final Flashcards

(166 cards)

1
Q

Name 5 different cell types.

A

Red blood cells, Nerve cells, Intestinal cells, White blood cells, Bone cell

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2
Q

Name at least 6 cell organelles.

A

Nucleus, Mitochondria, Ribosomes, Golgi apparatus, Vacuoles, Endoplasmic reticulum

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3
Q

What is the difference between euchromatin and heterochromatin?

A

Euchromatin: active areas, DNA loosely coiled and used, light staining regions of nucleus. Heterochromatin: inactive areas, DNA tightly coiled and not being used, dark regions of the nucleus.

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4
Q

What is the meaning of the nucleolus?

A

prominent, dense structure found inside the nucleus of eukaryotic cells

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5
Q

Which processes take place in the rough endoplasmic reticulum?

A

Protein biosynthesis and folding as well as membrane production.

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6
Q

Which processes take place in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?

A

Synthesis of various lipids and steroidal hormones and plays an important role in the detoxification of the cell.

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7
Q

What is the role of ribosomes?

A

They play an important role in protein biosynthesis, they participate in the production of membrane proteins intended for rejection from the cell.

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8
Q

How many subunits does a ribosome consist of?

A

2, 80 S

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9
Q

What is the role of mitochondria?

A

Production of ATP.

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10
Q

What is the endosymbiont theory?

A

The mitochondria and the chloroplast were originally single-cell organisms, ancient prokaryotes, until they got absorbed by eukaryote cells.

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11
Q

What distinguishes the mitochondrion from other cell organelles?

A

It has its own DNA and it produces ATP, can move around the cell and change their shape.

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12
Q

What is the Golgi apparatus?

A

Membrane-enclosed cavity, found everywhere in the cytoplasm of the cells, it receives and repairs proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum.

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13
Q

What is a tumor?

A

A tumor is a benign or malignant neoplasm of body tissues, which is caused by a dysregulation of cell growth.

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14
Q

What is a lipoma?

A

Benign tumor.

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15
Q

What is a sarcoma?

A
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16
Q

Name 5 characteristics of a malignant tumor.

A

Resistance to cell death, abnormal metabolic pathways, evasion of the immune system, inducing angiogenesis, activating invasion and metastasis.

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17
Q

How does a malignant tumor spread throughout the body?

A

Often spread along nerves or in lymphatic and blood vessels, or they migrate from the blood into the tissue.

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18
Q

What do you call a tumor that has arisen from pigment cells of the skin?

A

Malignant Melanoma or if it’s benign melanocyte nevus.

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19
Q

What do you call a tumor that has arisen from lymphoid cells?

A
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20
Q

What do you call a tumor that has arisen from embryonic cells?

A

Blastoma.

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21
Q

What do you call a tumor that has arisen from striated muscle cells?

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma (malignant) or rhabdomyoma (benign).

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22
Q

According to which systems is a tumor classified?

A

Tumors are classified according to their origin and according to the stages of development. UICC stages: stages of development, TNM: extent and spread of tumors.

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23
Q

What does a stage 3 tumor mean according to UICC?

A

Tumors of any size with metastases in 1-4 lymph nodes in the environment without distant metastases.

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24
Q

What does a breast tumor T1, N0, M0 mean?

A

T1: The primary tumor is smaller than 2 centimeters. N0: No infestation of the adjacent lymph nodes. M0: No clinical evidence of secondary tumors.

