arcuate Arterioles IV. Interlobular Artery V. Afferent Arterioles IX. Glomerular Capillaries VII. Efferent Arterioles VI. Peritubular Capillaries

Which of the following describe the Pituitary Gland? a. Lies in the sella turcica, a bony cavity at the base of the brain, and is connected to the hypothalamus by the pituitary stalk b. Secretes two major hormones, thyroxine and triiodothyronine c. Composed of two major parts, the adrenal medulla and the adrenal cortex d. AOTA

a. Lies in the sella turcica, a bony cavity at the base of the brain, and is connected to the hypothalamus by the pituitary stalk

The Zona Fasciculata a. Secretes the glucocorticoids cortisol b. The inner zone of the cortex, secretes the adrenal androgens c. Capable of secreting significant amounts of aldosterone d. AOTA

a. Secretes the glucocorticoids cortisol

This gland contains parafollicular cells that secrete calcitonin, a hormone that contributes to regulation of plasma calcium ion concentration a. Adrenal Gland b. Parathyroid gland c. Pituitary gland d. Thyroid gland

d. Thyroid gland

Composed of two major types of tissues, the acini, which secrete digestive juices into the duodenum, and the islets of Langerhans, which secrete insulin and glucagon directly into the blood. a. Adrenal gland b. Thyroid gland c. Pancreas d. Adenohypohpysis

c. Pancreas

Excess activity of this gland causes rapid release of calcium salts from the bones, with resultant hypercalcemia in the extracellular fluid a. Parathyroid gland b. Thyroid gland c. Adrenal gland d. Anterior pituitary gland

a. Parathyroid gland

Contractions in the heart are controlled via a well-regulated electrical signaling cascade that originates in pacemaker cells in the a. Sinus Node b. Sinoatrial Node c. AV Node d. A and B

d. A and B

Which of the following describe the tricuspid valve? a. Prevents backflow of blood from the RV to the RA during ventricular systole b. Prevents backflow of blood from the RV to the RA ventricle during ventricular diastole c. Prevents backflow of blood from the RA to the RV during ventricular systole d. Prevents backflow of blood from the RA to the RV during ventricular diastole

a. Prevents backflow of blood from the RV to the RA during ventricular systole

It occurs at the beginning of ventricular systole a. S1 b. S2 c. S3 d. S4

a. S1

All of the following describes the period of rapid filling of the ventricles, Except a. The semilunar valves are closed, the AV valves are opened b. The turbulent flow of blood into the ventricles produces a third heart sound c. Continuous ventricular filling occurs during the middle one third of diastole d. The ventricles relax, but ventricular volume does not change

d. The ventricles relax, but ventricular volume does not change

During exercise, the heart rate can increase to 190 bpm, and the stroke volume can increase to 115 mL. Consequently, cardiac output is a. 20L/min b. 22L/min c. 30L/min d. 33L/min

b. 22L/min

If the cardiac output is 7.2L/min and the heart rate is 80 bpm, then the stroke volume is a. 70 ml b. 100 ml c. 90 ml d. 80 ml

c. 90 ml

All of the following are true regarding ECG, Except a. Depolarization of the atria produces the P wave b. Depolarization of the ventricles produces the QRS complexes c. Repolarization of the atria occurs during QRS complexes d. Repolarization of the ventricles produces the T wave e. NOTA

e. NOTA

All of the following are Modifiable Risk Factors for CAD, EXCEPT a. Tobacco Smoking b. Response to stress c. Age d. Cholesterol

c. Age

Bluish discoloration of the skin and nailbeds of fingers and toes along with palms. This term is called_____. a. Liver disease b. Cyanosis c. Hypothyroidism carotenemia d. Hypothyroidism

b. Cyanosis

A patient with left sided CHF II, is referred for physical therapy. During exercises, the patient can be expected to exhibit______________. a. Anorexia, nausea with abdominal pain and distention b. Dyspnea with fatigue and muscular weakness c. Severe, uncomfortable chest pain with shortness of breath d. Weight gain with dependent edema

b. Dyspnea with fatigue and muscular weakness

Phase 1 Level 1, except a. Evaluation and patient education b. Arms supported for every meal c. Bed exercises d. 1–1.5 mets e. NOTA

e. NOTA

All of the following describes the heart EXCEPT a. A mass of tissue that extends from the sternum to the vertebral column between the two lungs b. Its more pointed apex is directed toward the left hip c. It is bordered inferiorly by the stomach d. Posteriorly by the vertebral column and ribs e. Laterally by the pleural cavity (which contains the lungs)

c. It is bordered inferiorly by the stomach

Patient B (without risk factors) is 70yo. The computed training heart rate (bpm), using Age-adjusted predicted maximum heart rate formula would be__________ a. 90-112 b. 90 c. 150 d. 150-290

a. 90-112

The Aorta leaves the heart via the______ a. Right Auricle b. Left Ventricle c. Right Ventricle d. Left Auricle

c. Right Ventricle

The Conducting Portion structures are well adapted for the movement, cleaning, warming, and humidification of air. All of the following are part of the conducting zone except: a. Terminal bronchioles b. Bronchioles c. Larynx d. Alveolar sac

d. Alveolar sac

What fissure/s can be found in the right lung? a. Horizontal Fissure b. Oblique Fissure c. Both a and b d. NOTA

c. Both a and b

A part of the respiratory center in the pons that continually sends inhibitory nerve impulses to the inspiratory area, limiting inhalation and facilitating exhalation a. Pneumotaxic Area b. Apneustic Area c. Both a and b d. None of the above

a. Pneumotaxic Area

Auscultation site for bronchial (breath sound) a. Trachea b. Over manubrium, between the clavicles or between the scapulae c. Over large airways near sternum and between the scapulae d. Over peripheral lung tissue

b. Over manubrium, between the clavicles or between the scapulae

All of the following describes the primary muscle of inspiration, EXCEPT I. Innervated by the phrenic nerve C3- C5) II. When a person breathes in, the central portion of this muscle descends III. The primary muscle is diaphragm V. When a person breathes in, it elevates and depress the ribs during respiration V. Innervated by the phrenic nerve ( C5- C6) a. I, II, III b. IV, V c. II, V d. II, IV, V

b. IV, V

Which of the following describes the continuous breath sounds? a. Most prominent during inspiration b. Caused by vibrations of air passing through the narrowed airways c. Present in CHF Atelectasis d. Caused by the sound of gas bubbling through secretions

b. Caused by vibrations of air passing through the narrowed airways

All of the following conditions contributes to ipsilateral shifting except a. Pneumonectomy b. Lobectomy c. Hemothorax d. NOTA

c. Hemothorax

Which of the following best describes the Diaphragmatic Breathing Exercises? a. This breathing pattern often is adopted spontaneously by patients with COPD to deal with episode of dyspnea b. This breathing pattern is for chest breathers c. This breathing pattern prevents airway collapse d. This breathing pattern is also known as the frog breathing

b. This breathing pattern is for chest breathers

Which of the following describe the Tidal Volume? I. This volume is the amount of air left in the lungs after max expiration Il. This is normal inspiration followed by a normal expiration III. Normal volume is 500 mL IV. Normal volume is 1,500mL a. I,II,III b. I,IV c. II,III d. II,IV

c. II,III

Caused by repeated damage to bronchial walls. The resultant destruction and bronchial dilation reduce bronchial wall movement so that secretions cannot be removed effectively from the lungs. a. Bronchiectasis b. Emphysema c. Asthma d. Chronic Bronchitis

a. Bronchiectasis

ph= 7.31, pC02= 50, hc03=31 — given the following values the patient has: a. Partially compensated respiratory acidosis b. Partially compensated respiratory alkalosis c. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis d. Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis

a. Partially compensated respiratory acidosis

This test is used to assess the integrity of hearing using a tuning fork. The base of the fork is placed at the midline vertex of the skull. Patient must hear the vibration equally on both ears. a. Weber b. Schwabach c. Rine d. Ticking watch

a. Weber

What is the resting position of the temporomandibular joint? a. Mouth slightly open, lips together, teeth not in contact b. Clenched teeth c. Limitation in mouth opening d. None of these

a. Mouth slightly open (ajar) , lips together, teeth not in contact

The following vital sign values are normal for an adult, except: a. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg b. Respiratory rate of 18 cpm c. Pulse rate of 69 bpm d. Temperature of 39.9 degrees Celsius

d. Temperature of 39.9 degrees Celsius

This type of end feel occurs sooner or later in the ROM than is usual, or in a joint that normally has a firm or hard end. This may feel boggy with fluid shift a. Springy b. Empty c. Hard d. Soft

d. Soft

According to Borg RPE, a scale of 9 is described as: a. Hard b. Very light c. Very hard d. Fairly hard

b. Very light

Which of the following is widely considered the MOST accurate body composition assessment? a. Hydrostatic weighing b. Eyeballing method c. Electrical impedance d. Anthropometric measurements

a. Hydrostatic weighing

All of the following are functional tests for geriatric patients, EXCEPT: a. Performance Oriented Mobility Assessment b. Get Up and Go Test c. Functional Reach Test d. Dynamic Gait Index e. None of these

e. None of these

A first-degree ligament sprain is described as ____. a. Minimal pain and swelling b. Protective bracing indicated c. Structural instability d. Pain that interferes with exercise

a. Minimal pain and swelling

Which special test is used to rule in bicipital tendinitis? a. Yergason and Speed b. Phalen’s Test c. Finkelstein Test d. Neer and Hawkins’ e. Crank Test

a. Yergason and Speed

All of the following are provocative tests performed in the cervical area, except: a. Jackson Compression Test b. Scalene Cramp Test c. Pettman’s Distraction Test d. Spurling’s Test

c. Pettman’s Distraction Test

The patient requires moderate assistance and expends 50–75% of the effort. What is the patient’s FIM level? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

b. 3

Which score is applicable when there is a slight increase in muscle tone, manifested by a catch followed by a minimal resistance throughout the remainder of the range of motion a. 1 b. 1+ c. 2 d. 2+ e. 3

b. 1+

This is a specific classification for epiphyseal plate fractures a. Salter Harris b. Garden c. Gustillo Anderson d. Le Fort

a. Salter Harris

Lifting a 20 kg weight with the back straight and knees bent constitutes how much percentage in disc pressure at L3? a. 150 b. 73 c. 169 d. 40

b. 73

This reflex is elicited by flicking the terminal phalanx of the index, middle, or ring finger. A positive sign indicates increased irritability of sensory nerves in tetany and pathology in the pyramidal tract a. Rossolimo b. Schaeffer c. Piotrowski d. Hoffman

d. Hoffman

An active medial hamstrings reflex would mean an intact ____ segments a. L5–S1 b. L4–L5 c. S2–S3 d. S1–S2

a. L5–S1

For the Chaddock’s test to rule in as positive, what response should be observed? a. Big toe extension and fanning of the toes b. Big toe extension only c. Fanning of the toes with big toe flexion d. Big toe extension and opposition of the toes

a. Big toe extension and fanning of the toes

A burning, pressure-like pain may arise from which of the following structures? a. Nerve root b. Nerve c. Sympathetic nerve d. Cranial nerve

c. Sympathetic nerve

Which grade would describe a muscle test that can perform complete range of motion against gravity with minimal resistance? a. 3 b. 3+ c. 3− d. 4

b. 3+

What is the normal range of flexion of the distal interphalangeal joints? a. 90 degrees b. 100 degrees c. 150 degrees d. 180 degrees

a. 90 degrees

This tests the structures around the PIP joint. The proximal interphalangeal joint is held in a neutral position while the DIP is flexed by the examiner. If the DIP joint does not flex, the retinacular ligaments or the PIP capsule are taut. If PIP joint is flexed and DIP is flexed easily, the retinacular ligaments are taut and the capsule is normal. a. Haines-Zancolli Test b. Bunnel Littler Test c. Sweater Finger Sign d. Froment Sign

a. Haines-Zancolli Test

This special test is performed by the examiner locating the radial pulse and applying downward traction on the test extremity with the patient’s neck hyperextended and head rotated to the opposite side. Absence or disappearance of pulse indicates thoracic outlet syndrome. a. EAST Test b. Military Brace Test c. Adson Test d. Halstead e. Allen’s Test

d. Halstead

This test is also known as the Lasegue’s Test a. Upper Limb Tension b. Prone Knee Bending Test c. Slump Test d. Straight Leg Raising Test

d. Straight Leg Raising Test **Note:** ULTT - Elvy's PKB - Nachlas/Reverse Lasegue's Slump - Sitting Dural

