1
Q
All matter is composed of building blocks called ______ and _______
A
-atoms
-molecules
2
Q
TRUE or FALSE:
Mass remains unchanged regardless of the state it’s in.
A
True
3
Q
What is the definition of energy
A
Ability to do work
4
Q
The fundamental units are:
A
Mass, length, time
5
Q
List the 6-7 different types of energy
A
Mechanical (Potential, Kinetic)
Chemical
Electrical
Thermal
Nuclear
Electromagnetic
6
Q
Energy emitted and transferred through space is what?
A
Radiation
7
Q
What is the highest frequency on the electromagnetic scale?
A
Gamma rays
8
Q
What are the 2 sources of ionizing radiation? And list two examples of these different types. (6pts)
A
-Natural: natural radiation from earth, cosmic rays
-Man made: x-rays, nuclear reactors
9
Q
Length is measured in what?
A
m
10
Q
Time is measure in what?
A
s
11
Q
What are the 2 forms of mechanical energy?
A
- Potential
- Kinetic
12
Q
The number of______________ determines the chemical element.
A
protons
13
Q
The closer the electron is to the nucleus, the ______________ the binding energy.
A
greater/ higher
14
Q
Name 2 nonionizing radiation modalities used today.
A
MRI and Ultrasound
15
Q
Give the formula for maximum number of electrons per shell.
A
2n^2
16
Q
Using the formula above figure the maximum number of electrons in the “P” shell.
A
2(6)^2= 2 (36)= 72
17
Q
What makes up 80% of the human body?
A
water
18
Q
What is the smallest particle of an element?
A
an Atom
19
Q
What is a radioactive disintegration or radioactive decay?
A
Radioactivity
20
Q
What is the smallest particle of a compound?
A
molecule
21
Q
On the electromagnetic spectrum, all radiation travels at what speed?
A
speed of light
186,000 miles per second
22
Q
Ionizing radiation intensity decreases as:
A
distance from the source of radiation increases
23
Q
A source of Tc produces a radiation intensity of 1.5 μGy / hr (150mR/hr) at 10m.
At what distance does that exposure rate equal 10 μGy/ hr
A
3.9 m
24
Q
Rank in order the following types of electromagnetic radiation according to their wavelength, using #1 for the one with the longest wavelength and #8 for the one with the shortest wavelength
A
- Radio waves
- Microwaves
- Infrared light
- visible light
- Ultraviolet light
- x-rays
- gamma rays
- cosmic rays
25
What are the two different categories of ionizing radiation?
Particulate & Electromagnetic
26
What are the 2 different types of radiation within particulate radiation?
-Alpha particles
-Beta Particles
27
True or False:
In a neutral atom, the total number of orbital electrons exactly equals the total number of positive charges in the nucleus.
True
28
Change 1000 volts to kilovolts
1
29
Convert 14mrem to the whole SI unit
14/ 1000 m = 0.014 rem
0.014/100 =0.00014 sieverts
30
31
Convert 15 Gy to the whole traditional unit
15/.01= 1,500 rad
32
Electrostatics is the branch of physics that deal with:
stationary or resting charges
33
Electrification is:
addition or removal of electrons to a body of matter
34
Direct current:
Flows only in one direction
35
What opposes or hinders the flow of electric current
ohms
36
One dry cell is equal to ____ volts.
1.5
37
One wet cell is equal to ____ volts.
2
38
What factor is responsible for driving the charged particles in an electric circuit?
volts
39
Which of the following measures the quantity of electric charges flowing per sec.
Ammeter
40
Which of the following measures potential difference:
Voltmeter
41
In a series circuit, if one of the resistances quits working:
All of the rest of them will quit working also
42
In a parallel circuit, if one of the resistances quits working:
Just that branch will quit working
43
A kilovolt is:
1000 volts
44
A milliamp is:
1/1000 of an amp
45
The classification of matter that will allow electrons to move through them is called-
conductor
46
The classification of matter that will NOT allow electrons to move through them under certain conditions is called -
non-conductor
47
The classification of matter that will allow electrons to move through them under certain conditions is called
semi-conductor
48
The earth is an infinite source of electrons
ground
49
Potential difference is measured in
volts
50
Current is measured in
amps
51
Resistance is measured in
ohms
52
Like charges attract, unlike charges repel
false
53
The concentration of charges on a curved surface of a conductor is greatest where the curvature is the greatest.
True
54
Only positive charges can move in a solid conductor.