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25
What does a breast tumor T3, N1, M1 mean?
T3: The primary tumor is larger than 5 centimeters. N1: Metastases in lymph nodes of the armpit. M1: Remote metastases detectable.
26
Name 3 risk factors for the development of tumors.
Smoking, Excessive sun exposure, Bacterial or viral infections.
27
Which example of viral tumorigenesis do you know?
Human Papillomavirus.
28
Which example of bacterial tumorigenesis do you know?
Bacterium Helicobacter pylori.
29
How does a tumor lead to complications?
When it starts to squeeze the surrounding tissue, compressing hollow organs so that they are partially or completely closed.
30
Why is weight loss caused by cancer?
Due to several reasons: The patient doesn’t eat enough, the food is not well absorbed, the tumor produces a substance that leads to weight loss (TNF-alpha).
31
What does B symptomatology mean?
The combination of fever, night sweats and a weight loss of more than 10% of body weight within 6 months.
32
Name 8 therapeutic methods against solid tumors.
Surgery, Radiotherapy, Chemotherapy, Bone marrow and stem cell therapy, Gene therapy, Palliative and pain therapy, Targeted therapies, Supportive interventions.
33
What are the individual options to minimize the risk of a tumor disease?
Regular checkups, Avoid tobacco, Healthy diet, Protect from UV radiation.
34
Is there a prophylactic vaccination against some kinds of cancer?
Vaccinations against human papilloma reduce the risk of cervical cancer by 70%. Vaccinations against hepatitis B can protect against liver cancer.
35
Name 2 classic chemotherapeutic agents with their active ingredient name (INN).
Cisplatin, Doxorubicin.
36
What is targeted tumor therapy?
Type of cancer treatment that uses drugs or other substances to specifically target cancer cells while causing less harm to normal (healthy) cells.
37
What is immunotherapy?
Another type of treatment that works by activating the patient's immune system against tumor cells or supply the body with anti-tumoral immune cells.
38
To which kind of drug does the infix – zu and suffix -mab belong?
humanized monoclonal antibody drugs (mAbs)
39
What therapeutic options are there against vertebral body fracture?
Vertebroplasty, installation of one or two tiny boreholes with a special drill and the insertion of liquid cement into the vertebral body
40
What do we mean by incidence?
relative frequency of events in a population within a certain period of time, it provides information about new cases
41
What do we mean by prevalence?
is the proportion of sick people in a population, it provides information about existing cases
42
What do we mean by hazard and hazard ratio?
- Hazard: probability in a collective for the occurrence of an event over a certain period of time - Hazard ratio: ratio of two hazard
43
Why does the mortality rate from breast cancer decrease in Germany within the last few years?
Due to advances in therapy
44
Is there an ethnicity-dependent mortality rate for breast cancer? If yes, which group has the highest risk?
Yes, non-Hispanic black
45
What is a DCIS?
Ductal Carcinoma
46
What is a LCIS?
Lobular Carcinoma in the Mammary gland lobes
47
The occurrence of a Mamma-Ca is not evenly distributed over the female breast? Where is the greatest probability?
Right breast, Esquina superior derecha
48
Name causes and risk factors for breast cancer
- Family history - Gene mutation - Late childbearing - Early menstruation and late menopause - Increased breast density - Age
49
What is BRCA 1 and 2?
They are tumor suppressor genes. 1 is on chromosome 17, 2 is on chromosome 13
50
What does BRCA mutation lead to?
It increases the risk of cancer
51
Name 3 subtypes of breast cancer.
- Luminal-like - TNBC - HER2+
52
Which is the most common breast cancer subtype?
Luminal A
53
What is the most difficult breast cancer subtype to cure?
TNBC
54
What are the characteristics of TNBC?
- triple negative breast cancer - TNBC cells do not express estrogen receptors - More aggressive - Higher recurrence rate - Limited treatment options
55
What is KI 67?
Antigen KI 67 is a protein used to label dividing human cells and proliferation marker
56
What leads to a poorer survival probability in breast cancer?
- Tumor subtype (TNBC and HER2+) - Advanced stages (III-IV) - High-grade (grade III) - High KI-67 (indicates rapid cell proliferation) - When the cancer spreads to lymph nodes
57
Name 3 columns of breast cancer therapy.
- Surgery - Radiation - Systemic therapy
58