Wagner classification which describes partial foot or forefoot gangrene a. Grade 1 b. Grade 2 c. Grade 3 d. Grade 4

d. Grade 4

A special test for upper motor neuron lesion where it assesses patient’s balance. As the patient stands with eyes closed, the examiner notes for postural sway. A positive test indicates which of the following? a. Romberg’s Test b. Barre-Lieou Test c. Brudzinski-Kernig Test d. Marcus Gunn Pupil

a. Romberg’s Test

A PT decides to exercise a patient with fibromyalgia using aquatic therapy. The patient is moderately deconditioned from months of inactivity and has a history of a mild MI 4 years ago. Hydrostatic pressure exerted by a water can be expected to: a. Provide joint unloading and enhance ease of active movement b. Reduce effusion and assist venous return c. Increases resistance as speed of movement increases d. Increase cardiovascular demands at rest and with exercise

b. Reduce effusion and assist venous return

Buoyancy can be used as a resistance in which of the following exercise/s? a. Shoulder adduction b. Elbow flexion & extension c. Rapid flutter kick in supine d. Knee flexion & extension in upright

a. Shoulder adduction

A patient immersed in the pool up to the umbilicus effectively off-loads ___ percent of his body weight. a. 30 b. 40 c. 60 d. 50

d. 50

Which of the following statements is/are correct? I. A patient recovering from rotator cuff repair can use the buoyancy force to increase range of motion in shoulder abduction while performing the motion in neck-deep water. ii. When performing shoulder extension from a 90 degrees flexed position, the force of buoyanc! becomes a resistance as the patient moves the arm downward through water. ili. Buoyancy allows the practitioner three-dimensional access to the patient iv. As the depth of immersion increase, so does the hydrostatic pressure Resistance from viscosity is proportional to the velocity of movement through liquid a. I , ll and V are correct b. I, III, V are correct c. lI, IlI, V are correct d. I, II, III, IV are correct e. All are correct

e. All are correct

All of the following are true regarding stretching of the thoracic and lumbar spine in lumbar aquatic therapy, except: a. Patient is in supine, buoyancy supported b. PT grasps the patient's abducted arm with fixed hand, while the movement hand is at the lateral aspect of the lower extremity of the side to be stretched c. Stabilization is placed by the patient's hip, while the pulling the patient in lateral flexion d. The patient's stretch side arm is adducted to end range to facilitate stretch e. None of these

d. The patient's stretch side arm is adducted to end range to facilitate stretch

Which of these statements on water temperature during aquatic exercise is TRUE? a. heat transfer increases with velocity water retains b. heat 1000 times more than air c. differences in temperature between an immersed object and water will equilibrate with minimal change in temperature of the water d. water conducts temperature 5 times faster than air

d. water conducts temperature 5 times faster than air

As the velocity of muscle shortening increases, the force the muscle can generate decreases. On the other and, as the velocity of active muscle lengthening increases, force production in the muscle initially also increases but then levels off a. Only the second statement is true b. Only the second statement is false c. Both statements are true d. Both statements are false

c. Both statements are true

A patient fatigues easily while performing progressive resistive exercises. Which of the following exercise techniques will produce LESS fatigue? a. Oxford b. De Lorme c. Both of these d. None of these

a. Oxford

The principle that states that there will only be an increase in muscle strength if adequate resistance is given is a. Overload b. McGill c. Davies d. Action-reaction

a. Overload

Which is NOT a characteristic of isometric exercise? a. contractions should be held for at least 12 seconds to obtain adaptive changes in the muscle b. occurs when a muscle contracts without a length change c. resistance is variable and accommodating d. strengthening is developed at a point in the range, not over entire length of muscles

a. contractions should be held for at least 6-10 seconds to obtain adaptive changes in the muscle

Patient can only reach 60 degrees of passive straight leg raising. To improve the range of motion, the hold-relax technique should be applied to _____ a. adductors and hip extensors b. quadriceps and hip flexors c. abductors and hip flexors d. hamstrings and hip extensors

d. hamstrings and hip extensors

Patient can only reach 60 degrees of passive straight leg raising. To improve the range of motion, the PT decided to use resistance, then relaxes. Next, the therapist positions patient’s LE technique is being used? a. Agonist Contraction b. Hold Relax with Agonist Contraction c. Hold Relax d. Multiple Angle Isometrics

c. Hold Relax

A patient standing in a corner wall with arm bilaterally abducted and externally rotated against the wall is MOST LIKELY stretching the _____ a. Clavicular portion of pectoralis major b. Clavicular portion of pectoralis minor c. Sternal portion of pectoralis major d. Sternal portion of pectoralis minor

a. Clavicular portion of pectoralis major

Which of the following is true regarding the principles of peripheral joint mobilization at the shoulder? a. In shoulder abduction, the humerus moves superiorly and humeral head rolls inferiorly b. In shoulder abduction, the humerus moves superiorly and humeral head rolls inferiorly c. In shoulder abduction, the humeral head rolls and slides inferiorly d. In shoulder abduction, the humeral head rolls and slides superiorly

b. In shoulder abduction, the humerus moves superiorly and humeral head rolls inferiorly

A patient who had arthroscopic knee surgery 6 weeks ago currently has passive knee range of motion of 25° to 125° with pain at the end of the available range. Which of the following joint mobilization procedures is MOST appropriate for this patient? a. LARO within the ROM, moving tibia anteriorly on the femur b. SARO at the limit of the available motion and into tissue resistance moving the tibia posteriorly on the femur c. SARO at the limit of the available motion and into tissue resistance moving the tibia anteriorly on the femur d. LARO within the ROM, moving tibia posteriorly on the femur

c. SARO at the limit of the available motion and into tissue resistance moving the tibia anteriorly on the femur

A patient status post rotator cuff repair demonstrates loss of passive lateral rotation. Which of the following joint mobilizations would be appropriate to assist the patient in restoring lateral rotation? a. gliding of the humeral head posteriorly b. gliding of the humeral head anteriorly c. gliding of the humeral head inferiorly d. gliding of the humeral head superiorly

b. gliding of the humeral head anteriorly

In order to increase protraction of the clavicle, what would be the direction of your mobilization on the proximal clavicle? a. Anterior glide b. Posterior glide c. Superior glide d. Inferior glide

a. Anterior glide

In order to increase forearm pronation, what will be the direction of your mobilization? a. Dorsal glide of the proximal radius b. Volar glide of the proximal radius c. Dorsal glide of the distal radius d. Volar glide of the distal ulna

a. Dorsal glide of the proximal radius

To increase the 1st carpometacarpal flexion, what direction of mobilization of the metacarpal will you apply? a. Ulnar glide b. Volar glide c. Volar glide d. Dorsal glide

a. Ulnar glide

Volar glide to the convex scaphoid with the concave radius stabilized will increase? a. Wrist flexion b. Wrist extension c. Ulnar deviation d. Radial deviation

b. Wrist extension

To increase hip extension and external rotation, what direction of joint glide are you going to use? a. Distal glide b. Posterior glide c. Anterior glide d. Medial-lateral glide

c. Anterior glide

Knee capsular tightness has limited a patient’s ability to attain full flexion. An initial intervention a physical therapist can employ to restore joint motion should emphasize sustained mobilization in the loose packed position using: a. Posterior glide of the tibia and internal rotation of the tibia b. Anterior glide of the tibia and internal rotation of the tibia c. Posterior glide of the tibia and external rotation of the tibia d. Anterior glide of the tibia and external rotation of the tibia

a. Posterior glide of the tibia and internal rotation of the tibia

Manual glide of the distal talus posteriorly within the ankle joint mortise can be used as a technique to increase: a. Talocalcaneal supination b. Tibotalar plantarflexion motion c. Tibotalar dorsiflexion motion d. Distal tibiofibular joint extensibility

c. Tibotalar dorsiflexion motion

A patient diagnosed with right shoulder adhesive capsulitis is limited to 25 degrees of external rotation. Which mobilization techniques would be indicated with this limitation? a. lateral distraction and anterior glide b. medial distraction and posterior glide c. lateral distraction and posterior glide d. medial distraction and inferior glide

a. lateral distraction and anterior glide

Nearly 2 months ago, a patient noticed left shoulder pain after walking the dog. This pain has progressively worsened. The patient now is unable to move the left upper extremity overhead while performing ADLs. An orthopedic surgeon diagnosed the problem as adhesive capsulitis. The MOST effective direction for glenohumeral mobilization for this patient would be: a. Posteroinferior translatory glides b. Anterosuperior translatory glides c. Anteroinferior translatory glides d. Posterosuperior translatory glides

a. Posteroinferior translatory glides

Your patient is a 72-year-old man with an 8-year history of Parkinson’s disease. He demonstrates significant rigidity, decreased PROM in both upper extremities in the typical distribution, and frequent episodes of akinesia. The procedure that best deals with these problems would include: a. Quadruped position, holding using light resistance to facilitate the hold b. Resistance training and position free weights for shoulder flexors at 80% of 1 repetition maximum c. PNF rhythmic initiation with bilateral symmetrical upper extremity D2 flexion patterns d. Modified plantigrade, holding stressing upper extremity shoulder flexion

c. PNF rhythmic initiation with bilateral symmetrical upper extremity D2 flexion patterns

A stroke patient with residual left hemiparesis has good control of his left proximal muscles. He is being initially taught how to put on the left-sleeve of his polo. Which PNF pattern can be used to facilitate this movement: a. Right arm towards D1F, left arm towards D2E b. Left arm towards D1F, right arm towards D2E c. Left and right upper extremities toward D1F d. Left and right upper extremities toward D2E

a. Right arm towards D1F, left arm towards D2E

A PT instructs a patient in an UE PNF pattern by telling the patient to begin by grasping an imaginary sword positioned in a scabbard on their left hip using their right hand. This type of command would be MOST appropriate to initiate: a. D1 extension b. D2 extension c. D1 flexion d. D2 flexion

d. D2 flexion

The following may be used as facilitatory sensory stimulation technique, EXCEPT: a. Vestibular stimulation b. Inversion c. Maintained stretch d. Icing

c. Maintained stretch

The treatment plan for a patient with hemiplegia is based on the theory of reinforcing normal movement through key points of control and avoiding all reflex movement patterns and associated reactions. The approach MOST closely resembles: a. Bobath b. Kabat c. Rood d. Brunnstrom

a. Bobath

A 55-year-old patient, six months status post CVA with right hemiparesis, attends physical therapy on an outpatient basis. As the patient lies supine on the mat, the PT applies resistance to right elbow flexion. The therapist notes mass flexion of the right lower extremity as the resistance is applied. The therapist should document this as: a. Raimiste’s phenomenon b. Souque’s phenomenon c. Coordination synkinesis d. Homolateral limb synkinesis

d. Homolateral limb synkinesis

A patient with osteoporosis and no fractures complains of increased middle and lower back pain during breathing and other functional activities. The most beneficial interventions for this patient include patient education and: a. Trunk flexion and extension exercises b. Trunk flexion and rotation exercises c. Trunk extension and abdominal stabilization exercises d. Trunk lateral bending and abdominal stabilization exercises

c. Trunk extension and abdominal stabilization exercises

After surgery, a patient develops a stiff pelvis and limited pelvic/lower trunk mobility. The therapist elects to use sitting exercises on a therapy ball to correct these impairments. In order to improve active anterior pelvic tilting, the ball would have to move: a. Forward, improving the lower abdominal muscle b. Backward, improving the erector spinae muscle c. Forward, improving the erector spinae muscle d. Backward, improving the lower abdominal muscle

b. Backward, improving the erector spinae muscle

A physical therapist treats a patient with superficial partial thickness burns to the anterior surface of his lower legs. In an attempt to assist the patient to control the pain associated with the burns, the therapist rewards the patient with a lengthy rest period after successfully completing an exercise sequence. This type of pathological approach is MOST representative of: a. Distraction b. Extinction c. Classical conditioning d. Operant conditioning

d. Operant conditioning

Which of the following is true regarding the median nerve mobilization? a. Begin with the wrist in neutral position with fingers and thumb flexed b. Sustain the position for 5–30 seconds without making the symptoms worse c. Alternate between the each succeeding positions d. AOTA e. NOTA

d. AOTA

This exercise is designed to maintain or develop free gliding between FDP and FDS tendons and between the tendons and bones in the wrist, hand and fingers. The following are the positions in which the fingers move during tendon gliding exercises except: a. Straight hand b. Hook fist c. Full fist d. Table top position e. Straight fist f. NOTA

f. NOTA

Convert 150 deg F to C: a. 55.5 b. 65.5 c. 75.5 d. 85.5

b. 65.5

Specific heat for paraffin wax bath: a. 2.72 b. 2.75 c. 4.2 d. 4.5

a. 2.72

Normal temperature for hydrocollator unit a. 71 deg C b. 72 deg C c. 81 deg C d. 17 deg C

a. 71 deg C

The following are contraindications of traction, EXCEPT: a. Vascular conditions b. Patients with subacute state of degenerative joint disease c. Hypermobility d. Local and systemic disease affecting joints, ligaments, bones and muscles such as tumors and infections

