Final Exam

Question 1

1. When should you restore a carious class V lesion?
   a. When the tooth is sensitive
   b. When the lesion is in the esthetic zone
   c. When it is an abfractive lesion
   d. Always, if it is restorable

Answer 1

D

Question 2

2. What determines the type of preparation used for a class V lesion? (slide 13/50 ) class V
   a. Whether or not a rubber dam is used
   b. The location of the lesion
   c. The type of lesion
   d. The type of restorative material to be used

Answer 2

D

Question 3

3. Studies show that occlusive forces alone will cause abfractive lesions. (Slide 15 and 21/50) class V
   a. True
   b. False

Answer 3

False

Question 4

4. Demineralized tooth structure cannot remineralize. (Slide 20/50 Class V)
   a. True
   b. False

Answer 4

False

Question 5

5. Which is not a reason to restore a NCCL? (Slide 25/50 class v)
   a. When the tooth is significantly sensitive
   b. When the etiologic factors are uncontrolled
   c. When there is a threat to the strength of the tooth
   d. when the lesion is esthetically acceptable

Answer 5

D

Question 6

6. A good preventive and treatment strategy for dental caries includes _______.
   a. Limiting cariogenic substrate
   b. Controlling cariogenic flora
   c. Elevating host resistance
   d. All of the above

Answer 6

D

Question 7

7. Which of the following statements regarding caries risk assessment is correct?
   a. The presence of restorations is a good indicator of current caries activity.
   b. The presence of restorations is a good indicator of past caries activity.
   c. The presence of dental plaque is a good indicator of current caries activity.
   d. The presence of pit-and-fissure sealants is a good indicator of current caries activity.

Answer 7

B

Question 8

8. Which of the following is considered a reversible carious lesion?
   a. The lesion surface is cavitated.
   b. The lesion has advanced to the dentin radiographically.
   c. A white spot is detected on drying.
   d. The lesion surface is rough or chalky.

Answer 8

C

Question 9

9. Smooth surface caries refers to _______. (Slide 6/50 Class V)
   a. Facial and lingual surfaces
   b. Occlusal pits and grooves
   c. Mesial and distal surfaces
   d. Both A and C

Answer 9

D

Question 10

10. When placement of proximal retention locks in class II amalgam preparations is necessary, which of the following is not correct? (Slide 26/51 of class2 cavity prep ppt.) *I think its suppose to be .5mm into DEJ
    a. One should not undermine the proximal enamel.
    b. One should not prepare locks entirely in the axial wall.
    c. Even if deeper than ideal, one should use the axial wall as a guide for proximal lock placement.
    d. One should place locks 0.2 mm inside the dentinoenamel junction (DEJ) to ensure that the proximal enamel is not undermined.

Answer 10

C

Question 11

11. In the conventional Class I composite preparation, retention is achieved by which of the following features?
    a. Occlusal convergence
    b. Occlusal bevel
    c. Bonding
    d. Retention grooves
    e. 2 and 4
    f. 1 and 3
    g. 1 and 4
    h. 2 and 3

Answer 11

F

Question 12

12. Many factors affect tooth/cavity preparation. Which of the following would be the least important factor?
    a. Extent of the defect
    b. Size of the tooth
    c. Fracture lines
    d. Extent of the old material

Answer 12

B??

Question 13

13. Restoration of an appropriate proximal contact results in all of the follwing except one. Which one is the exception?
    a. Reduces or eliminates food impaction at the inter-dental papilla
    b. Provides appropriate space for the interdental papilla
    c. Provides increased retention form for the restoration
    d. Maintains the proper occlusal relationship

Answer 13

C

Question 14

14. All of the following are likely to indicate the need for restoration of a cervical notch except one. Which one is the exception?
    a. Patient age
    b. Esthetic concern
    c. Tooth is symptomatic
    d. Tooth is deeply notched axially

Answer 14

A

Question 15

15. Bonding of resins to dentin is best described as involving _______.
    a. Mechanical interlocking
    b. Ionic bonding
    c. Covalent bonding
    d. Van der Waals forces

Answer 15

A

Question 16

16. Which of the following is a primary contraindication for the use of a composite restoration?
    a. Occlusal factors
    b. Inability to isolate the operating area
    c. Nonesthetic areas
    d. Extension onto the root surface

Answer 16

B

Question 17

17. Which of the following materials has the highest linear coefficient of expansion?
    a. Amalgam
    b. Direct gold (14.2)
    c. Tooth structure (16.96)c
    d. Composite resin

Answer 17

D

Question 18

18. A cervical lesion should be restored if it is _______.
    a. carious
    b. Very sensitive
    c. Causing gingival inflammation
    d. All of the above

Answer 18

D

Question 19

19. Compared with amalgam restorations, composite restorations are _______.
    a. Stronger
    b. More technique-sensitive
    c. More resistant to occlusal forces
    d. Not indicated for Class II restorations

Answer 19

B

Question 20

20. Which of the following statements regarding the choice between doing a composite or amalgam restoration is true?
    a. Establishing restored proximal contacts is easier with composite.
    b. The amalgam is more difficult and technique-sensitive.
    c. The composite generally uses a more conservative tooth/cavity preparation.
    d. Only amalgam should be used for Class II restorations.