False
55
Electrodynamics is the science of:
Electric charges in motion
56
An electric current in a solid conductor consists of a flow of:
Electrons only
57
What is the voltage in a circuit with 20 amps and 4 ohms of resistance?
80 volts
58
What is the amperage in a circuit with 15 volts and 2 ohms resistance?
7.5 amps
59
Which of the following are examples of a conductor?
Copper, Aluminum
60
Which of the following are examples of an insulator?
Rubber, Glass
61
Resistance becomes _________ as the temperature of the conductor decreases
lower
62
A circuit in which all of the resistances are connected consecutively, or one right after the other
Series Circuit
63
There are three ways we can electrify a body of matter. List each
1. Friction
2. Contact
3. induction
64
What is the purpose of grounding?
neutralize energy, for protection
65
How much current will a series circuit conduct, when the circuit consists of (2) 15 volt batteries, a 1.5 ohm resistor, a 4.25 ohm resistor, and a 0.75 ohm resistor?
4.62 amps
66
True or False:
Every magnet has two poles, a north and a south
True
67
True or False:
Like magnetic poles attract and unlike magnetic poles repel.
False
68
True or false:
The poles of a magnet also always have an electric charge associated with them.
false
69
What will be the voltage on the secondary side of a high voltage transformer if the incoming source is 240 volts and the primary windings are 500 and the secondary 50,000? (2 =answers one in volts and one in kV)
24,000 volts or 24 kvp
70
True or false:
There is no evidence of any force or attraction between poles of a magnet.
False
71
True or false:
If you have a large bar magnet and break it into two pieces, each fragment will remain only a north or a south pole.
False
72
True or false:
If all magnetic domains in an object are aligned it acts like a magnet.
True
73
The zone of influence aroung a magnet is called a ___________
magnetic field
74
The purpose of a transformer is that it changes the intensity of ________ and ________
volts and amps
75
How much voltage was supplied to a transformer if its output was 90 volts and its ratio was 2000:5?
0.225 volts
76
If a transformer has an output of 120,000 volts and is supplied with 120 volts, how many turns are there on the secondary side if there are 10 turns on the primary?
10,000 turns
77
If a transformer is supplied with 220 volts and has an output of 220,000 volts and there are 10,000 turns on the secondary side, how many coils were on the primary?
10 turns
78
What is the amperage in the primary coil if it was supplied by 110 volts and the secondary coil has 4400 volts and 20 milliamps?
800 mA or .8 amps
79
If the amperage in the primary coil was 10 amps and the amperage in the secondary is 4 amps and 120 volts, what was the voltage in the primary?
48 volts
80
Which of the following is an example of Diamagnetic Material?
-wood
-gadolinium
-water
-iron
water
81
Which of the following is an example of a Paramagnetic Material?
-wood
-gadolinium
-water
-iron
Gadolinium
82
A coil of wire is called:
solenoid
83
The ability of a material to attract iron, cobalt, or nickel:
Magnetism
84
Materials that are weakly repelled by magnetic fields is?
Diamagnetic
85
Materials that are not attracted to magnetic fields at all are?
non-magnetic
86
Materials that are strongly attracted to magnetic fields are?
Ferromagnetic
87
Materials that are weakly attracted to magnetic fields:
Paramagnetic
88
Moving a conductor through a magnetic field induces an electric current in that conductor is?
Electromagnetic induction
89
Device that converts some form of mechanical energy to electrical energy:
Generator
90
Device that converts electric energy to mechanical energy through electromagnetic induction:
Motor
91
MRI machines being utilized in the medical field currently have what strength?
0.5T- 4.0T
92
The strength of the magnetic field is measured in the SI unit _______
Tesla
93
Quantity of the beam is:
The number of photons in an x-ray beam
94
List the factors that affect the quantity of the beam:
-mAs
-kVp
-distance
-filtration
95
List the factors that affect the quality of the beam:
-kVp
-filtration
96
True or false:
The operating console allows the technologist control of the x-ray tube current and voltage
True
97
Line Compensator is used for:
Measures the voltage provided to the system and adjusts so the voltage is precisely 220v
98
Which of the following is a fixed ratio transformer?
High voltage generator
99
The autotransformer is a:
Variable ratio transformer
100
The autotransformer is located between the high voltage _______ and the ________ side of the high voltage step up transformer
input and primary
101
The autotransformer operates on the principle of:
self induction
102
The primary voltage and the secondary voltage of the autotransformer are directly related to the ____________ of the transformer.
number of turns
103
The autotransformer is a:
kV selector
104
What is the Autotransformer Law Equation?
