FIFA Flashcards

(84 cards)

1
Q

Describe the Forensic Identification Field Assessment:

A
  • Is a pre-Canadian Police College forensic identification training and evaluation period at the apprentice’s Forensic Identification Services Unit.
  • minimum three-month period of training and assessment of the candidate to determine their suitability to perform FIS duties, and to prepare them for the FIC.
  • Practical and written exercises
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Three phases of the Forensic Identification Training Program:

A
  • FIFA - Forensic Identification Field Assessment;
  • FIC - Forensic Identification Course;
  • and Apprenticeship.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Forensic Identification Certification Board:

A
  • a board consisting of three Forensic Identification Services (FIS) specialists who will administer an examination consisting of an oral question and answer and a moot trial to evaluate if the FIS employee is qualified to give expert opinion testimony.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Forensic Identification Specialist:

A
  • a regular member who has successfully completed the Forensic Identification Apprentice Training Program, and has been certified as a specialist by the Director, Integrated Forensic Identification Services/delegate.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What Forensic Identification duty takes precedence over all other Forensic Identification duties:

A
  • The examination of crime scenes to locate forensic evidence and the analysis, comparison, evaluation, and identification of physical evidence takes precedence over other forensic identification services (FIS) duties
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the policy regarding forensic examination of major crime scenes?

A
  • at least two FIS employees processing the crime scene with the lead a qualified FIS specialist;
  • utilize forensic light sources if appropriate for scene/evidence;
  • measurements taken of the crime scene for crime scene plan drawing,
  • aerial photographs considered;
  • 3D impressions photographed and cast;
  • and if a bloodletting scene then conduct a visual assessment, evaluate probative value, consider blodstain pattern analyst to discuss scene/attendance, bloodstain pattern analyst is able to instruct FIS employees to record evidence for subsequent analysis;
  • prior to arrival/assessment to a scene involving bullet impact damage/immediate threat to public safety/homicide/multi-shooting scenes - to contact the National Forensic Laboratory Services Firearms and Toolmark Identification program to determine if a firearms specialist is able to attend;
  • determine need for SME (Subject Matter Expert) to attend, monitor SME on scene;
  • and complete Form 3407 - Forensic Identification Crime Scene Checklist.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the Forensic Identification Services policy on preparation of evidence charts to support expert testimony?

A
  • Prepare an illustrative chart when tendering comparison evidence in court.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the permitted conclusions for physical impression evaluations (excluding friction ridge comparisons)?

A
  • Inconclusive - lack of sufficient detail for a meaningful conclusion;
  • Exclusion - the particular object was not the source of and did not make the impressions;
  • Association of Class Characteristics - known object is a possible source of the questioned impression and could have produced the impression;
  • Higher Degree of Association - Strong associations of characteristics between the questioned impression and known source, but the quality/quantity were insufficient for identification;
  • Identification - the particular known object was the source of and made the questioned print.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Criteria for someone to be lawfully fingerprinted:

A
  • Any person in lawful custody charged/convicted of an indictable offence (or hybrid - summary conviction) or an offence under the Foreign Interference and Security of Information Act;
  • any person apprehended under the Extradition Act;
  • any person alleged to have committed an indictable offence (or hybrid - summary conviction) and ordered to do so through an Appearance Notice, Undertaking, or Summons - other than an offence under the Contraventions Act or Sec. 51 of the Cannabis Act;
  • and/or any person in lawful custody pursuant to Sec. 83.3 of the Criminal Code.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Authority to take young persons prints:

A
  • The Identification of Criminals Act applies to young persons -Sec. 113(1) of the Youth Criminal Justice Act.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Besides fingerprinting what other processes are sanctioned by the Identification of Criminals Act:

A
  • Photographing and other measurements in identifying persons
  • Palm prints
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Does the Identification of Criminals Act provide authority to take prints for comparison purposes:

A
  • No, we are not authorized to take fingerprints specifically for comparison. But, if obtained lawfully, the act allows that they can be used for comparison.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Legal authority for foot impressions:

A
  • Information for impression Warrant - Sec. 487.092(1) of the Criminal Code of Canada
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

4 common law requirements stipulated in R v Mohan (1994) for expert opinion evidence to be heard and accepted in court:

A
  • Relevance;
  • Necessity in assisting the trier of fact;
  • The absence of any exclusionary rule;
  • And a properly qualified expert.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Legal disclosure requirements stipulated under Sec. 657.3 CC regarding expert opinion evidence testimony:

A
  • A party who intends to call a person as an expert witness shall, at least 30 days prior to trial or within any other period fixed by the justice/judge give notice to the other party/parties of his/her intention accompanied by name of proposed witness;
  • description of the area of expertise of the proposed witness sufficient to permit other parties to inform themselves about that area of expertise
  • and a statement of the qualifications of the proposed witness as an expert. (Sec. 657.3(3)(a) of the Criminal Code of Canada)
  • AND a prosecutor must provide a copy of the report prepared by the proposed witness for the court - if no report then a summary of the opinion anticipated to be given by the proposed witness and grounds on which it is based. (Sec. 657.3(3)(b) of the Criminal Code of Canada)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Can a FIS employee use any technique and/or equipment during the course of their duties:

A
  • FIS employees can ONLY use approved Integrated Forensic Identification Services techniques and chemicals.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What must occur an FIS employee that has been exposed to a biological or chemical hazard through inhalation, skin contact, ingestion, or injection:

A
  • Seek first aid as required, asap;
  • report occurrence to FIS unit commander or their supervisor;
  • Supervisor completes a Form 3414 (formerly the Lab1070).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Can all FIS employees use specialized personal protective equipment at CBRNE and clandestine labs:

A
  • Only an FIS employee with appropriate training can use specialized PPE at special crime scenes (eg. those involving chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, or explosive hazards or clandestine labs)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When must an Ident employee evaluate the types and levels of hazards present at a crime scene:

A
  • Before entering a scene;
  • Continually monitor and re-evaluate the hazards at the scene to ensure that the PPE is appropriate, and ensure that adequate scene security is established and maintained for the duration of the examination.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In the lab where must all examinations using hazardous chemicals be performed:

A
  • Perform examinations using chemicals within the appropriate vented fume hood or wet station area and take the appropriate safety precautions.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is your responsibility when working in potentially hazardous area:

A
  • Evaluate the types and levels of hazards present;
  • use appropriate Personal Protection Equipment.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is a WHMIS label and why should hazardous material be labeled?

A
  • Canada requires products used in a workplace that meet certain criteria to be classified as hazardous be labelled.
  • Labels alert the user to major hazards associated with the product and outline basic precautions or safety steps that should be taken.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the absolute minimum information a workplace label must have according to WHMIS?

A
  • At minimum - a workplace label requires the product identifier (the name),
  • Safe handling precautions (pictogram or other supplier label info),
  • reference to the SDS (Safety Data Sheet).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

According to WHMIS legislation – what are the labeling requirements if hazardous material is kept in a container other than its original?