b. Patients with subacute state of degenerative joint disease

A patient elevated on a tilt table to 60 degrees suddenly begins to demonstrate signs and symptoms of orthostatic hypotension. The most appropriate physical therapist action is to: a. lower the tilt table 10 degrees and monitor the patient’s vital signs b. lower the tilt table 20 degrees and monitor the patient’s vital signs c. lower the tilt table 40 degrees and monitor the patient’s vital signs d. lower the tilt table completely and monitor the patient’s vital signs

d. lower the tilt table completely and monitor the patient’s vital signs

DuBois-Reymond’s law deals with a. Rheobase b. Chronaxie c. Intensity of stimulus d. Make-break law

c. Intensity of stimulus

The current leakage for electrodes should not exceed ______ milliamperes a. 30 b. 40 c. 50 d. 60

c. 50

A patient has lateral epicondylitis and his therapist decided to address the problem with iontophoresis. The best type of current for this modality is? a. Monophasic current b. Alternating current c. Russian current d. Interferential current

a. Monophasic current

The galvanic-tetanus ratio of normal muscle is a. 10-12 to 1 b. 1 to 1 c. Applicable only to denervated muscle d. None of the above

a. 10-12 to 1

In electrical stimulation this current mode is described as a time period with a gradual rise of the current intensity which is maintained at a selected level for a given period of time followed by a gradual or abrupt decline in intensity. a. Continuous b. Ramped c. Surged d. Interrupted

c. Surged

Trauma and compromised vascular function may cause excessive amount of body fluids to accumulate in the interstitial spaces. Electrical stimulation to muscles may improve the pumping action and thus improve circulation to the area. The following parameters are used to manage edema, EXCEPT: a. Waveform: Monophasic HVPC or symmetrical or asymmetrical biphasic pulses with duration of 200–500 microseconds b. Pulse rate: greater than 60 pps to produce tetanic contraction c. Stimulus amplitude: adjusted to produce minimum tolerable contraction d. Duty cycle: 1:1

c. Stimulus amplitude: adjusted to produce minimum tolerable contraction

Electrical stimulation of spastic muscles has been proven to effectively reduce spasticity. The following are parameters to apply, EXCEPT: a. Waveform: symmetrical or asymmetrical biphasic pulses with 200–500 microseconds duration b. Stimulus amplitude: adjusted to maximum tolerable contraction c. Duty cycle: 1:2 d. Pulse rate: greater than 60 pps biphasic pulses to produce tetanic ms contraction

c. Duty cycle: 1:2

A patient is 16-year-old female student with idiopathic scoliosis. PT plans to apply bipolar or quadripolar electrodes over the overstretched and weakened muscles. He can select the following parameters, EXCEPT: a. Duration: gradually increased until patient tolerates 8 hours of stimulation b. Pulse rate: 50 pps c. Waveform: rectangular monophasic waveform with 220 microseconds output d. Stimulus amplitude: 50 to 70 mA

b. Pulse rate: 50 pps

In the reeducation and facilitation of muscles, electrical stimulation is used as a guide to improve proprioceptive and visual sense of the motions and activities being facilitated. When bipolar electrodes are placed over the large muscles or muscle groups, you select the following parameters EXCEPT: a. waveform: symmetrical or asymmetrical biphasic pulses with duration of 200–500 microseconds b. stimulus amplitude: amplitude adjusted to maximum tolerable contraction c. duty cycle: 1:1 cycle to produce rhythmical muscle contractions d. pulse rate: lesser than 60 pps biphasic pulses to produce tetanic muscle contractions

d. pulse rate: lesser than 60 pps biphasic pulses to produce tetanic muscle contractions

A client uses transcutaneous electrical neuromuscular stimulation for pain modulation. Which set of parameters best describes conventional TENS? a. 200–250 pps, short phase duration, low intensity b. 150–200 pps, long phase duration, low intensity c. 100–150 pps, short phase duration, high intensity d. 50–100 pps, short phase duration, low intensity

d. 50–100 pps, short phase duration, low intensity

A physical therapist applied MFC Burst type on the quadriceps muscle for strengthening. Which duty cycle (OFF:ON) time would create the MOST rapid onset of fatigue? a. 5:1 b. 1:1 c. 1:5 d. 2:5

c. 1:5

A therapist administers ultrasound over a client’s anterior thigh. After one minute of treatment the client reports feeling a slight burning sensation under the sound head. The therapist’s most appropriate action is to: a. Temporarily discontinue treatment and examine the amount of coupling b. Continue with treatment, while varying the parameters c. Explain to the client that what she feels is not out of the ordinary when using ultrasound d. Discontinue treatment and contact physician

a. Temporarily discontinue treatment and examine the amount of coupling

A 25-year-old woman has been referred to a physical therapist by an orthopedist because of low back pain. The therapist is performing an ultrasound at the L3 level of the posterior back when the patient suddenly informs the therapist that she is looking forward to having her third child. On further investigation, the therapist discovers that the patient is in the first trimester of pregnancy. Which of the following is the best course of action for the therapist? A. Change the settings of the ultrasound from continuous to pulsed. B. Continue with the continuous setting because first-trimester pregnancy is not a contraindication. C. Cease treatment, notify the patient’s orthopedic physician, and document the mistake. D. Send the patient to the gynecologist for an immediate sonogram

C. Cease treatment, notify the patient’s orthopedic physician, and document the mistake.

Which ultrasound treatment parameter is recommended for a stage 3 chronic dermal wound? a. 1 MHz at 1.5 watt/cm2 b. 3 MHz at .2–1 watt/cm2 c. 3 MHz at 1.5 watt/cm d. 1 MHz at .2–1 watt/cm2

d. 1 MHz at .2–1 watt/cm2

Which modality causes the greatest increase in tissue temperature? a. Infrared b. Ultrasound c. Diathermy d. Hot moist pack

c. Diathermy

The magnetron oscillator is a component of the a. Short-wave diathermy b. Ultrasound generator c. Low-frequency generator d. Microthermy

d. Microthermy

In radiation, the intensity of radiation varies inversely with the square of the distance from the source. Which law applies? a. Angulation of Rays law b. Inverse square law c. The law of Grotthus d. None

b. Inverse square law

A PT applies ultraviolet treatment to a female patient who the day after complained of peeling and itching. The dosage received was: a. Third degree erythemal dose b. First degree erythemal dose c. Minimal erythemal dose d. Suberythemal dose

b. First degree erythemal dose

Ultraviolet radiation within this range that will cause anti-rachitic effect is _______ a. 2400–3000 b. 4600–4970 c. 3000–4000 d. 3600–3900

a. 2400–3000

LASER stands for: a. Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation b. Light amplification of stimulated emission by radiation c. Light amplitude of stimulation emitted radiation d. AOTA

a. Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation

The sixth thoracic vertebra is characterized by: a. Its heart-shaped body b. Its bifid spinous process c. Its massive body d. Having the superior articular processes face medially & the inferior articular processes face laterally e. Its thick lamina

a. Its heart-shaped body

The seventh cervical vertebra is characterized by having: a. The longest spinous process b. A large foramen transvesarium c. A heart-shaped body d. A massive body e. An odontoid process

a. The longest spinous process

An eminence found between the two superciliary ridges? a. Nasion b. Inion c. Glabella d. Fontanelles

c. Glabella

Squamousal suture: a. between two parietal bones b. between parietal and occipital bones c. between parietal and frontal bones d. between parietal and temporal bones

d. between parietal and temporal bones

Congenital muscular torticollis is a musculoskeletal anomaly with the following characteristics EXCEPT: a. A surgical treatment approach is lengthening of the involved muscle b. The children referred to PT before 1 year of age have better outcomes than those referred later c. The conservative treatment approach is a stretching program to lengthen the involved muscle d. The restricted neck range of motion secondary to a spastic sternocleidomastoid

d. The restricted neck range of motion secondary to a spastic sternocleidomastoid

In which position is a person with a herniated disc in the low back usually most comfortable? a. Standing b. Lying prone with a pillow under the head c. Lying supine with support under the knees d. Sitting

c. Lying supine with support under the knees

The X-ray of an 11/F gymnast shows a “scottie dog” which represents a fracture of the pars interarticularis of the lumbar spine. This exercise should be avoided with her: a. Trunk lateral flexion b. Trunk flexion c. Trunk hyperextension d. Trunk rotation

c. Trunk hyperextension

A patient was diagnosed to have spondylolisthesis with a forward displacement of his upper lumbar vertebra by 50%. He has a: a. Grade I spondylolisthesis b. Grade II spondylolisthesis c. Grade III spondylolisthesis d. Grade IV spondylolisthesis

b. Grade II spondylolisthesis

At what age does a human have the greatest amount of fluid in the intervertebral disc? a. 1 year b. 4 years c. 7 years d. 10 years

a. 1 year

What are the signs & symptoms of a temporomandibular anterior displaced disc with reduction? a. Crepitation with loss of opening b. Clicking with opening c. No clicking with loss of opening d. TMJ tenderness & loss of opening

b. Clicking with opening

Contraction of the (R) superior oblique and (L) inferior rectus is best represented of which of the following? a. Looking at the person seated next to you b. Looking at your (L) shoulder c. Looking at your (R) shoulder d. Looking up as you ascend the stairs

b. Looking at your (L) shoulder

Which of the following are responsible for mandibular protrusion? I. Masseter II. Lateral pterygoid III. Medial pterygoid IV. Temporalis V. Digastric VI. Infrahyoid muscle a. I and III b. II and IV c. I, II and III d. I, II, III and IV e. V and VI f. All are correct

c. I, II and III

Whiplash injury from a rear-end collision would tear the: a. PLL b. ALL c. Ligamentum nuchae d. Ligamentum flavum

b. ALL

While assessing the posture of a patient, you note that the T2 spinous process in the thoracic region appears to be rotated to the left. Which bony landmark would you be using to make this approximation of the vertebral level? a. Inferior angle of the scapula b. Superior angle of the scapula c. Spine of the scapula d. Xiphoid process of the sternum

b. Superior angle of the scapula

Decrease in bone mass is commonly called: a. Myositis ossificans b. Fibromyalgia c. Myositis d. Osteoporosis

d. Osteoporosis

This condition refers to type of disc herniation, wherein the nucleus pulposus herniates posteriorly to an INCOMPLETE defect of the annulus fibrosus? a. Sequestration b. Prolapsed c. Extrusions d. Bulging e. Protrusion

b. Prolapsed

Innervated structures of the spine: a. Spinous process b. Transversospinalis c. Z-joint d. Inner of annulus e. Intertransverse ligament

c. Z-joint

A patient was referred to PT complaining of loss of cervical AROM. His x-rays showed DJD at the uncinate processes in the cervical spine. The motion that would be MOST restricted would be: a. Flexion b. Extension c. Side bending d. Rotation

c. Side bending

A muscle responsible for about 80% of the eye opening? a. Levator palpebrae superioris b. Mueller’s muscle c. Orbicularis oculi d. Corrugator supercilli

a. Levator palpebrae superioris

The curve of Idiopathic Scoliosis is almost always on the: a. Left thoracic b. Left lumbar c. Right lumbar d. Right thoracic

d. Right thoracic

A common developmental abnormality. It is a partial or complete failure of the posterior neuropore: a. Ependyma b. Neural folds c. Spina bifida d. Neural groove

c. Spina bifida

A patient diagnosed with lumbar spondylosis without discal herniation or bulging has a left L5 neural compression. The most likely structure compressing the nerve root is: a. Supraspinous ligament b. Anterior longitudinal ligament c. Ligamentum flavum d. Posterior longitudinal ligament

c. Ligamentum flavum

A forward head posture may be due to the following, EXCEPT: a. Excessive cervical lordosis b. Tight cervical extensors, upper trapezius c. Elongated cervical flexors d. Stretched posterior cervical ligaments and extensors

d. Stretched posterior cervical ligaments and extensors

Flexion-extension of the thoracic spine totals how much: a. 30 degrees b. 60 degrees c. 65 degrees d. 40 degrees

a. 30 degrees

The maxillary branch of trigeminal nerve leaves the cranium via the: a. superior orbital fissure b. inferior orbital fissure c. foramen ovale d. foramen rotundum e. foramen spinosum

d. foramen rotundum

A therapist attempts to secure a wheelchair for a patient with an incomplete SCI. The patient is a 28-year-old female who is very active and relies on a wheelchair as her primary mode of transportation. Which type of wheelchair would be the most appropriate for the patient? a. Standard wheelchair with a rigid frame b. Lightweight wheelchair with a rigid frame c. Standard wheelchair with a folding frame d. Lightweight wheelchair with a folding frame

b. Lightweight wheelchair with a rigid frame

A patient with complete C5 tetraplegia works on a forward raise for pressure relief. The patient utilizes loops that are attached to the back of the wheelchair to assist with the forward raise. Which muscles need to be particularly strong in order for the patient to be successful with the forward raise? a. Brachioradialis, brachialis b. Rhomboids, levator scapulae c. Triceps, flexor digitorum profundus d. Biceps, deltoids