What are the building blocks of a systemic tumor therapy today?
- endocrine therapy - chemotherapy - target therapy
59
What is a sentinel lymph node? Why do we look at this?
the node of the lymphatic pathway that is located first starting from the tumor
60
What is the aim of breast tumor surgery?
Complete tumor removal and achieve local control of the disease.
61
What does neoadjuvant therapy mean?
It’s a therapy that attack and shrink the tumor as early as possible. Treatment given before the main treatment, usually before surgery.
62
What are positive and negative effects of breast conserving surgery?
- Positive: preservation of breast appearance, less invasive mastectomy - Negative: requires radiation therapy, risk of recurrence
63
What is a side effect of taxanes?
Nerve damage, muscle pain and hair loss
64
What is the AGO?
Professional organization based in Germany, is part of the German cancer society, its composed of experts in gynecologic cancer
65
Describe Neoadjuvant therapy by early breast cancer. What are the advantages?
Attack and shrink the tumor as early as possible. - Facilitation of surgery by reducing the tumor burden - Early determination of therapy sensitivity - pCR consistently associated with more favorable prognosis
66
Define micro metastases.
tiny clusters of cancer cells that have spread from the primary tumor to other parts of the body
67
What is Her 2?
human epidermal growth factor receptor 2
68
What are the components of an antibody drug conjugate?
- Monoclonal antibody (mAb) - Cytotoxic component (drug) - Linker or bridge (connects antibody with the drug)
69
How does an antibody drug conjugate work?
- Binding to the tumor receptor - Endocytosis in the tumor cell - Release of cytostatic drug
70
What is the mode of action of an immune checkpoint inhibitor?
They allow the immune system to fight cancer blocking inhibitory signals that normally keep immune responses in check.
71
What does a monoclonal antibody consist of?
Is a laboratory-produced protein designed to bind specifically to a single antigen. It consist of heavy and light chains, variable and constant regions
72
What does the ingredient -xi mean in the name of a monoclonal antibody?
refers to the origin of the antibody, specifically that it is chimeric, variable region from a mouse and constant region from a human
73
What does the ingredient -zu in the name of a monoclonal antibody mean?
That the antibody is humanized
74
What does the ingredient -tu mean in the name of a monoclonal antibody?
It indicates that the target of the antibody is a tumor
75
Name four risks for prostate cancer
- Older age - Family history - African ethnicity - Gene changes
76
Name 3 common genomic alterations in prostate cancer.
- Loss of PTEN - ETS-fusion genes - PCa-specific risk genes
77
Name 4 signs of prostate cancer.
- Weak or interrupted flow of urine - Sudden urge to urinate - Frequent urination (especially at night) - Trouble to start the flow of urine
78
What does PSA mean?
Prostate-Specific Antigen
79
What is the most common type of primary prostate cancer?
Prostatic adenocarcinoma
80
Name 4 sites of metastases of prostate cancer.
- Bone - Lung - Liver - Pleura
81
How does prostate cancer spread?
Three ways that prostate cancer spreads in the body - Tissue - Lymph system - Blood
82
What is the most common promotor for prostate cancer?
Androgens, especially Dihydrotestosterone
83
Name the 2 major histological types of lung cancer.
- Non-small cell cancer cells - Small cell cancer cells
84
What is the median age at diagnosis for lung cancer?
70 (65-74)
85
Which ethnicities are mostly affected by lung cancer?
African American and white population
86
Which lung cancer has the higher 5-year survival rate?
Non-Small cell lung cancer (NSCLC)
87
Name 4 risk factors for lung cancer.
- Smoking - Air pollution - Occupational exposures - Infection with the HIV
88
Name 4 signs and symptoms of Lung Cancer.
- Bone pain - Weight loss - Chest pain - Hemoptysis
89
What does driver mutation mean?
genetic alteration that directly contributes to the development and progression of cancer
90
Name 4 common driver gene mutation for NSCLC.
- AKTI - BRAF - HER2 - MEKI
91
How is non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) subdivided?
- Adenocarcinoma - Squamous cell carcinoma - Large cell carcinoma
92
Where do we use Cytokeratin 5/6 antibodies?
Is used in histo-chemistry, for cancer diagnosis, it is a marker of squamous epithelial cells
93
What are the symptoms of ovarian cancer?