Vs / Vp = Ns / Np
Vs/ Vp= tappedturns/ primaryturns
105
106
The ________ side of the autotransformer becomes the ________ side of the high voltage generator.
secondary and primary
107
The kVp meter is placed across the output terminals of the autotransformer and read kilovoltage.
false
108
True or false?
The kVp meter registers only when an exposure is being made.
false
109
Tube current is measured in:
mA
110
Increase filament current, ________ temperature and ________ electrons
increase and increase
111
Filament normally operates at what currents?
5-7 amps
112
True or false?
Tube current is controlled through a separate circuit
true
113
Filament transformer is what type of transformer
step down
114
List the four different types of timing circuits:
- synchronous timer
-electronic timer
-mAs timer
-AEC
115
What is the high voltage generator responsible for:
Increasing the output voltage from the autotransformer to the kVp necessary for the x-ray production
116
X-ray generator is what type of transformer?
step up
117
Label the description of the timers with the timer it relates to. Use the first letter of the timer -
Most sophisticated:
Electronic timer
118
Label the description of the timers with the timer it relates to. Use the first letter of the timer -
Designed to drive a shaft precisely 60 revolutions per second
synchronous timer
119
Label the description of the timers with the timer it relates to. Use the first letter of the timer -
Located on the secondary side of the high voltage transformer
mAs timer
120
Label the description of the timers with the timer it relates to. Use the first letter of the timer -
Usually used at timing mechanisms
synchronous timer
121
Label the description of the timers with the timer it relates to. Use the first letter of the timer -
Measures the quantity of radiation that reaches the IR
AEC
122
Label the description of the timers with the timer it relates to. Use the first letter of the timer -
Automatically terminates when IR has received the required amount of radiation
AEC
123
Label the description of the timers with the timer it relates to. Use the first letter of the timer -
Most accurate
Electronic timer
124
Label the description of the timers with the timer it relates to. Use the first letter of the timer -
Cannot be used for serial exposures
synchronous timer
125
Label the description of the timers with the timer it relates to. Use the first letter of the timer -
Allow for a wide range of time intervals as small as 1ms.
electronic timer
126
Label the description of the timers with the timer it relates to. Use the first letter of the timer -
Usually designed to provide the highest safe tube current for the shortest exposure time
mA timer
127
Label the description of the timers with the timer it relates to. Use the first letter of the timer -
Most common is a flat, parallel plate ionization chamber
AEC
128
True or false:
Transformers operate on both AC and DC current.
false
129
130
High voltage transformer operates on:
mutual induction
131
The high voltage transformer is a:
fixed ratio transformer
132
What is process of converting AC to DC?
rectification
133
True ir false:
Half wave rectification wastes half of the power supply.
True
134
Which rectification system is more efficient?
Full- wave
135
The amount of amperage coming into the transformer is 20 amps at a voltage of 110. What will be the amperage if the voltage is reduced to 80 volts?
27.5 amps
136
The x-ray tube has three circuits. What are they?
1. Primary
2. Secondary
3. Filament
137
If a single phase generator is set to 80 kVp, what will the approximate lowest voltage supplied be?
0 volts
138
If a three phase, six pulse generator is set to 90 kVp, what will be the approximate lowest voltage supplied?
77.4 lowest kVp
139
If a high frequency generator is set for 100kVp, what will be the approximate lowest voltage supplied?
99 lowest kVp
140
If a three phase, twelve pulse generator is set for 90kVp what will be the approximate lowest voltage supplied?
86.85 kVp
141
If a three phase, six pulse radiographic generator is set for 75 kVp, what will be the highest voltage supplied?
75 kVp
142
This generator is used in some portable systems. It operates by charging a series of SCRs. The stored charge is a very high voltage. During exposure, the charge is released to form the x-ray tube current. What am I?
Capacitor Discharge Generator
143
This generator ensures the shortest exposure time. What am I?
Falling Load Generator
144
If the amperage in the primary coil is 50 amps and the voltage is 140 volts, what is the amperage in the secondary coil if its voltage is 2800 volts?
2.5 amps
145
What was the amperage in the primary coil if it was supplied by 110 volts and the secondary coil has 4400 volts and 20 milliamps?
800 milliamps or 0.8 amps
146
Result of small currents built up in the core material - reduced by laminating core material:
Eddy currents losses
147
Caused by the resistance of current flow - large diameter wire will help:
copper losses
148
Result of the continuously changing magnetic domains of the core material - reduced by using silicon for core material:
hysteresis losses
149
FDA mandates that diagnostic x-ray machines operating consoles must indicate what three conditions of exposure?