d. Biceps, deltoids

A therapist recommends a wheelchair for a patient rehabilitating from a CVA with the goal of independent mobility. The left upper and lower extremities are flaccid with edema. There is normal strength on the right; however, the patient’s trunk is hypotonic. The patient is cognitively intact. The MOST appropriate wheelchair for the patient is: a. Sling seat, sling back, arm board, and elevating leg rests b. Lightweight, solid seat, solid back, arm board, and elevating leg rests c. Light weight, solid seat, solid back, arm board, and standard footrests d. Solid seat, solid back, elevating leg rests, and anti-tippers

b. Lightweight, solid seat, solid back, arm board, and elevating leg rests

A patient with a T4 SCI is being measured for a wheelchair. In determining correct seat height, the therapist can use as a measure: a. The patient’s leg length measurement plus 4 inches b. The distance from the bottom of the shoe to just under the thigh at the popliteal fossa c. Clearance between the floor and the footplate of at least 2 inches d. Clearance between the floor and the footplate of at least 4 inches

c. Clearance between the floor and the footplate of at least 2 inches

When evaluating a client for a wheelchair, a therapist determines that the client’s hip width in sitting and the measurement from the back of the buttock to the popliteal space are each 16 inches. Based on these measurements, which wheelchair sizes would best fit the client? a. Seat depth 14 inches, seat width 14 inches b. Seat depth 14 inches, seat width 16 inches c. Seat depth 18 inches, seat width 18 inches d. Seat depth 18 inches, seat width 16 inches

b. Seat depth 14 inches, seat width 16 inches

A therapist uses a manual wheelchair during a training session with a patient with C4 quadriplegia. Which wheelchair would be the most appropriate based on the patient’s level of injury? a. Manual wheelchair with sip-and-puff controls b. Manual wheelchair with handrim projections c. Manual wheelchair with friction surface handrims d. Manual wheelchair with standard handrims

a. Manual wheelchair with sip-and-puff controls

You have been asked to provide an assistive device to a 90-year-old female who lives alone and is partial-weight-bearing on the right lower extremity. Her upper-extremity strength is 3+/5. Which assistive device would you recommend? a. Lofstrand crutches b. Walker c. Large-base quad cane d. Axillary crutches

b. Walker

Which ambulation aid requires coordination? a. Walker b. Cane c. Non-axillary crutches d. Parallel bars

c. Non-axillary crutches

The following are possible means of fitting a patient for adjustable axillary crutches, EXCEPT: a. Subtract 16 inches lateral to the foot b. Place the patient supine and measure from the anterior axillary fold to the bottom of the foot and add 2 inches c. Place the patient supine and measure from the anterior axillary fold to the lateral heel and add 2 inches d. Place the patient in standing with their shoes on, with the crutches placed 16 inches lateral to the foot

d. Place the patient in standing with their shoes on, with the crutches placed 16 inches lateral to the foot

Forearm cuff of a Lofstrand crutch should be placed approximately: a. 1-1.5 inches proximal to the olecranon process b. 1-1.5 inches distal to the olecranon process c. 1-2 inches proximal to the olecranon process d. 1-2 inches distal to the olecranon process

b. 1-1.5 inches distal to the olecranon process

A patient with muscle weakness and compromised balance uses a four-point gait pattern with two canes. The therapist would like to instruct the patient to ascend and descend the stairs according to normal flow of traffic. When ascending stairs, the MOST practical method is: a. Use the handrail with the right hand and place the two canes in the left hand b. Use the handrail with the left hand and place the two canes in the right hand c. Place one cane in each hand and avoid using the handrail d. Place the two canes in the left hand and avoid using the handrai

a. Use the handrail with the right hand and place the two canes in the left hand

A patient has a complete SCI at the level of L1. His primary goal is to walk again. The therapist describes it would be MOST appropriate to recommend that this patient use: a. A RGO and walker b. A wheelchair, because ambulation is unrealistic c. Bilateral KAFOs with thoracolumbosacral extension control d. Bilateral AFOs and Lofstrand crutches

a. A RGO and walker

A patient with Parkinson’s disease demonstrates a highly stereotyped gait pattern characterized by impoverished movement. The intervention that would be LEAST appropriate to use with this patient is: a. Standing, using body weight support from a harness b. Sidestepping and cross stepping using light touch-down support of hands c. Gait training using a rolling walker d. Rhythmic stepping using a motorized treadmill

c. Gait training using a rolling walker

To prepare a patient with an incomplete T12 paraplegia for ambulation with crutches, the upper quadrant muscles that would be MOST important to strengthen include the: a. Upper trapezius, rhomboids, and levator scapulae b. Deltoid, triceps, and wrist flexors c. Middle trapezius, latissimus dorsi, and triceps d. Lower trapezius, latissimus dorsi, and triceps

d. Lower trapezius, latissimus dorsi, and triceps

A therapist measures a patient for a straight cane prior to beginning ambulation activities. Which gross measurement method would provide the BEST estimate of cane length? a. Measuring from the head of fibula straight to the floor and multiplying by two b. Measuring from the iliac crest straight to the floor c. Measuring from the greater trochanter straight to the floor d. Dividing the patient’s height by two and adding 3 inches

c. Measuring from the greater trochanter straight to the floor

You are teaching a patient how to use a cane to assist with ambulation. The cane is usually placed: a. Opposite the involved side b. On the involved side c. Only during the stance phase d. As needed

a. Opposite the involved side

A wheelchair-borne patient presents with adductor spasticity. As a therapist, you would most likely attach a/an: a. Anti-tipper b. Seat belts c. Adductor pommel d. Seat wedge

c. Adductor pommel

A patient with a SCI at the level of T1 is in the community phase of his mobility training. In order for him to navigate a standard height curb with his wheelchair, the therapist tells him to: a. Descend backward with the trunk upright and arms hooked around the push handles b. Ascend backwards with the large wheels first c. Lift the front casters and ascend in a wheelie position d. Place the front casters down first during descent

c. Lift the front casters and ascend in a wheelie position

What is the usual hanger angle? a. 20–30 degrees b. 30–50 degrees c. 60–70 degrees d. 100–110 degrees

c. 60–70 degrees

A 60-year-old wheelchair-bound patient is being discharged home from your hospital. In preparation for discharge, you visit the home and find he has 3 standard height steps going into his home, requiring a ramp to be constructed for his wheelchair. The recommended length for his ramp should be: a. 72 inches (6 feet) b. 96 inches (8 feet) c. 252 inches (21 feet) d. 240 inches (20 feet)

c. 252 inches (21 feet)

What should be the therapist’s position while assisting a CVA patient during sessions of descending stairs? a. Posterolateral and to patient’s weak side b. Anterolateral and to patient’s weak side c. Posterolateral and to patient’s strong side d. Anterolateral and to patient’s strong side

b. Anterolateral and to patient’s weak side

A therapist works on transfer training with a patient & family in preparation for discharge. The patient can occasionally complete a wheelchair to bed transfer independently, however often requires assistance to initiate the transfer. The most appropriate classification of the patient’s transfer status is: a. Contact guard assistance b. Minimal assistance c. Moderate assistance d. Maximal assistance

b. Minimal assistance

What is the appropriate assistive device for a patient provided that he/she carries 80% of his/her body weight? a. Cane b. Walker c. Axillary crutches d. Forearm crutches

a. Cane

A patient with a complete T10 paraplegia is receiving initial ambulation training. The patient has received bilateral Craig-Scott knee ankle foot orthoses and is being trained with axillary crutches. Because a reciprocal gait pattern is problematic, the best initial gait pattern to teach is: a. Four-point b. Swing-to c. Two-point d. Swing-through

b. Swing-to

When measuring for a wheelchair seat height / leg length, measure from the user’s: a. Toes to the fibular head b. Height and divide by two c. Heel to the fibular head and add 4 inches to clear the footrest d. Heel to the popliteal fold and add 2 inches to allow clearance of the footrest

d. Heel to the popliteal fold and add 2 inches to allow clearance of the footrest

A patient with a crush injury to the foot developed reflex sympathetic dystrophy. Now, two months into the RSD, the clinical presentation you would expect is: a. edema and osteoporosis with decreased sweating and nail growth b. a cool, dry extremity with the beginning of ankylosis c. causalgia with vasomotor reflex spasm resulting in warm, dry skin with increased nail growth d. pain on motion with trophic skin changes and osteoporosis

c. causalgia with vasomotor reflex spasm resulting in warm, dry skin with increased nail growth

Possible cause/s of thoracic outlet syndrome, except: a. Droopy shoulder syndrome b. Costoclavicular syndrome c. Impingement between the scalenes d. Impingement between the coracoid process and the pecs minor e. NOTA

e. NOTA

You are conducting a pre-operative training for a patient scheduled for repair of a large rotator cuff tear. Patient is a 56-year-old bank executive, and he wants to know how long before he can resume his former recreational activities such as golf and badminton. The MOST appropriate time frame is ____ weeks. a. 6–8 b. 12-14 c. 24–28 d. 36–40

c. 24–28

A 55-year-old male complains of gradual onset shoulder pain that has been worsening over the past several months. The pain is particularly noticeable when reaching overhead. He reports weakness in the shoulder, especially when lifting objects. On examination, there is weakness in external rotation and positive impingement signs. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? a. Shoulder dislocation b. Rotator cuff tear c. Frozen shoulder d. Biceps tendonitis

b. Rotator cuff tear

Which of the following is Bicipital tendonitis LEAST frequently involved? a. Anterior laxity of the humerus b. AC joint sprain c. Rotator cuff pathology d. Posterior laxity of the humerus

d. Posterior laxity of the humerus

A 30-year-old female patient presents to the emergency department after a fall from a ladder, complaining of severe right shoulder pain and an inability to lift her arm. One week from the injury, she now presents with her arm usually held in an abducted and externally rotated position. There is loss of the normal contour of the deltoid and the acromion is prominent posteriorly and laterally while the humeral head itself may well be palpable anteriorly. What positive examination finding is expected as a result of this dislocation? a. Positive drop arm test b. Positive Neer’s test c. Weak rhomboids d. Weak deltoids

d. Weak deltoids

True about de Quervain disease, except: a. Also known as Hoffmans disease b. Stenosing tenosynovitis of APL and EPB c. Pain in radial styloid process with thumb inside closed fist and ulnar deviation of the wrist d. Tested by Linburgs Test e. NOTA

d. Tested by Linburgs Test

A 40-year-old obese diabetic patient came to the clinic complaining of 6 weeks painful numbness over the lateral aspect of the right thigh. No weakness is noted. Advice may be given to help relieve the symptoms. Which is least likely to help? a. Weight loss b. Stretching exercises c. Avoidance of tight clothing d. Pain medications and creams

b. Stretching exercises

If the central slip of the EDC tendon is avulsed from its insertion into the base of the middle phalanx, the proximal interphalangeal joint becomes markedly flexed and the distal interphalangeal joint extended. This deformity is called: a. Boutonniere deformity b. Mallet finger c. Swan neck deformity d. Ulnar drift

a. Boutonniere deformity

Which of the following is true about acquired hip dislocations? a. Anterior d/l is also called dashboard injury of the hip b. Posterior hip d/l is most common c. Anterior hip d/l is most common d. Posterior d/l is caused by flexion, adduction, and ER

b. Posterior hip d/l is most common

After THR, the patient may do the following, except: a. Sleep on his/her back b. Reach down too far to pull up blankets when you lie in bed c. Place an abduction pillow between the legs d. Sit on highchair

b. Reach down too far to pull up blankets when you lie in bed

During early phase of rehabilitation of a patient post-right total hip arthroplasty, posterolateral approach, precautions for the following exercises are necessary, EXCEPT: I. Crossed-leg sitting II. Ascending stairs with the right leg leading III. Pivot on the (R) lower extremity IV. Bending the trunk forward to tie shoes a. I, II, III b. IV only c. All of these d. None of these

d. None of these

A patient 4 months post total knee replacement is referred for ROM and strengthening exercises. Which strategy would NOT be appropriate for the patient? a. active strengthening using the contract-relax technique b. exercise on a stationary bicycle against mild resistance c. joint mobility to increase joint play d. performing straight leg raising, short arc extension and knee flexion exercise using light weights

c. joint mobility to increase joint play

Most common complication of total shoulder arthroplasty: a. Infection b. Nerve damage c. Adhesive capsulitis d. Re-tearing of soft tissues

d. Re-tearing of soft tissues

Upon examination of your patient with quadriceps contusion, you note that he has deep bruising, pain, swelling, and discoloration along the injury site. His active knee ROM is recorded to be 45 degrees. You classify his injury as: a. Mild b. Moderate c. Severe d. Malingering

b. Moderate

Cause of difficulty in abduction of the shoulder after post-operation of rotator cuff: a. Infection b. Axillary Nerve damage c. Post-operative stiffness/swelling d. Inflammation e. Rotator cuff tear