- Abdominal pain - No appetite - Loss of weight - Disturbance of menstruation
94
When do symptoms of ovarian cancer occur?
Usually at a late stage
95
Name 5 risk factors for ovarian cancer.
- Older than 50 years - Childlessness - Close relatives with ovarian cancer - Severe obesity - Close relatives with previous disease of breast, uterine or colon cancer
96
Which gene alterations are known for ovarian cancer?
BRCA1 and BRCA2.
97
Which therapy concept is used for ovarian cancer?
- Surgery
98
Name 6 possible symptoms of ovarian cancer.
Abdominal pain, no appetite, loss of weight, disturbance of menstruation, disturbance of intestinal movement, enlargement of the abdominal circumference
99
Name 6 risk factors for ovarian cancer.
Older than 50 years, childlessness, close relatives with ovarian cancer, severe obesity, close relatives with previous disease of breast, uterine or colon cancer, hormone treatment to relieve menopausal symptoms
100
What mutations can lead to ovarian cancer?
Mutation in the BRCA genes
101
What is the special feature of ovarian cancer in terms of surgery?
It helps with the diagnosis and it’s the first therapy step
102
What is the disadvantage of minimally invasive surgery for ovarian cancer?
Risk of incomplete removal of the tumor and potentially worse survival outcomes
103
What does FIGO II mean for ovarian cancer?
FIGO is a classification of gynecological tumors. FIGO II means that the tumor has spread to adjacent tissues
104
What is tyrosine kinase?
They are a group of enzymes from the family of protein kinases, they play an important role in signal transduction
105
Where do we find therapeutic significance for targeted therapy of tyrosine kinases?
Cancers where specific mutations activate tyrosine kinase signaling pathways (NSCLC, HER2+)
106
Name 3 important Driver Gene Mutations sites in Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer (NSCLC) Adenocarcinoma.
ALK, EGFR, KRAS
107
What is the idea behind Immuno-checkpoint inhibitor therapy?
Allow the immune system to fight cancer, the inhibitors (PD-1 and PD-L1) allow the T cells to kill the cancer cells
108
Name 2 immune checkpoints we can control.
PD-1 (programmed cell death protein 1), PD-L1
109
What are characteristics of ROS1-Fusion-positive patients?
Young patients, non-small cell lung cancer (adenocarcinoma), non-smokers, female predominance, tendency for brain metastases
110
How are non-melanoma skin tumors sub-divided?
Basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma
111
Name 3 main layers of the skin.
Epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous layer (hypodermis)
112
Name the departments, components of the skin and the skin appendages.
Skin layers: epidermis, dermis, hypodermis; Components: cells, vessels and nerves; Appendages: hair follicles, sebaceous glands, sweat glands and nails
113
Name the anatomical components of the Epidermis.
Stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale
114
What is a Basal Cell Carcinoma?
Most common of all types of skin cancer, usually occurs in sun-exposed areas of the body, such as neck or face
115
What is a Squamous cell carcinoma?
Second most common skin cancer
116
What is a Melanoma?
Most dangerous and aggressive form of skin cancer, can develop anywhere on the body, highest rate of metastases
117
Name a major driver mutation in malignant melanoma.
BRAF V600
118
How can you prevent skin cancer?
Avoid the sun during the middle of the day, use sunscreen, wear protective clothing, avoid tanning beds, regularly doctor appointments
119
What does ABCDE diagnostics in dermatology mean?
A: asymmetry, B: border, C: color, D: diameter, E: evolving
120
What are TILs?
Tumor-Infiltrating Lymphocytes
121
Which gender has a higher risk for gastric cancer?
Male
122
Name 4 risk factors for gastric cancer.
Genetic, Helicobacter pylori infection, male gender and older age, smoking
123
Define 'Paraneoplastic syndrome' and give an example.
Symptoms that are not locally caused by the tumor or its metastases
124
How does a paraneoplastic syndrome develop?
It’s unclear but likely secondary to substances secreted by the tumor, they develop in up to 20% of tumor patients, but their symptoms are often not noticed.
125
What is a Wilms Tumor?
Kidney tumor that primarily affects children
126
What is renal involvement with renal cell carcinoma in a patient usually like?
Renal cell carcinoma typically begins as a tumor in the kidney’s cortical tissue
127
How is a renal cell carcinoma discovered?
