final exam Flashcards

(58 cards)

1
Q

What are the 5 major mechanisms of enzyme control?

A

Covalent changes, conformational/allosteric changes, product inhibition, substrate/cofactor availability, regulatory macromolecules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Is zymogen activation reversible or irreversible?

A

Irreversible proteolytic cleavage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Example of zymogen activation?

A

Trypsinogen → Trypsin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Phosphorylation is what type of modification?

A

Reversible covalent modification.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which enzyme catalyzes phosphorylation?

A

Kinases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Allosteric regulation definition?

A

Effector binds to non-active site causing conformational change.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Effect of allosteric activator?

A

Increases enzyme affinity for substrate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Effect of allosteric inhibitor?

A

Decreases substrate binding at catalytic site.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Curve shape of allosteric enzyme?

A

Sigmoidal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Feedback inhibition definition?

A

Product inhibits early enzyme in pathway.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Competitive inhibition effect on Km?

A

Km increases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Competitive inhibition effect on Vmax?

A

Vmax unchanged.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where do competitive inhibitors bind?

A

Active site.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How to overcome competitive inhibitor?

A

Increase substrate concentration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Noncompetitive inhibition effect on Km?

A

Km unchanged.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Noncompetitive inhibition effect on Vmax?

A

Vmax decreases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Where do noncompetitive inhibitors bind?

A

Allosteric/regulatory site.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Definition of suicide inhibitor?

A

Processed by enzyme then irreversibly inactivates it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Example of suicide inhibitor?

A

Aspirin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Transition-state analog binds with what affinity?

A

Very high affinity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Unspecific inhibition occurs when?

A

Non-physiological conditions like pH, heat, detergents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Example of product inhibition?

A

G6P inhibiting hexokinase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Intrinsic control definition?

A

Metabolite-based regulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Extrinsic control definition?

A

Hormone-based regulation.

25
Positive effector example?
ADP activates PFK-1.
26
Negative effector example?
ATP inhibits PFK-1.
27
Bacterial RNA polymerase core composition?
α2 β β' ω (5 subunits).
28
What forms the RNA polymerase holoenzyme?
Core enzyme + sigma factor.
29
Function of sigma factor?
Promoter recognition and initiation.
30
RNA Pol I function?
Transcribes rRNA except 5S.
31
RNA Pol II function?
Transcribes mRNA.
32
RNA Pol III function?
Transcribes tRNA + 5S rRNA.
33
CTD phosphorylation allows what?
RNA Pol II elongation.
34
Why multienzyme complexes?
Increase speed, protect intermediates, increase efficiency.
35
PDC components?
E1 decarboxylase, E2 transacetylase, E3 dehydrogenase.
36
PDC reaction?
Pyruvate + CoA + NAD+ → Acetyl-CoA + NADH + CO2.
37
PDC location?
Mitochondrial matrix.
38
Fatty acid synthase structure?
Dimer with 7 catalytic sites.
39
In vitro assay system type?
Closed system.
40
In vivo assay system type?
Open system.
41
First pellet in centrifugation?
Nuclei.
42
High-speed pellet contains?
Ribosomes/microsomes.
43
Mitochondrial marker enzyme?
Succinate dehydrogenase.
44
Nuclear marker enzyme?
DNA polymerase.
45
Lysosomal marker enzyme?
Acid hydrolases.
46
Enzyme turnover definition?
Continuous replacement of enzymes.
47
Turnover equation?
d[E]/dt = Ks − Kd[E].
48
How to measure Ks?
Pulse/infusion radioactive amino acids.
49
How to measure Kd?
Chase decay of labeled enzyme.
50
Enzyme half-life definition?
Time for enzyme quantity to reach 50%.
51
PEST sequences mean what?
Rapid degradation.
52
Noncompetitive inhibitors effect?
Decrease Vmax.
53
Km at half Vmax represents what?
Michaelis constant.
54
Zymogens require what to activate?
Irreversible proteolytic cleavage.
55
Hexokinase regulation type?
Feedback inhibition by G6P.
56
Glycolysis location?
Cytosol.
57
Pyruvate dehydrogenase function?
Converts pyruvate → acetyl-CoA.
58
Fatty acid synthase location?
Cytosol.