c. Post-operative stiffness/swelling

Characteristics of grade 1 chondromalacia patella? a. Softening and swelling b. Fissuring c. Crab-meat appearance d. Full thickness fibrillation

a. Softening and swelling

On palpation of the foot, tenderness on both plantar and dorsal aspect of the forefoot is a common finding in: a. Osteoarthritis b. Deltoid strain c. Bursitis d. Tendonitis e. Rheumatoid arthritis

e. Rheumatoid arthritis

The following treatments are helpful for plantar fasciitis during the initial stages. Which should be done in the subacute and more chronic stages? a. stretching of the Achilles tendon and plantar fascia b. icing and deep massage c. cortisone injection d. Taping

c. cortisone injection

On palpation of the foot, tenderness localized over and just proximal to the malleolus is often found in what injury? a. Strain b. Dislocation c. Sprain d. Fracture

d. Fracture

On palpation, tenderness under the metatarsal heads is often found in what injury? a. Sprain b. Metatarsalgia c. Fracture d. Plantar fasciitis e. Achilles tendinitis

b. Metatarsalgia

True hip pain in rheumatoid involvement of the hip produces pain on the: a. Lateral aspect of the thigh b. Groin c. Acetabular area d. Medial aspect of thigh e. Posterior aspect of the thigh

b. Groin

MC subluxed vertebral level in RA: a. C1-C2 b. C2-C3 c. C4-C5 d. C5-C6

a. C1-C2

Rheumatoid arthritis stage 3, except: a. Extensive muscle atrophy b. Nodules c. Bony ankylosis d. Tenosynovitis

c. Bony ankylosis

Rheumatoid arthritis: Limited in ability to perform usual self-care, vocational, and avocational activities a. class I b. class II c. class III d. class IV

d. class IV

A 58-year-old female complains of worsening pain in her right knee for the past 6 months, particularly with activity such as walking and climbing stairs. She has a history of mild knee stiffness and morning pain. On examination, there is reduced range of motion, crepitus, and tenderness over the medial joint line. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? a. Meniscal tear b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Patellofemoral syndrome d. Osteoarthritis

d. Osteoarthritis

What is the expected complication based on this diagnosis? a. Genu recurvatum b. Genu varum c. Genu valgum d. Pes planus

b. Genu varum

Which of the following is the most common cause of hip pain in elderly patients? a. Osteoarthritis b. Hip Fracture c. Rheumatoid Arthritis d. Bursitis

a. Osteoarthritis

A patient reports a chronic history of widespread muscular pain, multiple tender points throughout her body, and excess fatigue. Upon examination, the therapist observes that the patient’s tender points are distributed throughout the body and do not refer pain when pressure is applied. What diagnosis would be MOST accurate for this patient? a. Myofascial pain syndrome b. Chronic regional pain syndrome c. Fibromyalgia d. Systemic lupus erythematosus

c. Fibromyalgia

An older adult patient complains of persistent pain, weakness, and stiffness affecting their shoulders and pelvis. Additionally, the patient has a higher than normal erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). What medical condition is MOST consistent with the described presentation? a. Pseudogout b. Gout c. Polymyalgia rheumatica d. Systemic lupus erythematosus

c. Polymyalgia rheumatica

What is the correct of sequence of bone healing after a fracture? a. Hematoma, soft callus, hard callus, remodelling b. Hematoma, hard callus, soft callus, remodelling c. Hard callus, soft callus, Hematoma, remodelling d. Soft callus, Hematoma, hard callus, remodelling

a. Hematoma, soft callus, hard callus, remodelling

True about Volkmann’s ischemic contracture: a. FPL and FDP are spared b. Affects the radial artery c. Involves fracture of the forearm, radius, or ulna d. Commonly seen in weightlifter and clerical jobs

c. Involves fracture of the forearm, radius, or ulna

A 25-year-old patient preparing to compete in the Tour de France bicycle race fell on his shoulder and sustained a mid-clavicular fracture. While waiting for emergency services, he put ice on the injured area, immobilized his arm in a sling, and took medications. What pain medication is good for clavicle fracture? a. Fluoxetine b. Levadopa c. Pyridostigmine d. Naproxen

d. Naproxen

CASE: A 10-year-old boy … X-ray shows a fracture of the distal third of the ulna and dislocation of the radial head. Q1: What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Galeazzi fracture b. Nightstick fracture c. Monteggia fracture d. Colles fracture Q2: Which nerve is most likely to be injured? a. Ulnar nerve b. Radial nerve c. Median nerve d. Axillary nerve Q3: ROM exercises are very important for radioulnar fracture since this may lead to difficult hand functions. Which movements may be most affected? a. Wrist DF and PF b. Pronation-supination c. Flexion-extension d. Radial and ulnar deviation

Q1: c. Monteggia fracture Q2: b. Radial nerve Q3: b. Pronation-supination

FOOSH is the MOl. Your patient was referred for an x-ray but then wasn't diagnosed of any condition since nothing was seen in the x-ray. There is still pain and swelling. What bone commonly manifest with this type of presentation? a. Distal radius b. Scaphoid c. Trapezium d. Ulna

b. Scaphoid

What may have been the cause of this sudden fracture? a. Osteoarthritis b. Osteomyelitis c. Osteoporosis d. Osteopenia

c. Osteoporosis

CASE: A 62-year-old male presents to the emergency department after falling from a height of about 10 feet. He complains of severe pain in his right forearm, and the arm is visibly deformed. On examination, there is swelling and tenderness over the distal radius, with a prominent deformity. X-rays show a dorsally displaced wrist and hand and fracture of the distal radius. He underwent closed reduction surgery and his elbow was then immobilized using a cast. After cast removal, he complains of numbness in the thumb and index finger. Q1: Based on the following findings, what is the most likely type of fracture? a. Smith fracture b. Colles fracture c. Monteggia fracture d. Galeazzi fracture Q2: What is the known complication following this fracture and the most likely cause of the symptoms? a. Ulnar nerve compression b. Radial nerve injury c. Carpal tunnel syndrome d. Reflex sympathetic dystrophy

Q1: b. Colles fracture Q2: c. Carpal tunnel syndrome

Acute inflammation superimposed on chronic tendonitis is ______________. a. Tendinitis b. Paratenonitis with tendinosis c. Tenosynovitis d. Tendinosis

b. Paratenonitis with tendinosis

Tri-malleolar fracture is an unstable type of fracture affecting the lateral malleolus, medial malleolus, and ________. a. tarsal malleolus b. posterior tibial malleolus c. calcaneus d. talus

b. posterior tibial malleolus

Which of the following is a common complication based on the patient’s type of fracture? a. Compartment Syndrome b. Hip Dislocation c. Avascular Necrosis d. Deep Venous Thrombosis

c. Avascular Necrosis

The following statements describe the pelvic girdle and femur, except: I. The pelvic girdle consists of two innominate bones, the sacrum and coccyx II. The ilium, ischium and symphysis pubis make up each hip bone III. The pubic portion of the innominate bones fusing to form the symphysis pubis is of the cartilaginous joint type IV. Cartilaginous joints connect two bones with cartilage, allowing only slight movement a. All of these b. I, II, and III c. I and III d. Only IV e. None of these

e. None of these

Inflammation at sites of insertion of tendons or ligaments into bone a. Tenosynovitis b. Enthesitis c. Tendinosis d. Arthritis

b. Enthesitis

The frontal plane angulation or the neck-shaft angle of the femur typically seen in adults at 125 degrees. An excessive angle of inclination beyond 130 degrees is called coxa valga. This results to these consequences, except: a. Dislocation or subluxation b. The limb may appear longer c. Reduction of the moment arm length of the hip abductor muscles contributing to hip abductor weakness d. Increased leverage of the muscles that attach to the greater trochanter e. None of these

d. Increased leverage of the muscles that attach to the greater trochanter

Conditions related to an increase in femoral anteversion: I. Increase in hip medial rotation II. Increase in hip lateral rotation III. In-toeing IV. Limitation of hip lateral rotation V. Out-toeing a. All of these b. I, II, III c. I, III and V d. II, IV and V e. I, III and IV

e. I, III and IV

The hip joint or acetabulofemoral articulation is a diarthrodial triaxial joint with three degrees of freedom; the close-packed position of the hip does not include: a. Extension b. Abduction c. Medial rotation d. Internal rotation e. None of these

e. None of these

Strong ligaments reinforce the hip joint capsule on all sides and are named according to their attachment sites. Which of these ligaments is/are lax when the hip is flexed? a. Iliofemoral ligament b. Pubofemoral ligament c. Ischiofemoral ligament d. All of these e. None of these

d. All of these

True concerning muscles acting in hip flexion, except: I. The iliopsoas is the only hip flexor that can produce enough tension to flex the hip beyond 90 degrees with the subject in sitting position II. Their maximum isometric torques are greatest when the hip is extended III. Their minimum isotonic torque occurs when the hip is flexed IV. The hip flexors are inactive during abdominal sit ups a. None of these b. I, II, and III c. I and III d. II and IV e. Only IV

e. Only IV

The following statements are true about the gluteus maximus, except: a. It works as a force couple with the abdominal muscles to posteriorly tilt the pelvis and flatten the lumbar spine b. It works with the three hamstring muscles to extend the hip c. It is the most powerful hip extensor, regardless of knee position d. In prone with the knee flexed, strong effort is needed to extend the hip e. None of these

e. None of these

Actions of the gluteus medius include: I. Hip flexion II. Hip abduction III. Hip medial rotation IV. Hip extension a. All of these b. I, II, III c. I and III d. II and IV e. Only IV

a. All of these

The femoral triangle is a triangular depressed area situated in the upper medial thigh. Which is false? a. The medial boundary is the adductor longus b. The superior boundary is the inguinal ligament c. The lateral boundary is the sartorius d. The floor is iliopsoas → pectineus → adductor longus e. It contains the femoral nerve, artery, vein, and deep inguinal lymph nodes

d. The floor is iliopsoas → pectineus → adductor longus

Which of the following statements is not true of the knee joint? I. It is a trochoginglymus joint with two degrees of freedom II. It can sustain vertical forces up to six times body weight III. Stability is provided by tissues, ligaments, muscles, and cartilages IV. It requires co-contraction of flexors and extensors to support body weight a. All of these b. I, II, and III c. I and III d. Only IV e. None of these

e. None of these

The following statements describe the menisci, except: I. Crescent-shaped wedges of fibrocartilage which occur in margins of the medial and lateral tibial condyles II. Facilitate articulation between the tibia and the femur, and cushion articular surfaces III. Medial meniscus may tear when the femur is internally rotated on the fixed tibia, with the knee in flexion and abduction IV. Lateral meniscus may tear when the femur is externally rotated on the fixed tibia, with the knee in flexion and adduction a. I, II, III b. I and III c. II and IV d. Only IV e. None of these

d. Only IV

Which of the following is not a function of the patella? a. Contributes to overall knee stability b. Increases torque of knee extensors c. Provides a smooth gliding mechanism for quadriceps d. Centralizes quadriceps force e. Increases compression and friction during deep knee bends

e. Increases compression and friction during deep knee bends

True about the collateral ligaments of the knee: a. The collateral ligaments of the knee provide stability in an antero-posterior direction. b. They are intracapsular and taut in full knee extension. c. The medial collateral ligament is the primary structure protecting the knee from valgus force, particularly in flexion. d. The lateral collateral ligament assists in providing varus stress protection more in full extension. e. All of these.

c. The medial collateral ligament is the primary structure protecting the knee from valgus force, particularly in flexion.