-mAs
-kVp
-when the tube is charged
150
True or False?
X-ray photons must scatter at least 4 times before they can enter any openings of the control booth area
False
151
The floor of the control booth must be ____ square foot or larger
7.5
152
The wall of the control booth, facing the table, must be ___ ft high and fixed to the floor
7
153
X-ray tubes must be equipped with a metal housing to prevent leakage radiation. The housing must confine a leakage amount of less than ______ per hour when measured at a distance of 1m away from housing.
100mR
154
The x-ray tube position, in relation to the IR, must be indicated clearly (SID indicator) and must be accurate to within _____ of the SID
2%
155
What are the main goals of a QC program?
-better quality images
-minimize dose for patient and staff
-better cost effectiveness
156
What are the three parts of a QC program?
1. visual inspection
2. environmental inspection
3. performance inspections
157
Checking main components of the equipment to ensure that there are no hazardous, inoperative, out-of-alignment, or improperly operating items in the system:
visual inspection
158
Evaluates the performance of the x-ray generator and x-ray tubes with specialized test instrumentation
performance testing
159
Involves general observation of mechanical and electrical integrity and stability
environmental inspection
160
The maximum variability allowed in reproducibility is ____
± 5%
161
Variations between the stated kVp and the x-ray beam quality must be within ____.
± 5%
162
What test tool is used to check kVp accuracy?
Wisconsin Test Tool
163
What is a Oscilloscope used for?
show information on voltage waveform - rectifier malfunction, contact or switching problems, timer accuracy
164
The variability allowed for timer accuracy is ____ for exposure times longer than 10ms, and ____ for exposure times less than 10ms.
±5%, ±20%
165
The x-ray tube must be mounted in it housing so that the central ray of the x-ray beam is within ____ of perpendicular.
1 degree
166
Overload Protection mechanism should not permit an exposure that exceeds ____ of the tube capacity for a single exposure
80%
167
Edges of the light field and the radiation field must be congruent to within ____ of the SID
±2%
168
Refers to the same mAs being selected but with different combinations of mA and time
reciprocity
169
Sequential increases in mAs should produce the same sequential increase in exposure measured
linearity
170
Focal spot size can increase with age and use
focal spot blooming
171
The "space cloud" is the:
Electrons boiled off at filament waiting to travel across tube
172
The focusing cup behind the filament carries a _______ charge.
negative
173
In a double focus tube there are _______.
two filaments
174
What type of material is the filament made out of?
Thoriated - Tungsten
175
What type of material is the focal track of a rotating anode?
Tungsten-Rhenium Alloy
176
What type of material is the disk of the rotating anode made of?
Tungsten - Rhenium Alloy
177
What is the main advantage of the rotating anode over the stationary anode?
It dissipates heat with more efficiency allowing for higher tube output
178
The purpose of the rotor switch is to
Allow the filament to heat up and to allow the anode to start rotating
179
The actual focal spot is located:
On the focal track
180
The effective focal spot is located ________
On the image receptor
181
With anode angles of 10, 12, 17 degrees, which angle would produce the smallest effective focal spot?
10 degrees
182
True or false?
After prolonged use, an anode disk can become pitted or etched.
true
183
The preparation or boost time of the tube should be as short as possible due to which of the following:
a. To extend the life of the filament, so the filament temperature isn't high or at full value for an unnecessary amount of time.
b. To extend the life of the bearing of the rotating anode
c. To make for a short exposure producing less radiation to the patient
all of the above
184
The protective housing is made up of what?
a. Glass
b. Metal
c. Steel
a and b
185
Explain the difference between useful beam and leakage radiation?
The useful beam are the useful x-ray photons that comes out of the tube and aims for the patient for a well exposure.
Leakage radiation is what might come out of the tube housing, increases patient dose, the tube should be checked frequently to avoid leakage
186
What are the two primary parts of the cathode side of the tube?
1. filaments
2. Focusing cup
187
The cathode's charge is:
negative
188
When electrons of the filament atoms are "boiled off" and ejected from the filament explains what:
Thermionic emission
189
Why is the filament dipped in Thorium?
To increase heating ability
190
What is the focusing cup?
What charge does it have?
Shroud that the filament sits in
Negative
191
What is NOT a way to determine the focusing cup?
-It's charge
-Size and shape of focusing cup
-Space Charge Effect
-Size and Shape of filament
space charge effect
192
True or false?