A
  • A workplace label is required unless - poured into a container and used immediately;
  • OR if under the control of the person who decanted it although it still requires the product identifier.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Under WHMIS who is responsible for labeling chemicals and chemical solutions?
* Suppliers prior to being provided to customers * Employers for workplace labels when appropriate.
26
Under Canada Labour Code what responsibilities are placed on you as an employee?
* use all safety materials, equipment,devices and clothing that are provided by employer and intended to protect employees; * follow procedures that relate to the health and safety of employees; * follow all instructions provided by the employer concerning the health and safety of employees; * cooperate with any person carrying out a duty or function required by the Code; * cooperate with policy and work place committees and health and safety representatives; * report to the employer any thing or circumstance that is likely to be hazardous to the employees or any other person in the work place; * report to the employer, all work related accidents, occupational diseases or other hazardous occurrences that have caused injury to the employee or any other person; * report to the employer any situation the employee believes contravenes Part II of the Code by the employer, another employee or any other person; * comply with every oral direction or written direction given by a health and safety officer or an appeals officer; * respond in writing to a health and safety officer's direction or report when requested to do so by the health and safety officer.
27
What is the mechanism within the RCMP for reporting a hazardous incident and who is responsible for making the report?
* Form 3414 (formerly Lab 1070) to be completed by the FIS unit commander or supervisor.
28
What is a Safety Data Sheet (SDS)
* A summary document that provides information about the hazards of product and advice about safety precautions. It must be provided by manufacturer/supplier at time of sale.
29
What personal protection measures are indicated on the SDS for Ninhydrin?
* goggles, * splash protection gloves, * particulates filter respirator, * boots, * full suit
30
Why does the SDS for Cyanoacrylate caution against the use of cotton gloves?
* Due to a combustible chemical reaction.
31
What is the purpose of a lens?
* To direct the path of light rays to recreate the image as accurately as possible; * minimize aberrations.
32
What affects exposure of an image?
* Aperature (f-stop), * ISO speed (image noise), * and shutter speed (motion blur)
33
How does a digital camera capture an image?
* Uses millions of light cavities (photosites) to record an image. * Through exposure the camera collects and stores photons in the form of electrical signals * The electrical signals are then quantified as a digital value.
34
ISO represent in digital photography:
* Sensitivity to light.
35
What is depth of field?
* The range of distance that appears in focus from the focal point.
36
How to increase depth of field:
* by decreasing the f-stop (aperature), * increasing camera to subject distance, * refocus on hyperfocal point, * and shorter focal length lens.
37
White balance in digital photography:
* Temperature of light - measured in Kelvins.
38
What is the building block of digital photography:
* Pixels
39
Resolution of an image:
* The number of pixels in an image.
40
Calibrating an image:
* Resizing the image to a known measurement.
41
When calibrating through Photoshop, should you use “resampling?”
* No, resampling changes the resolution thereby distorting the image
42
Fingerprint Impression:
* Friction Ridge Impressions from the last finger joints.
43
First European to allude to the uniqueness of friction ridge skin:
* J.C.A MAYER -1788
44
First person to start a fingerprint persistency study:
* Sir William James HERSCHEL – 1858
45
Father of Fingerprinting – first published in a scientific journal about the value of fingerprints as crime scene evidence:
* Dr. Henry FAULDS – 1880
46
Alphonse Bertillon and his contribution to identification of criminals:
* A clerk in the Prefecture of Police, Paris, France. * Developed Anthropometry – i. Study of body measurements for identification purposes. 1. Body Measurements: height, reach - middle finger to middle finger of stretched arms, trunk, length/width of head, length/width right ear, length left foot, length left/middle/and pinky finger, length of forearm; 2. a scientific and biometric way to individualize. ii. Fingerprints were later added to anthropometric records
47
Who was the first to identify and name specific friction ridge minutiae and those definitions:
* Sir Francis Galton * Friction ridge minutiae: i. Bifurcation (a uniting or dividing ridge), ii. Ending Ridges (end or beginning of a ridge), iii. Island (short ridge), iv. and Enclosure (two bifurcations facing each other).
48
When was the fingerprint system established in Canada and under what legislative sanction:
* July 21, 1908, "The Identification of Criminal Act."
49
When was the Canadian National Fingerprint Bureau established and how many sets of fingerprints were part of the original files:
* Established Feb. 1911 * 2042 sets of fingerprints
50
Anatomical layers of the human skin:
* Epidermis, * Dermis, * Hypodermis
51
Functions of the anatomical layers:
* Epidermis - prevents water loss, acts as a receptor organ, and provides a protective barrier for underlying tissues. * Dermis - connective tissue (cells, fibers, blood vessels, and gelatinous material) that provides structured supports to the epidermis, a blood reserve, participates in sensory reception and temperature regulation. * Hypodermis - is loose connective tissue that contains a pad of fat that contour the body and serves as an energy reserve.
52
Where is Volar Skin found:
* Underside of hands and feet.
53
Differences between volar skin and smooth skin:
* Smooth skin i. contains hair, sebaceous glands, sweat glands, and lacks friction ridges. * Volar skin i. contains only sweat glands and does not secrete sebaceous oils, volar areas lack pigmentation (lighter in colour), and has friction ridges.
54
What is the concentration of eccrine sweat glands on friction skin?
* 2500– 3000/2.5 cm2
55
What type of injury would cause a scar:
* Injury or disease that penetrates the skin to the dermal level can damage the epidermal base layer destroying the ability to regenerate cells in the damaged area.
56
Five layers of the epidermis:
i. Stratum Corneum ii. Stratum Lucidum iii. Stratum Granulosum iv. Stratum Spinosum v. Stratum Basale
57
Basic Components of friction skin:
i. Sweat Gland ii. Papillary Peg iii. Friction Ridge iv. Furrow v. Sweat Pores vi. Secondary Ridge vii. Primary Ridge at a Pore
58
Effects of aging on skin?
* Surface ridges flatten making appearance less sharp and loss of elasticity causes skin to wrinkle.
59