The following statements are true of posterior cruciate ligament: I. Primary function is to restrain posterior tibial subluxation II. PCL deficient knees create increased pressure on the posterior menisci III. The ligament is looser in extension and tighter in flexion IV. Its course is inferior, posterior and lateral in direction a. All of these b. I, II, and III c. I and III d. II and IV e. Only V

b. I, II, and III

Terminal rotation of the knee or the screw home mechanism is purely a mechanical event that occurs with both passive and active knee extension and cannot be produced or prevented voluntarily. In rising from a chair, terminal rotation occurs in which of the following? a. Medial rotation of the femur, CKC b. Medial rotation of the tibia, CKC c. Lateral rotation of the femur, CKC d. Lateral rotation of the tibia, OKC e. Lateral rotation of the femur, OKC

a. Medial rotation of the femur, CKC

True about the hamstring muscle torque, except: I. The greatest torque occurs when muscles are elongated at both the hip and knee (hip flexion and knee extension) II. The lowest torque occurs when the muscle contract in its shortened position of the hip extension and knee flexion III. The peak torque of the quadriceps muscles are greater than those of the knee flexors IV. Knee flexion combined with hip flexion results in favorable length-tension relations and efficiency of torque production of hamstrings a. All of these b. I, II, and III c. I and III d. II and IV e. None of these

e. None of these

True about Q angle, except: a. Women have been shown to have consistently larger Q angles than men b. Q angles may be larger in those individuals who experience patellofemoral pain syndrome c. It is the angle created by drawing a line from the ASIS to the center of the patella and extending another intersecting line from the tibial tuberosity to the center of the patella upward d. An excessive Q angle is referred to as genu varum or bowleg e. None of these

d. An excessive Q angle is referred to as genu varum or bowleg

The gastrocnemius and soleus belong to the superficial posterior group of the leg. These two muscles together are also called the triceps surae. The following descriptions are correct, except: a. The soleus has been found to contain a higher proportion of slow twitch muscle fibers than the gastrocnemius b. The soleus is more concerned with stabilization at the ankle and control of postural sway than is the gastrocnemius c. The gastrocnemius and soleus are both involved in activities requiring forceful plantarflexion of the ankle d. When the gastrocnemius-soleus group is paralyzed, the individual cannot rise on tiptoes and gait is severely affected e. None of these

e. None of these

The quadriceps femoris muscle group extends the knee and includes four muscles. However, there is a portion of the muscle that does not function in knee extension but serves only as a patellar stabilizer. Identify this muscle. a. Rectus femoris b. Vastus lateralis c. Vastus medialis longus d. Vastus medialis oblique e. Vastus intermedius

d. Vastus medialis oblique

Which of the following statements does not apply correctly to the pretibial group? a. The tibialis anterior is the primary dorsiflexor of the ankle b. The tibialis anterior is also an inverter of the foot and plays an important role during the stance phase of gait c. The pretibial group also moves the foot and toes in many important open chain motions d. Open chain motions of the foot require little muscle force because the muscles have good leverage e. None of these

e. None of these

Tibiofibular lateral rotation happens in which of the following foot motions? a. Supination, weight-bearing b. Supination, non-weight bearing c. Pronation, weight bearing d. Pronation, non-weight bearing

a. Supination, weight-bearing

Which of these ligaments stabilize the ankle during eversion to protect against valgus stresses to the talocrural, subtalar, and talonavicular joints? a. Anterior tibiofibular ligaments b. Tibiocalcaneal ligaments c. Tibionavicular ligaments d. Posterior tibiofibular ligaments e. All of these

b. Tibiocalcaneal ligaments

Which of the following is/are characteristic/s of the intrinsic muscles of the foot? I. Their proximal attachments are either in the tibia or fibula II. All but one are located in the plantar aspect III. Their distal attachments are either in the tibia or fibula IV. Their major function include supporting the arches in walking and running a. All of these b. I, II, and III c. I and III d. II and IV e. Only IV

e. Only IV

The calcaneus is a bony component of which of the following arches of the foot? a. Medial longitudinal arch b. Lateral longitudinal arch c. Transverse arch d. A and B e. All of these

d. A and B

In this foot deformity the medial border of the foot is off the ground so the body weight is transferred to the outside of the foot a. Pes cavus b. Clubfoot c. Pes planus d. Hallux valgus e. A and B

e. A and B

During heavy exercise, there is an increase in sympathetic activity. This would result in vasoconstriction of the blood vessels in the following organs: I. Kidneys II. Liver III. Splanchnic organs IV. Skeletal muscles a. All of these b. I, II, and III c. I and III d. II and IV e. none of these

b. I, II, and III

While there are eight nerves that exit the cervical spine, there are only seven cervical vertebrae. Where does the eight cervical nerve exit? a. Above the first thoracic vertebra b. Below the first thoracic vertebra c. Above the eight cervical vertebra d. Below the eight cervical vertebra e. Above the seventh cervical vertebra

a. Above the first thoracic vertebra

The following dermatomes are correctly matched, except: a. C7 – middle finger b. T12 – groin c. T10 – umbilicus d. T3 – nipple line e. NOTA

d. T3 – nipple line

Paresthesia on the little finger was reported by the patient. What muscle might be affected? a. Biceps b. Triceps c. Brachioradialis d. Deltoid e. All of these

b. Triceps

Chiasmal lesions could result in the following visual field defects, except: a. Lesion to the right optic tract results in left homonymous hemianopsia b. Chiasmal lesion produces bitemporal hemianopsia c. Transection of the optic nerve results in ipsilateral monocular blindness d. Lesion involving both the optic nerve and the optic chiasm produces ipsilateral blindness and a temporal field defect in the other eye e. None of these

e. None of these

Lesion to cranial nerve 3 will result to the following conditions, except: I. Ptosis II. Mydriasis III. Anisocoria IV. Esotropia a. All of these b. I, II and III c. II and IV d. only IV e. None of these

d. only IV

The following are muscles of mastication, except: I. Masseter II. Temporalis III. Lateral pterygoid IV. Hypoglossal a. All of these b. I, II, and III c. I and III d. none of these

e. Only IV

The following statements are true concerning the facial nerve, except: I. It emerges as two roots from the anterior surface of the hindbrain between the pons and the medulla oblongata II. It supplies the stylohyoid, posterior belly of digastric muscles of the neck, and the stapedius muscles of the middle ear III. The muscles of facial expression is supplied by the facial nerve IV. Its sensory roots carry taste sensations to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue V. Lesion of the facial nerve at the stylomastoid foramen will result in facial palsy, hyperacusis, impaired lacrimation, and loss of taste in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue a. All of these b. I, II, III c. None of these d. IV and V e. Only V

e. Only V

Degeneration of motor neurons of cranial nerves IX to XII would result in the following symptoms, except: I. Dysphagia II. Dysarthria III. Dysphonia IV. Drooling of saliva a. All of these b. I, II, and III c. II and III d. None of these e. Only IV

d. None of these

The vagal system includes the following cranial nerves: a. vagus, glossopharyngeal, spinal accessory, hypoglossal b. vagus, glossopharyngeal, facial, spinal portion of accessory c. vagus, glossopharyngeal, cranial portion of accessory, trigeminal d. vagus, glossopharyngeal, cranial portion of accessory, facial e. none of these

d. vagus, glossopharyngeal, cranial portion of accessory, facial

These structures arise from the telencephalon: I. Cerebral cortex II. Thalamus III. Basal ganglia IV. Hypothalamus a. All of these b. I, II, and III c. I and III d. II and IV e. None of these

c. I and III

The following impairments may result in patients with a lesion of the frontal lobe, except: I. Contralateral weakness II. Personality changes III. Perseveration IV. Homonymous hemianopsia a. All of these b. I, II, and III c. I and III d. None of these e. Only IV

e. Only IV

The following brodmann’s areas are found in the frontal lobe: I. Area 4 II. Area 8 III. Area 6 IV. Areas 9, 10, 11, 12 a. All of these b. I, II, and III c. I and III d. II and IV e. None of these

a. All of these

The following are functions of the left hemisphere: I. Analytical II. Understand language III. Mathematical IV. Express negative emotions a. All of these b. I, II and III c. I and III d. II and IV e. None of these

b. I, II and III

If a patient is non-fluent, has good repetition and good comprehension, the area most likely affected is: a. Superior temporal gyrus b. None of these c. Both of these d. Third frontal convolution

b. None of these

To examine a patient with suspected deficit in pallesthesia, the therapist should ask the patient to identify: a. A series of letters traced in the hand b. Differently weighted identically shaped cylinders placed in the hand c. Different objects placed in the hand and palpated d. The vibrations of a tuning fork when placed on a bony prominence

d. The vibrations of a tuning fork when placed on a bony prominence

The following are manifestations of basal ganglia pathology, EXCEPT: a. Slow, involuntary “worm-like” movements b. Sudden violent flailing motions c. Involuntary rhythmic oscillatory movement observed at rest d. Oscillatory movement during voluntary motion e. None of these

d. Oscillatory movement during voluntary motion

This structure is responsible for control of temperature, sleep-wake cycle, memory: a. Basal ganglia b. Thalamus c. Hypothalamus d. Medulla oblongata

c. Hypothalamus

The following functions are found in the medulla oblongata: I. Vasomotor center II. Vomiting center III. Respiratory center IV. Vagal center a. All of these b. I, II, and III c. I and III d. II and IV e. Only IV

a. All of these

True about cerebrospinal fluid, EXCEPT: a. The choroid plexus is the chief producer of CSF b. CSF drains unwanted substances from the brain and preserves homeostasis c. Ventricles are cavities filled with CSF d. The subarachnoid space is entered during lumbar puncture e. None of these

e. None of these

What artery is most likely affected in a stroke patient that presents with speech difficulties, with neglect of the contralateral side, and hemiplegia? a. right middle cerebral artery b. anterior cerebral artery c. left middle cerebral artery d. posterior cerebral artery

c. left middle cerebral artery

The following statements are true about the spinal cord, EXCEPT: I. Normal length is 42–45 cm II. Normal diameter is 10–15 mm III. Ends at level of L1 IV. Tip is attached to coccyx via pia mater a. All of the above b. I, II, and III c. I and III d. II and IV e. None of these

e. None of these

Because of the vascularity of the vertebrobasilar system, severe impairment can cause: I. Locked in syndrome II. Coma III. Wallenburg syndrome IV. Vertigo a. All of these b. I, II, and III c. I and III d. II and IV e. None of these

a. All of these

The following manifestations are related to injury to the cerebellum, except: I. Hypotonia II. Dysmetria III. Dysdiadochokinesia IV. Asthenia V. Titubation a. All of these b. I, II, III c. I, II, III, and IV d. None of these e. IV and V

a. All of these

While evaluating the reflexes of your TBI patient, you noticed that the patient’s right eye turns to the right when you suddenly turn his head to the right, and turns upward when you suddenly lift his head. What reflex could be impaired in this patient? a. pupillary light reflex b. vertical/diagonal oculocephalic reflex c. doll’s eye reflex d. fronto-orbital reflex

c. doll’s eye reflex

Which of the following is not part of the extrapyramidal tracts? I. Rubrospinal II. Vestibulospinal III. Reticulospinal IV. Corticospinal a. All of these b. I, II, and III c. I and II d. None of these e. Only IV

e. Only IV

A therapist is obtaining a subjective history from a new patient diagnosed with right-sided hemiplegia. The therapist notes that the patient can understand spoken language but cannot speak well. Most of the patient’s words are incomprehensible. The patient also has difficulty in naming simple objects. What type of aphasia does the patient most likely have? a. anomic aphasia b. broca’s aphasia c. crossed aphasia d. wernicke’s aphasia

b. broca’s aphasia

The following are manifestations of Lateral Medullary Syndrome, except: a. ipsilateral Horner’s Syndrome b. ipsilateral impaired sensation of face c. loss of contralateral body pain and temperature sensation d. contralateral ataxia

d. contralateral ataxia

While you are treating a T4 level SCI male patient, he suddenly had an autonomic dysreflexia. The following are the signs and symptoms of AD, except: a. pounding headache b. increased BP c. increased HR d. miosis

c. increased HR

You reviewed the chart of your 24-year-old TBI patient and noticed that he has retrograde amnesia. As his therapist scheduled to treat him in the afternoon, you modified the treatment because you are well aware that he has: a. inability to recall events before the injury b. inability to acquired new knowledge c. inability to remember schedules d. all of these

a. inability to recall events before the injury

A 27-year-old male sustained a traumatic brain injury after being ejected from his vehicle during a high-speed motor vehicle collision. He was not wearing a seatbelt and was found unconscious at the scene. He was intubated in the field and transported to a level 1 trauma center. CT scan shows diffuse cerebral edema, small subdural hematoma, and signs of increased intracranial pressure. No midline shift is noted. Five days post-injury, upon therapist’s visit, the patient opens eyes when asked with a loud voice, and pulls the therapist’s hand away when pinched. He moans incomprehensibly during conversation, but can follow simple commands, like tracking with his eyes, in an inconsistent, delayed manner. Q1: What is the current arousal state of the patient? a. minimally conscious state b. vegetative state c. coma d. obtunded Q2: What is the GCS Score of this patient? a. 7 b. 8 c. 9 d. 10 e. 11 Q3: The patient’s TBI is most likely considered as? a. mild TBI b. moderate TBI c. severe TBI d. very severe TBI Q4: The patient is classified under which level of cognitive function of Rancho Los Amigos? a. RLA V b. RLA II c. RLA IV d. RLA III