When the x-ray machine is initially turned on there is a low current that passes through the filament to warm and prepare it
true
193
True or false?
A large increase in filament current results in a large increase in tube current
False
194
Why is a small focal spot size preferred over a large focal spot?
better detail / increased spatial resolution
195
When 400 mA or higher is used, what focal spot should also be used?
Large focal spot
196
The anode has what type of charge?
positive
197
What are the two different types of anodes?
In what systems are those anodes used?
Rotating: Used most commonly in x-ray tubes today
stationary: used in old times, yet are still used in dental offices
198
The purpose of the line focus principle is to:
Allow a large area of heating while a small focal spot is used
199
The angle of the anode can vary from _____to ______degrees
7 - 18 degrees
200
The consequence of line focus principle is what?
anode heel effect
201
Smaller the anode angle, the ______ the anode heel effect.
larger
202
High capacity rotating x-ray tubes rotate at what rpm?
3,000 rpm
15,000 rpm
10,000 rpm
7,000 rpm
10,000 rpm
203
Specialty tubes like mammo tubes have what type of targets?
Molybdenum or Rhodium
204
list 3 ways of heat dissipation:
Conduction
Radiation
Convection
205
List the 3 types of rating charts:
Radiographic Rating Chart
Anode Cooling Chart
Housing Cooling Chart
206
Which of the rating charts is the most important for technologists?
Radiographic Rating Chart
207
What is the focal spot for a stationary anode x-ray tube?
4mm square
208
A technique of 50 kV, 100 mA, 0.1 seconds is to be used on a 3-phase, 12 pulse machine. How many heat units are produced with a single exposure?
705 HU
209
Which of the following is a component of an electromagnetic induction motor?
stator
210
A technique of 80 kV, 400 mA, 0.8 seconds is to be used on a 3-phase, 12 pulse machine. How many heat units are produced with a single exposure?
36,096
211
Radiographic examination of the lateral c-spine with a single-phase imaging system requires 110 kVp, 85 mAs.
How many heat units are generated by this exposure?
9350 HU
212
Radiographic examination of the abdomen series with a three phase, 6 pulse imaging system requires 80 kVp, 75 mAs for 2 upright exposures and 85 kVp, 80 mAs for 2 supine exposures.
How many TOTAL heat units are generated?
34,560 HU
213
Most of the kinetic energy of the projectile electron is converted to:
heat
214
What shell electrons are interacted with when heat is generated?
outer shell
215
____ % of projectile electrons kinetic energy is transferred to x-ray photons
1%
216
If you increase heat your tube current ______
increases
217
What happens to the efficiency of x-ray production when kVp increases?
increases
218
What two target interactions occur to create x-ray photons?
Characteristic radiation
Bremsstrahlung radiation
219
List 3 interactions that occur within matter:
compton scatter
photoelectric absorption
coherent scatter
220
True or false:
K-characteristic x-rays require an x-ray tube potential of at least 55 kVp
false
221
Most x-rays are _________ x-rays
Bremsstralung radiation
222
Explain the difference between the discrete spectrum and the continuous spectrum.
Discrete: only specific values
Continuous: all possible values
223
Are L-characteristic x-rays valuable in diagnostic radiology?
no
224
Energies of a continuous spectrum can range from ______to _____
0 keV to peak
225
If x-ray energy increases, the wavelength _______
decreases
226
List the 5 things that affect the x-ray emission spectrum
tube current
tube voltage
added filtration
target material
voltage waveform
227
If you double your mA, this changes the _______ of the x-ray spectrum
amplitude
228
If you increase your kVp, this change the ________ of the x-ray spectrum
Position
Quality
Amplitude
229
By increasing kVp by 15%, your quantity will ____
double
230
Adding filtration, ______ beam intensity and _______ energy.
decreases and increases
231
True or False: There is no way to calculate the exact change that occurs in x-ray quantity and quality when there is added filtration.
true
232
Atomic number of the target affects ______and _______of xray emission
quantity and quality
233
As the atomic number of the target increases, the efficiency of the production of Brems radiation _______ and high energy x-rays ______ .
increase and increase
234
Because of the reduced ripple, how much do you need to increase kVp of a single phase generator to match that of 3 phase or high frequency
12 %
235
The shift of the characteristic x-ray spectrum to higher energy occurs because of which of the following?
Increase in target atomic number
236
When a bremsstrahlung x-ray is produced
A projectile electron loses energy.