Answer 20

C??

Question 21

21. Eburnated dentin has which of the following characteristics? (Choose all that apply.)
    a. Is sclerotic dentin
    b. Indicates recent poor hygiene (I think this might not be true because it’s a long process…)
    c. Usually appears as a white patch
    d. Is firm to the touch of an explorer
    e. Is usually seen in older patients

Answer 21

Most likely B & D

Question 22

22. Rounding internal cavity preparation angles is part of what form in cavity preparation?
    a. Resistance form
    b. Retention form
    c. Convenience form
    d. Outline form

Answer 22

A

Question 23

23. Which of the following terms refers to tooth structure loss in the cervical area secondary to biomechanical loading?
    a. Abfraction
    b. Abrasion
    c. Attrition
    d. Erosion

Answer 23

A

Question 24

24. For a mechanical pulp exposure that is non-carious and the exposure is less than 1.0 mm, what is usually the most appropriate treatment?
    a. No pulp treatment
    b. Direct pulp cap
    c. Indirect pulp cap
    d. Endodontic therapy

Answer 24

B

Question 25

25. After completing the tooth preparation for the application of an etch-and-rinse (total-etch) three-step dental adhesive, what is the next step? a. Apply adhesive b. Rinse etchant and leave surface wet c. Apply two to three layers of primer d. Etch enamel and dentin with phosphoric acid for 10 to 15 seconds e. Light-cure

Answer 25

D??

Question 26

26. Major differences between etch-and-rinse (previously known as total-etch) and self-etching primer adhesive systems include all of the following except one. Which one is the exception? a. Time necessary to apply the materials b. amount of smear layer removed c. Bond strengths to enamel d. Need for wet bonding

Answer 26

A

Question 27

27. Match each condition of tooth loss with the most closely linked type of tooth loss. a. Mechanical wear secondary to abnormal forces (i.e. toothbrushing) ____ b. Normal tooth wear __ c. Wear secondary to chemical presence____ d. Tooth loss in the cervical area secondary to biomechanical loading___ e. Abfracion f. Attrition g. Erosion h. Abrasion

Answer 27

``` H F G E ?? ```

Question 28

28. From the following list, select the reasons to consider the restoration of abraded or eroded (noncarious) cervical lesions. (Choose four). a. Caries develops in the lesion. b. The defect is shallow and does not compromise the structural integrity of the tooth. c. Intolerable sensitivity exists and is unresponsive to conservative desensitizing measures. d. The defect contributes to a phonetic problem. e. The area is to be involved in the design of a removable partial denture. f. Teeth are endodontically treated. g. The patient desires an esthetic improvement.

Answer 28

A, C, D, and G | ??

Question 29

29. From the following list, select the reasons associated with replacement of existing restorations. (Choose four). a. Marginal ridge discrepancy that contributes to food impaction b. Existing restoration has significant discrepancies and is a negative etiologic factor to adjecent teeth or tissue. c. Light marginal staining not compromising esthetics and judged noncarious d. Poor proximal contour or a gingival overhang that contributes to periodontal breakdown e. recurrent caries that can be adequately treated by a repair restoration f. Presence of shallow ditching around an amalgam restoration g. For tooth-colored restorations, unacceptable esthetics

Answer 29

A, B, D, and E

Question 30

30. Match each pulpal condition with the most closely linked recommended pulp therapy. a. Mechanical pulp exposure, noncarious (1.0 mm) with purulent exudate ____ d. Residual questionable dentin near pulp, asymptomatic tooth____ e. Endodontic therapy f. No pulp therapy required g. Direct pulp cap h. Indirect pulp cap

Answer 30

G F E H

Question 31

31. In the contemporary order of tooth preparation, outline form, resistance form, and retention form become irrelevant. a. True b. False

Answer 31

False

Question 32

32. Minimally invasive dentistry is meant to halt or delay the typical restorative cycle. a. True b. False

Answer 32

True

Question 33

33. It is more important to remove the central caries prior to removal of the peripheral caries. a. True b. False

Answer 33

False