Q1: a. minimally conscious state Q2: d. 10 Q3: b. moderate TBI Q4: d. RLA III

You are interviewing your 35-year-old female patient with MS when you find out that her symptoms started with just nystagmus which happens in a typical pattern of discrete attacks followed by partial recovery in subsequent weeks. Given this information, you conclude that: a. the patient has poor prognosis b. the patient has an unpredictable prognosis secondary to incomplete set of symptoms present c. the patient has a good prognosis d. the patient prognosis cannot be determined this time

c. the patient has a good prognosis

Occlusion of the anterior limb of internal capsule leads to: a. pure motor stroke b. pure sensory stroke c. sensory motor stroke d. dysarthria clumsy hand

d. dysarthria clumsy hand

Hoehn-Yahr classification: patient experiencing unsteadiness when turning or rising from chair. a. stage 1 b. stage 2 c. stage 3 d. stage 4

c. stage 3

A 47-year-old female patient sustained a spinal cord injury from a severe whiplash injury in a train accident. Physical examination reveals preserved motor function in both upper and lower extremities, intact pain and temperature sensation, and loss of proprioception in both lower extremities. What incomplete SCI syndrome is this? a. posterior cord b. anterior cord c. cauda equina d. brown sequard

a. posterior cord

A male T4 ASIA C patient begins to get flushed. You checked his blood pressure and found that it is elevated with a decreased pulse. What should you do next? a. sit the person up and loosen any clothing b. catheterize the individual c. perform fecal disimpaction d. administer nifedipine

a. sit the person up and loosen any clothing

Patients with PD typically present with (+) striatal hand. As a therapist, you know that this type of hand is characterized by: a. MCP extension, IP joints flexion, and wrist flexion b. MCP extension, IP joint extension, and wrist flexion c. MCP flexion, IP joint flexion, and wrist extension d. MCP flexion, IP joint extension, and wrist flexion

d. MCP flexion, IP joint extension, and wrist flexion

What group of muscles are used to study the effect of drugs to help in diagnosing Myasthenia gravis? a. facial muscles b. intrinsic muscles of the hand c. shoulder girdle d. lower extremity e. extraocular muscles

a. facial muscles

Your 65-year-old male patient presents with resting tremor and sustained resistance to passive movement in both upper and lower extremities. You checked his chart and found out that his symptoms subsided momentarily after a dose of Ropinirole was injected 2 days ago. What could be the patient’s diagnosis? a. patient ha schizophrenia b. patient has multiple sclerosis c. patient has Parkinson’s plus syndrome d. patient has Parkinson’s disease

d. patient has Parkinson’s disease

Impaired function in the dorsal column / lemniscal pathways will result to the following deficits, except: I. Discriminative touch II. Proprioception III. Vibration IV. Stereognosis a. I, II and III b. All of these c. I and III d. Only IV e. None of these

e. None of these

In the absence of pathological evidence, the diagnosis of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is classified in three types. Which of the following type has the characteristic of both upper and lower motor neuron findings in at least 3 of 4 regions or upper motor neuron and lower motor neuron signs in the bulbar region and at least two spinal regions? a. clinically probable b. clinically definite c. clinically possible d. clinically legit

b. clinically definite

Which of the following signs and symptoms would suggest that the patient is least likely to have ALS? a. spasticity on one extremity b. clumsiness c. decrease in balance d. abnormal bladder function

d. abnormal bladder function

In Kurtzke Expanded Disability Status Scale, what grade will you give to your MS patient if he has minimal disability in two functional systems with a grade of 2, while the other two functional systems are graded 0 or 1? a. 2.0 b. 2.5 c. 3.0 d. 3.5

b. 2.5

In wrist slashing, which nerve is most commonly affected resulting in potential damage or injury? a. ulnar nerve b. radial nerve c. median nerve d. brachial plexus

c. median nerve

A 42-year-year old woman presents with a noticeable prominence of her right scapula and weakness in her shoulder. On examination, her right scapula appears to be abnormally protruded and displaced towards the spine. He has difficulty pushing against a wall and cannot maintain a stable shoulder position. There is no sensory deficit noted. Which nerve is most likely affected in this patient’s type of scapular winging? a. long thoracic nerve b. axillary nerve c. thoracodorsal nerve d. spinal accessory nerve

a. long thoracic nerve

A side leg kick to the left fibula of a 32-year-old mixed martial arts fighter rendered him incapacitated to fight further. The fighter claimed that the entire dorsum of his left foot was numb and paresthesia. The patient frequently stumbled during the swing phase of his gait, dragging his left toes on the ground, as revealed by his physical examination. The doctor also observed asymmetry in his typical foot position and weakness in the foot’s eversion at the ankle joint. Which nerve suffered damage? a. tibial nerve b. deep fibular nerve c. common peroneal nerve d. sciatic nerve

c. common peroneal nerve

This condition is characterized by progressive neurological deficits resulting from traction of the conus medullaris and cauda equina: a. Conus medullaris syndrome b. Hydromyelia c. Tethered cord syndrome d. Spina bifida aperta

c. Tethered cord syndrome

Spina bifida may be associated with the deficiency of which vitamin? a. Iron b. Vitamin A c. Vitamin E d. Folic acid

d. Folic acid

When reviewing a patient’s chart, the therapist determines that the patient has a condition in which the cauda equine is in a fluid-filled sac protruding from the back. What form of spina bifida does the patient most likely have? a. Meningocele b. Meningomyelocele c. Spina bifida occulta d. None of the above

b. Meningomyelocele

A 5-year-old child with a T10 level spina bifida is now ready for ambulation training having good sitting balance. The best orthosis for him is: a. RGO b. Parapodium c. KAFO d. Supramalleolar orthosis

b. Parapodium

A patient with spina bifida has various manifestations/ orthopedic complications. What is the lowest limit of level with severe hip dislocation? a. T12 b. L1 c. L2 d. L3

d. L3

Damage to the basal ganglia leads to what type of CP: a. Diplegic b. Quadriplegic c. Hemiplegic d. Athetoid

d. Athetoid

The therapist presents an educational seminar on cerebral palsy, where he discusses its numerous etiologies. The following are congenital etiology of cerebral palsy, EXCEPT: a. Meningitis b. Rubella c. Syphilis d. Toxoplasmosis

a. Meningitis

Most common type of CP with seizure? a. Spastic diplegia b. Spastic Hemiplegia c. Spastic Quadriplegia d. Dyskinetic CP

c. Spastic Quadriplegia

Most common cause of Cerebral Palsy a. Infection b. Trauma c. Idiopathic d. prematurity

d. prematurity

You are asked by your senior staff about the types of CP. The type of CP that has good prognosis is: a. Athetoid b. Spastic hemiplegia c. Spastic quadriplegia d. Rigid

b. Spastic hemiplegia

The most severe type of cerebral palsy caused by periventricular leukomalacia: a. Spastic diplegia b. Spastic quadriplegia c. Spastic hemiplegia d. CP athetoid type

b. Spastic quadriplegia

Cerebral Palsy associated with hyperbilirubinemia a. Athetoid b. Ataxic c. Dyskinetic d. Diplegia e. Spastic

a. Athetoid

The therapist is evaluating a patient with a diagnosis of cerebral palsy. The therapist notes that all of the extremities and the trunk are involved. Further assessment also reveals that the lower extremities are more involved than the upper extremities and that the right side is more involved than the left. This patient most likely has which classification of CP? a. Spastic hemiplegia b. Spastic triplegia c. Spastic quadriplegia d. Spastic diplegia

d. Spastic diplegia

A physical therapy plan of care for a child with spastic cerebral palsy who is three years old chronologically and cognitively but at a six month-old gross developmental level would include: a. reaching for a black and white object while in the supine position. b. reaching for a multicolored object while in an unsupported standing position. c. visually tracking a black and white object held nine inches from his face. d. reaching for a multicolored object while in an unsupported, guarded sitting position.

d. reaching for a multicolored object while in an unsupported, guarded sitting position.

You are assigned in pediatric physical therapy clinic and you noticed that your patient is diagnosed with Spastic Hemiplegic Cerebral Palsy. Which of the following describes the manifestation? a. Upper extremities involvement and sensory loss is predominant b. Ataxia as well as incoordination deficits is seen c. Tremors and rigidity can be seen during walking and standing d. More involved lower extremity as compared to the upper extremities

a. Upper extremities involvement and sensory loss is predominant

GMFCS III: a. Have limitations walking long distances and balancing; may need a hand-held mobility device when first learning to walk b. More likely to be transported in a manual wheelchair or use powered mobility c. Sit on their own or require at most limited external support to sit, are more independent in standing transfers, and walk with a hand-held mobility device d. Capable of walking without a hand-held mobility device after age 4 (although they may choose to use one at times)

c. Sit on their own or require at most limited external support to sit, are more independent in standing transfers, and walk with a hand-held mobility device

A 2-year-old child with Down Syndrome and moderate developmental delay is treated in an early intervention program. Daily training activities that can be considered include: a. rolling activities, initiating movement with stretch and tracking resistance b. stimulation to postural extensors in sitting using rhythmic stabilization c. locomotor training using body weight support d. holding and weight shifting in sitting and standing using tactile and verbal cueing

d. holding and weight shifting in sitting and standing using tactile and verbal cueing

A CP spastic diplegia patient exhibits weak hip abduction. Which activity will LEAST likely strengthen his abduction? a. Sidelying with hip raises b. Supine to prone c. Prone to supine d. Kneeling to half-kneeling on either side

b. Supine to prone

Among the activities below, the BEST way to facilitate walking without support in a 2-year-old patient with Down syndrome is: a. Strengthening exercises for quadriceps using weights b. Use of walker with rollers to increase distance c. Use of reflex inhibiting patterns in lower extremities d. Weight shifting in standing while dancing to music

d. Weight shifting in standing while dancing to music

A physical therapist examines a two-year-old child with Down syndrome that has a history of congenital heart defect. When examining the child, the therapist should recognize that children with Down syndrome who possess congenital heart defects: a. have an increased delay in achieving motor milestones b. should not receive physical therapy c. usually do not survive infancy d. tend to exhibit hypertonicity

a. have an increased delay in achieving motor milestones

Vibration is often used to facilitate muscle tone in children with Down syndrome. The muscle group MOST in need of facilitation are: a. Neck and back flexors and extensors, elbow extensors, and knee flexors and extensors b. Back extensors, elbow flexors and extensors, hip adductors, and knee extensors c. Neck flexors and extensors, trunk flexors, hip adductors, and knee extensors d. Neck and back extensors, elbow extensors, hip abductors, and knee extensors

d. Neck and back extensors, elbow extensors, hip abductors, and knee extensors

All of the following are tight muscles in patients with DMD, EXCEPT: a. Iliopsoas b. Gastrocnemius c. quadriceps d. hamstrings

c. quadriceps

Most common cause of death in patients with DMD? a. Respiratory failure b. Multiple organ failure c. Renal failure d. Cardiac failure

d. Cardiac failure

Clinically, what criterion can be used to differentiate between Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) and Becker muscular dystrophy (BMD)? a. Utilization of gower’s maneuver b. The ability to ambulate past the late teenage years c. Pseudohypertrophy of the calves d. Affectation of short arm of chromosome 21

b. The ability to ambulate past the late teenage years

A patient with Fascioscapulohumeral dystrophy has affectation of the following muscles: orbicularis oris, zygomaticus, orbicularis oculi. She will have difficulty in the following activities, EXCEPT: a. Frowning when angry b. Whistling to call her dog c. Pursing the lips while putting on lipstick d. Drinking from a straw

a. Frowning when angry

Which of the following has presents with (+) gower sign? I. DMD II. BMD III. LGMD IV. FSHD a. I, II b. I, II, III c. II, III d. only IV e. NOTA

b. I, II, III

Muscular dystrophy with congenital heart disease a. DMD b. BMD c. Emery dreifuss d. fascioscapulohumeral dystrophy

c. Emery dreifuss

You are seeing a 7-year-old boy for stiffness. His legs are stiff, and he has difficulty relaxing muscles after contracting them. He cannot release objects easily once grasped with his hands, and when he closes his eyes, it takes a few seconds before he is able to open them completely. If he performs the same motor task multiple times, it becomes easier. When his thenar eminence is percussed, there is prolonged contraction and delayed relaxation. Family history is remarkable of his father and grandfather have similar clinical features that started around the same age. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Paramyotonia congenita b. Myotonia congenita c. Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis d. Hypokalemic periodic paralysis

b. Myotonia congenita

A 6-year-old child was born with no physical deformities but suddenly started to have multiple deformities such as shortening of right lower limb, valgus of left knee, and enlargement of hand and foot. Radiograph reveals multiple radiolucent lesions in the bones due to excessive proliferation of cartilages. He was later diagnosed with: a. Mafucci’s syndrome b. Angelman c. Ollier’s disease d. Paget’s disease

c. Ollier’s disease (Enchondromatosis)