Most kidney tumors are accidentally discovered during another examination in the abdomen
128
Where do metastases of a renal cell carcinoma occur?
Most frequently in the lungs, skeletal system and lymph nodes, less often in the brain and liver.
129
What is the meaning of TNM?
T: size of the tumor, N: involvement of the lymph nodes, M: presence of metastases
130
Name the solid blood particles.
Erythrocytes, leukocytes, thrombocytes
131
Which progenitor cells for blood cells exist?
Hematopoietic Stem Cell
132
Where does hematopoiesis take place in adults?
Bone marrow: pelvis, ribs, vertebrae, skull bones, sternum
133
What is a CFU baso?
Type of committed progenitor cell in the hematopoietic lineage
134
What is the function of eosinophilic granulocytes?
They make up about 1–5% of leukocytes in the differential blood count and are involved in cellular immune defense. Important role in the control of allergic reactions.
135
What is the function of neutrophils?
Specialized immune cells of vertebrates. Their main task is the defense against pathogens (such as bacteria and viruses).
136
What are the most common white blood cells in healthy people?
Neutrophils
137
What does 'shift to the left' mean?
Increase in the number of immature neutrophils in the blood
138
In which cells do monocytes transform?
Phagocytes
139
What are the 2 types of lymphocytes and what are their functions?
B-lymphocytes: produce antibodies against pathogens; T-lymphocytes: they can attack foreign cells directly and organize the defense against pathogens.
140
Which cells produce antibodies?
B-lymphocytes
141
Name 5 growth factors.
Epidermal, vascular endothelial, platelet-derived, granulocyte, transforming growth factor-beta
142
Who coined the term leukemia?
Rudolf Virchow in 1845
143
Name 6 symptoms of leukemia.
Fatigue, frequent infections, fever, loss of appetite, small red spots on the skin of the legs, low platelet count
144
Name 4 types of leukemias.
Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL), acute myeloid leukemia (AML), chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL), chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)
145
Name the top 3 types of lymphoma.
Indolent (or low-malignant) non-Hodgkin's lymphomas, aggressive non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, Morbus Hodgkin
146
What is CHOP?
Combination therapy of the following four drugs: Cyclophosphamide, Hydroxydaunorubicin, Oncovin, Prednisone
147
What is the main symptom of MDS?
Anemia
148
What is multiple myeloma?
Malignant degeneration of plasma cells
149
Why does malignant myeloma lead to anemia?
Because it inhibits the red blood cells formation
150
Against which diseases is thalidomide still used today?
It is used against the multiple myeloma
151
Name 5 risk factors for leukemia.
Chemical and toxic substances, genetics, familial background, ionizing radiation, health status
152
What does CD mean in tumor biology?
Cluster of Differentiation
153
What is karyotyping?
Laboratory technique used to visualize and analyze the complete set of chromosomes in a cell
154
What is minimal residual disease?
Small number of cancer cells that remain in the body after treatment
155
What is a CAR T-cell therapy?
Chimeric Antigen Receptor T-cell therapy, immunotherapy used to treat certain cancers
156
Name 5 hallmarks of cancer.
Resistance to cell death, inducing angiogenesis, abnormal metabolic pathways, evasion of the immune system, genome instability
157
What is estrogen and what does it do?
Group of steroid hormones primarily responsible for the development and regulation of the female reproductive system and secondary sexual characteristics
158
What is tamoxifen and what does it do?
Selective estrogen receptor modulator, widely used in the treatment and prevention of estrogen receptor-positive (ER+) breast cancer
159
Which type of lung cancer grows very quickly?
Small cell lung cancer (SCLC)
160
Which tumor has the highest mortality rate among gynecological tumors?
Ovarian cancer
161
Name 3 reasons for this (question above).
Its often diagnosed at a late stage, it tends to spread within the peritoneal cavity before detection, the symptoms at early stages are vague or absent
162
What does CUP mean in oncology?
Cancer of Unknown Primary
163
What is an average size of a red blood cell, diameter and height (with its unit)?
- Diameter 7-8 micrometers - Height 2 micrometers
164
Which human cell can be seen with the naked eye?
Ovum (egg cell)
165
What are the names of the 3 cotyledons in mammals?
- Ectoderm - Mesoderm - Endoderm
166