237
The area under the curve of the x-ray emission spectrum represents:
The total number of x-ray
238
The x-ray emission spectrum is a plot of:
The number of x-rays versus energy
239
The amplitude of the bremsstrahlung x-ray emission spectrum:
Has maximum value at energy approximately one third of the kVp
240
When the mAs is increased, x-ray quantity:
Increases proportionately
241
Who invented the fluoroscope and in what year?
Thomas Edison
1896
242
A radiologist may want to preserve something to review later; then a permanent image can be obtained without interruption of the exam - this is the definition of:
Spot film
243
X-ray tube is usually hidden ______the patient, and the image intensifier or IR is set ______ the patient
under and over
244
In fluoroscopy the x-ray tube is operated at less than:
5 mA
245
Why is patient dose considerably higher in fluoroscopy?
the xray beam exposes the patient continuously for a longer amount of time
246
Fluoroscopic equipment allows the radiologist to select an image brightness level that is then maintained automatically by varying the kVp and mA
ABC
247
True or false?
Tube components are contained within a glass envelope, which is then held inside a metal container.
true
248
True or false:
There is no need for the fluoroscopic tube components to maintain a vacuum.
false
249
X-rays that exit the patient and are incident on the image intensifier tube are transmitted through the glass envelope and interact with what?
Input phosphor
250
Image intensifier tube is approximately how long?
50 cm
251
X-ray photons interact with the input phosphor and it's energy is converted to:
visible light
252
Emits electrons when illuminated by the input phosphor
photocathode
253
Where accelerated electrons interact and produce light
output cathode
254
The ratio of the number of light photons at the output phosphor to the number of x-rays at the input phosphor
flux gain
255
The product of the minification gain and the flux gain:
brightness gain
256
The image from the larger input phosphor is condensed onto the smaller output phosphor. Because the image is emitted from a smaller area, it appears brighter:
minification gain
257
Conversion factor is approximately ______ times the brightness gain
1%
258
X-ray tube that delivers radiation in short, high intensity pulses at about one per second
pulsed interlaced
259
Kinetic energy released per unit mass of air
air kerma
260
The minimum source to skin distance for specialized units is:
20 cm or 8 in
261
The minimum source to skin distance for fixed or stationary units is:
38 cm or 15 in
262
The minimum source to skin distance for mobile units is:
30 cm or 12 in
263
Magnification mode = ______ spatial resolution, _____contrast, _______patient dose
increase
increase
increase
264
When was the Image Intensifier was introduced ?
1950’s
265
Explain what a deadman switch is.
x-ray that is activated with either handheld button or foot pedal that releases continuous x-ray when foot pedal is depressed.
266
Which part of the image intensifier is made of cesium iodide?
input phosphor
267
Part of the image intensifier that is made of cesium and antimony compounds
photocathode
268
What is bonded to the curved edge of the image intensifier?
photocathode
269
What are the negatively charged plates along the length of the image intensifier tube?
Electrostatic Focus Lens
270
What part of the image intensifier is made of silver - activated zinc cadmium sulfide
Output phosphor
271
ICRUM now recommends using a ____________ to quantify the increase in brightness created by the image intensifier
conversion factor
272
A newer alternative to the image intensifier is ___________. The new intensifier is made up of active matrix array very similar to DR imaging.
Flat-panel Detector
273
List two advantages of DR fluoro over Image intensifier fluoroscopy.
-table can lower and raise
-less bulky and heavy
-lower patient dose
274
What are the two ways that the viewing systems can be coupled to the output phosphor?
Fiberoptic bundle
optics lens system
275
What are the two devices that are usually used as viewing systems
camera tube
charged couple device
276
List 3 of the 5 types of Image Intensifier artifacts:
pincushion
vignetting
s shaped
277
The diameter of the input phosphor is:
curved
278
Using magnification in fluoroscopy, _____detail, _____patient dose.
increase
increase
279
Newer units, lines appear on the last image hold displayed on the monitor - indicates the collimator plates:
virtual collimation
280
Operation that reduces overall patient dose and image noise by averaging multiple image frames together:
frame averaging
281
282
Automatically adjusts the mA, kVp, filtration, and pulse width to maintain exposure to the flat panel detector
Automatic Exposure Rate Control (AERC)
283
How many pulses occur per second of operation is:
pulse rate
284
The length of each pulse is:
pulse width
285
Meter measure exposure in the air - followed by the computation to estimate absorbed dose:
DAP- Dose area product
286
The product of the total air kerma and the area of the x-ray beam at the entrance of the patient
KAP- Kerma area product
Physics for Radiographers
flashcards
Decks in class (8)
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