A 22-month-old child presents with abnormal bowing of the legs and difficulty walking. He was exclusively breastfed until age 12 months. He lives in a cold climate with limited exposure to direct sunlight. Physical exam reveals bowlegs, wrist soft tissue swelling, and open anterior fontanelle. Wrist x-ray shows osteopenia with cupping and fraying of the distal radial metaphyses. a. Marfan Syndrome b. Rickets c. Blount disease d. Osteogenesis imperfecta

b. Rickets

A 15-year-old boy with a prior diagnosis of Tourette’s disorder is referred to your care. His mother tells you that during middle school he was teased for having vocal and motor tics. Since starting ninth grade, his tics have become less frequent. Currently, only mild motor tics remain. What is the appropriate DSM-5 diagnosis? a. Tourette’s disorder b. Persistent (chronic) motor tic disorder c. Provisional tic disorder d. Unspecified tic disorder e. Persistent (chronic) vocal tic disorder

a. Tourette’s disorder

A 7-year-old boy is having behavioral and social difficulties in his second-grade class. Although he seems to be able to attend and is doing “well” from an academic standpoint (though seemingly not what he is capable of), he is constantly interrupting, fidgeting, talking excessively, and getting out of his seat. He has friends, but he sometimes annoys his peers because of his difficulty sharing and taking turns and the fact that he is constantly talking over them. Although he excels at group dates, his friends tire of him because he wants to play sports nonstop. At home, he can barely stay in his seat for a meal and is unable to play quietly. Although he shows remorse when the consequences of behavior are pointed out to him, he can become angry in response and seems nevertheless unable to inhibit himself. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Bipolar disorder b. Autism spectrum disorder c. Generalized anxiety disorder d. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder, predominantly hyperactive/impulsive e. Specific learning disorder

d. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder, predominantly hyperactive/impulsive

A newborn is examined at birth using the APGAR test. The APGAR include: a. Heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate b. Heart rate, respiratory rate, color, and weight c. Muscle tone, height, heart rate, reflex irritability d. Reflexes, muscle tone, blood pressure, and color e. Heart rate, respiration, muscle tone, reflex irritability and color

e. Heart rate, respiration, muscle tone, reflex irritability and color

A 7-year-old boy in second grade displays significant delays in his ability to reason, solve problems, and learn from his experiences. He had been slow to develop reading, writing, and mathematics skills in school. All through development, these skills lagged behind peers, with no insight into why so slow progress. These deficits significantly impair his ability to play in an age-appropriate manner with peers and to begin to acquire independent skills at home. He requires ongoing assistance in adaptive skills (dressing, feeding, bathing and grooming himself, doing any type of schoolwork) on a daily basis. Which of the following diagnoses best fits this presentation? a. Global developmental delay b. Intellectual disability c. Specific learning disorder d. Asperger’s syndrome

b. Intellectual disability

A newborn is examined at birth using the APGAR test. Based on the following results, the neonatal therapist suspects that neurological complications are likely with an APGAR of: a. 3 at 10 minutes b. 8 at 5 minutes c. 8 at 10 minutes d. 8 at 1 minute

a. 3 at 10 minutes

A therapist is ordered to evaluate and treat a full-term infant. After reviewing the chart, the therapist discovers that at 1 minute after birth the infant exhibited the following symptoms: Acrocyanosis, heart rate of 105 beats per minute, slow respirations, slight response to reflex irritability, and some resistance of the extremities to movement. What was the infant’s APGAR score at 1 minute after birth? a. 3 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7

c. 6

What reflex is the latest to persist? a. STNR b. ATNR c. Moro d. Parachute

d. Parachute

Positive support reflex: a. Bouncing with weight bearing resulting to increased flexor tone b. Bouncing with weight bearing resulting to increased extensor tone c. Bouncing without weight bearing resulting to increased flexor tone d. Bouncing without weight bearing resulting to increased extensor tone

b. Bouncing with weight bearing resulting to increased extensor tone

What will be the response when you elicit ATNR on a spastic hemiplegic patient? a. Extend b. Fully extend c. Slight flexion d. No flexion

a. Extend

Persistence of this reflex causes interference with rolling, grasping on an upper limb, hand to mouth activities. a. STNR b. ATNR c. TLR d. Associated reaction

b. ATNR

Stroking the side of the cheeks: a. Galant reflex b. Moro reflex c. Rooting reflex d. Startle reflex

c. Rooting reflex

An infant is independent in sitting, including all protective extension reactions and can pull-to-stand through kneeling, cruise sideways, and stand alone. The infant still demonstrates plantar grasp in standing. This infant’s chronological age is approximately: a. 5 months b. 6 months c. 8–9 months d. 10–15 months

c. 8–9 months

You are completing a development assessment of a 7-month-old infant with normal development. The reflex that would NOT be integrated is: a. MORO b. STNR c. Landau d. ATNR

c. Landau

According to Erikson, the psychosocial task of adolescence is developing: a. Intimacy b. Initiative c. Identity d. Independence

c. Identity

In what stage is anal sphincter control present? a. Autonomy vs shame and doubt b. Initiative vs guilt c. Industry vs inferiority d. Identity vs role confusion

a. Autonomy vs shame and doubt

In terms of cognitive development, the 5-year-old child would be expected to: a. Use magical thinking b. Think abstractly c. Understand conservation of matter d. Be unable to comprehend another person’s perspective

a. Use magical thinking

Which of these is NOT TRUE about the pre-operation stage of cognitive development? a. Children develop tools for representative scheme symbolically through language imitation, imaginary play and drawing b. Preceded by the sensorimotor stage c. Ends at 5 years d. Starts when child begins to learn language

c. Ends at 5 years

The nurse teaches parents how to help their children learn impulse control and cooperative behaviors. This would occur during which of the stages of development defined by Erikson? a. Trust vs mistrust b. Initiative vs guilt c. Industry vs inferiority d. Autonomy vs shame and doubt

b. Initiative vs guilt

Fetal movement begins to be felt by: a. 16th week of gestation b. 20th week of gestation c. 22nd week of gestation d. 24th week of gestation

a. 16th week of gestation

The nurse knows that an infant’s birth weight should be tripled by: a. 9 month b. 1 year c. 18 months d. 2 years

b. 1 year

Earliest age at which the infant should be able to walk independently is __ months. a. 6 to 12 b. 12 to 15 c. 15 to 18 d. 18 to 21

b. 12 to 15

Which of the following developmental milestones is typical for an 18-month-old child? a. Parallel play b. Follow two-step commands c. Pincer grasp d. Walk independently e. Use a spoon with little help

d. Walk independently

Earliest age at which an infant is able to sit steadily alone is __ months: a. 4 b. 5 c. 8 d. 15

c. 8

In terms of gross motor development, what would the nurse expect a 5-month-old infant to do? a. Roll from abdomen to back b. Roll from back to abdomen c. Sit without support d. Move from prone to sitting position

a. Roll from abdomen to back

Most infants begin to fear strangers at age: a. 2 months b. 4 months c. 6 months d. 12 months

c. 6 months

Upper extremity orthosis for carpal tunnel syndrome? a. Cock‑up splint c. PIP sleeve b. Mallet slipover static splint d. Thumb spica

a. Cock‑up splint

What is the type of orthoses used by scoliotic patients for curves with apex at T6? a. Miami c. William b. Boston d. Milwaukee

d. Milwaukee

A 16 y/o patient suffered fractures of C4 and C5 following trauma received in a motor vehicle accident. Maximum stabilization of his cervical spine can be BEST be achieved with: a. Soft collar c. Halo orthosis b. Four poster orthosis d. Milwaukee orthosis

c. Halo orthosis

An external shoe modification that would be appropriate for a patient exhibiting flexible subtalar valgus deformity is: a. cushion heel c. lateral sole wedge b. medial heel wedge d. lateral heel wedge

b. medial heel wedge

A medial buckled insert attached to an ankle‑foot orthosis is used to correct: a. Ankle varus deformity b. Ankle valgus deformity c. Medial longitudinal arch depression d. Forefoot varus deformity

b. Ankle valgus deformity

What is the ankle joint in short leg brace is for patients with foot drop? a. Total control b. Anterior ankle stop c. Partial control d. Posterior ankle stop

d. Posterior ankle stop

Characteristics of posterior leaf spring AFO, except: a. It promotes maximum support and stability in all planes by preventing both dorsiflexion and plantarflexion b. Its purpose is to hold the ankle and foot in a desired position yet allow some flexibility of the ankle c. Indicated for isolated ankle dorsiflexor weakness d. It does not control subtalar eversion, midtarsal pronation, and forefoot abduction

a. It promotes maximum support and stability in all planes by preventing both dorsiflexion and plantarflexion

This special purpose orthosis is used for total elimination of weight‑bearing on whole lower limb, no ankle joints & toe suspended in mid‑air? a. Patellar tendon‑bearing orthoses c. Patten‑Bottom orthoses b. Ischial weight‑bearing d. Tibial orthoses

c. Patten‑Bottom orthoses

Is a variation of a typical KAFO, which is designed to help spinal cord injured patients to stand & walk? a. Parapodium b. Scott‑Craig orthoses c. Denise‑Brown splint d. A‑frame orthosis

b. Scott‑Craig orthoses

An orthotic device for children that allows standing without crutch support; it also allows for ease in sitting with the addition of hip and knee joints that can be unlocked and it is used in children with myelodysplasia? a. RGO b. Parapodium c. Standing frame d. All of the above

b. Parapodium

You are instructing a patient on how to use a reciprocating gait orthosis (RGO) with a walker. What is the correct sequence? a. She should shift her weight onto her walker, extend the upper trunk, and swing both legs forward together to approach the walker b. She should shift her weight onto one leg, and swing her other leg through while leaning on the walker c. She should shift her weight onto her walker & one leg, extend the upper trunk, and swing her other leg through d. You should not be teaching a patient to use a reciprocating gait orthosis with a walker

c. She should shift her weight onto her walker & one leg, extend the upper trunk, and swing her other leg through

A lumbosacral orthosis that restricts flexion & extension? a. Knight‑Taylor c. Knight b. Cowhorn d. Chairback

d. Chairback

A midtarsal amputation and preserves the calcaneus and talus: a. Syme’s c. Boyd’s b. Pirogoff’s d. Chopart’s

d. Chopart’s

Standard transfemoral amputation: a. 20–50% c. >60% b. >50% d. 35–60%

d. 35–60%

At what speed for the average individual as the worth of walking at a minimum? a. 5 mph c. 3 mph b. 4 mph d. 2 mph

c. 3 mph

Which prosthetic foot is/are considered to be lightweight? I. Flex‑walk II. Seattle III. Flex foot IV. Carbon copy II a. I, II and III b. II, III and IV c. I, III and IV d. I, II, III and IV

c. I, III and IV

Which of the following describes an awareness of a non‑painful sensation in the amputated part? a. Allodynia b. Phantom pain c. Hyperalgesia d. Phantom sensation

d. Phantom sensation

The most commonly used type of shank for a below‑knee prosthesis: a. Exoskeletal c. Steel shank b. Endoskeletal d. A and B

b. Endoskeletal

This is a pressure tolerant area of the leg in prosthetic fitting: a. Tibial crest b. Medial tibial flare c. Fibular head d. Hamstring tendons

b. Medial tibial flare

A therapist is performing a prosthetic checkout on patient with transfemoral amputation. The prosthesis has been fitted with a quadrilateral socket. A checkout of the walls of the socket should reveal that the: a. Height of the posterior wall is 2 inches less than all the other walls b. Anterior & lateral walls are 2½ inches higher than the posterior & medial walls c. Medial wall is 2½ inches higher than the posterior wall while the anterior & lateral walls at the same height d. Posterior & lateral walls are 2 inches higher than the medial & anterior walls

b. Anterior & lateral walls are 2½ inches higher than the posterior & medial walls

The Silesian belt, total elastic suspension belt, and pelvic band are all types of suspension for which type of prosthesis? a. Below knee amputation (transtibial) b. Above knee amputation (transfemoral) c. Hip disarticulation d. Syme’s amputation

b. Above knee amputation (transfemoral)

For a transtibial amputee, insufficient knee flexion during stance may be caused by any of the following. Which one may NOT be a cause? a. Excessive dorsiflexion at the prosthetic ankle b. Excessive plantarflexion at the prosthetic ankle c. Socket discomfort d. Poor hip and knee control

a. Excessive dorsiflexion at the prosthetic ankle

When compared with normal walking without a prosthesis or assistive device, which condition requires the greatest increase in energy expenditure? a. Transtibial amputation b. Transfemoral amputation c. Bilateral transtibial d. Wheelchair use

b. Transfemoral amputation

For a transfemoral amputee who ambulates with circumduction of the prosthesis during swing, one may think of causes and this may include which of the following? a. Prosthesis too short b. Weak hip flexors c. Weak hip abductors d. Inadequate suspension

d. Inadequate suspension

Lateral trunk bending during stance in an above knee amputee wearing a prosthesis is due to the following, EXCEPT: a. low lateral wall c. high medial wall b. short prosthesis d. weak adductors

d. weak adductors

The time for upper limb prosthetic fitting for successful prosthetic restoration: a. 8–12 mos b. 1–3 mos c. 2–3 weeks d. 4–6 mos

d. 4–6 mos

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Push a little more — we’re closer than we think. PTRP soon.

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We didn’t come this far to doubt now. December is ours. PTRP loading…

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One goal. One shot. PTRP 2025. Let’s finish strong.

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Small steps. Big faith. The board exam doesn’t stand a chance.

FC Compilation (Finished) Flashcards

(413 cards)