Alfred Hale – studied embryological growth and formation of the friction skin – his measurements in terms of age were noted in crown to rump lengths – what are these critical times of friction ridge skin development (Morphogenesis of volar skin in the human fetus):
* 3 weeks - formation of primary distinctions between ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm. Ectoderm goes on to form the epidermis. * 6 weeks - hand appears flat and paddlelike - volar pads start to appear. * 8 weeks - volar pads develop, fingers separate and elongate. * 10 weeks - interdigital and digital pads are prominent and thumbs rotate. * 10-12 weeks flexion creases appear * 10-13 weeks volar pads regress * 12-13 weeks - primary ridges format bottom of epidermis and pores develop * 15-16 weeks secondary ridges begin to form causing creasing. * 17-20 weeks secondary ridges appear between primary ridges on the underside of epidermis. * 23 weeks - dermal papilae form and secondary ridges mature.
60
What are volar pads
* Transient swellings of tissue called mesenchyme under the epidermis - develops on hands and soles of the feet of a human.
61
What is meant by volar pad regression
* The volar pad remains rounded during rapid growth (9-10 weeks) after which they begin to demonstrate individual variation in shape and position - volar pad isn't shrinking but are overtaken by faster growth of the larger surrounding surfaces.
62
What affects pattern type
* Volar Pad i. Size ii. Shape iii. Symmetry
63
Why are friction ridges unique:
* Ridge path to ridge shape is unique from random fusions on volar pads as the fetus grows * pattern formation from volar pad symmetry, * ridge count due to volar pad size, * minutae due to random localized stress from tissue growth, * ridge morphology, * maturation of skin over time.
64
What ensures the persistency of friction ridge skin:
* The basale layer of the epidermis is an immutable root system. Cells migrate towards the surface replacing sloughing cells achieving a persistent surface. * Epidermis reproduces three dimensional ridges due to structural attachments and regulation of keratinocyte production/differentiation at basale layer allowing fingerprints to be unchanged in a lifetime because of cell communication and structure of frictional skin.
65
What are the three main fingerprint pattern groups:
* Arch, * Loop, * Whorl
66
Arch pattern:
* Friction Ridges enter on one side of the impression and flow (tend to flow) out the other side with a wave in the center
67
Tented Arch pattern:
* A pattern type that possesses either an angle or upthrust (two of the three basic characteristics of the loop)
68
Loop Pattern:
* A pattern type of one or more friction ridges that enter on one side - recurve, touch, or pass an imaginary line between delta and core and flow out.
69
Plain Whorl
One or more friction ridges that make (tends to make) a complete circuit with two deltas between which when an imaginary line is drawn at least one recurving friction ridge within the inner pattern area is cut or untouched.
70
Accidental Whorl
pattern consisting of a combo of two types of patterns with two or more deltas (excludes plain arch), possesses some of the requirements for two or more different types of patters, a pattern type that conforms to none of the definitions of a pattern.
71
Central Pocket Loop Whorl
a pattern with two deltas and at least one friction ridge that makes or tends to make one complete circuit, an imaginary line drawn between the two deltas must not touch or cross any recurving friction ridges within the inner pattern area.
72
Double Loop Whorl
pattern type that consists of two separate loop formations with two separate and distinct sets of shoulders and two deltas.
73
Two types of impressions recorded on form C-216:
* Rolled impressions * Plain impressions to verify finger sequence of rolled impressions
74
Types of fingerprints found at crime scenes:
* Visible * Latent * Molded
75
What is the most common fingerprint:
* Ulnar Loop - flows towards Ulnar bone (or towards little finger).
76
How are latent fingerprints/physical evidence to be marked prior to photographing and lifting?
* R or P #s, * initials, * date, * file number * orientation * include a scale
77
Fingerprint development – two methods for developing/enhancing latent fingerprints on plastic bags
* Cyanoacrylate fuming and flourescent dyes * Vacuum metal deposition
78
1,2 Indandione-zinc solution can be used on what type of surface:
* On porous exhibits
79
Which technique is recommended on wet or damp non-porous surfaces?
* Molybdenum Disulfide
80
Are two fingerprint/friction ridge impressions of the same finger ever exactly alike? If not, why?
* No, two impressions are ever exactly alike, the surface areas of the friction ridge skin that touch the substrates are influenced by variations in appearance/distortion. Skin is 3D and is often reproduced in a 2D format - pressure, substrate, distortion can all affect how it looks
81
Describe the levels of details of friction ridge impression:
* First Level - general overall direction of ridge flow - not as unique i. Impressions of fingers, phalanges, tips, sides, palms, or soles have this, * Second Level - ridge path including sequences and configurations with other ridge paths - cannot be present without first level. i. Includes sequences and configurations with other ridge paths * Third Level - the shapes of the ridge structures (edges, textures, and pore positions) - cannot be present without second level. i. Unique in shape, sequence, and configuration
82
What two fundamental principles of the skin must be understood to reach a conclusion?
Uniqueness Persistency of skin
83
Name and describe the recommended friction ridge examination method:
* ACE-V Examination Method – i. Analysis: the assessment of an impression to decide on suitability for comparison, ii. Comparison: thorough side-by-side (ridge-to-ridge) comparison of all levels of details to determine whether two impressions are in agreement or disagreement, based on features, sequences, and spatial relationships within the tolerances established by the analysis of clarity and distortion, iii. Evaluation: the examiner’s assessment of the value of details observed during the analysis and comparison which forms the basis for a conclusion. iv. Verification: a requirement for an independent analysis, comparison, and evaluation by a subsequent certified examiner.
84
What are three conclusions that can be rendered during the evaluation stage of the process according to RCMP policy for friction ridge comparisons:
* Identification, the opinion that two friction ridge impressions originate from the same source. * Exclusion - the opinion made by an examiner that there is sufficient quality and quantity of detail in disagreement to conclude that two areas of friction ridge impressions did not originate from the same source, * Inconclusive the conclusion by an examiner that there is neither sufficient agreement to identify, nor sufficient disagreement to exclude.