Final Kahoot Flashcards by Nick Perez

what is the first step to take when assessing the abdomen?

a. palpate for tenderness
b. auscultate bowel sounds
c. inspect for any visible abnormalities

Inspect for any visible abnormalities

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

in which abdominal quadrant is the liver primarily located?

a. RUQ
b. RLQ
c. LUQ
d. LLQ

a. RUQ

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

which region of the abdomen is the bladder primarily located?

a. epigastric
b. umbilical
c. lumbar
d. hypogastric

d. hypogastric

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

where would a nurse percuss to assess kidney tenderness?

a. over the spleen
b. over the bladder
c. over the costovertebral angle
d. over the liver

c. over the costovertebral angle

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

(true or false): in a normal healthy adult, the kidneys should be palpable.

false

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

(true or false): it is important to eat a hearty meal 6 hours before an endoscopy to ensure energy for the procedure.

false

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

3+ pitting edema is how many millimeters deep?

a. 6
b. 8
c. 4

a. 6

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Woods lamp test requires?

a. Dark room
b. Heat resistant glove
c. Sunscreen
d. Cleansed skin

a. Dark room
d. Cleansed skin

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

where should you check skin turgor on elderly patients?

a. foot
b. elbow
c. clavicle
d. hand

c. clavicle

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

how often should a patient change positions?

2 hours

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

(true or false): Stage 4 PI include full thickness with tendon or bone exposed.

true

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

how long should it take for 2+ pitting edema to rebound?

a. >30 sec
b. 10-15 seconds
c. 15-30 seconds
d. immediately

c. 10-15 seconds

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Erythema is….

a. superficial redness
b. pale color
c. bluish color
d. yellowing of skin

a. superficial redness

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What categories are included in the Braden Risk Scale?
(6)

Sensory & Perception
Moisture
Activity
Mobility
Nutrition
Friction & Shearing

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What does the RICE acronym stand for?

R: rest
I: ice
C: compression
E: elevation

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The Glasgow Coma Scale is used to assess?

a. ability to keep balance
b. level of consciousness
c. an individual’s risk of entering a coma

b. level of Consciousness

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What are the 6 P’s that are used to assess neurovascular compromise?

Pain
Pallor
Paralysis
Pulselessness
Paresthesia
Poikilothermia

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A positive Romberg Test looks like:

a. for both legs, able to rub their hells to the shin
b. sway slightly, and maintains an upright posture and foot stance.
c. cannot maintain foot stance; moves feet apart to maintain stance

c. cannot maintain foot stance; moves feet apart to maintain stance

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Define dysphagia.

a. poor muscle coordination
b. difficulty speaking
c. difficulty swallowing

c. difficulty swallowing

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

PERRLA is used to assess which Cranial Nerve?

a. Vestibulocochlear (VIII)
b. Optic Nerve (II)
c. Trigeminal (V)
d. Oculomotor (III)

d. Oculomotor (III)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which theorist does the “Self-Care Theory” belong to?

a. Madeline Leininger
b. Dorothea Orem
c. Jean Watson

Dorothea Orem

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which theorist does the “Sunrise Model” belong to?

a. Madeline Leininger
b. Jean Watson
c. Dorothea Orem

Madeline Leininger

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which theorist does the “Theory of Human Caring” belong to?

a. Dorothea Orem
b. Virginia Henderson
c. Jean Watson

Jean Watson

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What normal heart sound is heard when the Semilunar Valves close?

a. Lub
b. Dub
c. whooshing

b. Dub

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which valve can be heard closing over the Left 4th intercostal space? a. Aortic b. Pulmonic c. Mitral d. Tricuspid

Tricuspid

What are the main sites you might assess for a bruit? (SATA): a. Carotid b. Radial c. Posterior Tibial d. Aortic

Carotid Aortic

The time interval when the ventricles relax and fill with blood is called? a. Systole b. Diastole c. Peristalsis

Diastole

Delayed capillary refill indicates: SATA: a. Poor tissue perfusion b. Decreased cardiac output c. Reduced vascular volume d. Hypotension

Poor tissue perfusion Decreased cardiac output Reduced vascular volume Hypotension

Select the appropriate instructions for preparing for a colonoscopy (SATA): a. solid, greasy foods are recommended the day before the procedure. b. drinking is highly recommended c. the colon should be cleared. d. clear liquids are permitted the day before procedure

c. the colon should be cleared d. clear liquids are permitted the day before procedure

Which of the negative reflexes should the nurse be concerned about? (SATA): a. Babinski b. Gag c. Corneal d. Blinking of the eyes e. Patellar f. Snout

b. Gag c. Corneal e. Patellar

Which patient can raise the arm against gravity, but not resistance. Grade muscle strength of: a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

Grade muscle strength of 3

Someone who is A&O x2 would answer which questions correctly? a. Person, Place b. Place, Time c. Person, Time d. Person, Situation

Person, Place

Which term is NOT in the Musculoskeletal assessment? (SATA): a. Friction rub b. Subluxation c. Effusion d. Tremors e. Lesion f. Stent

Friction Rub Lesion Stent

Which theorist does the "Human Need Theory" belong to? a. Virginia Henderson b. Jean Watson c. Dorothea Orem

Virginia Henderson

What is the name of a 3 part nursing diagnosis? a. Problem centered b. Health promotion c. Syndrome d. Risk

Problem centered

Which of the following is an appropriate nursing diagnosis? a. Risk for injury related to impaired mobility b. Acute confusion AEB morse fall risk score of 85 c. Constipation AEB no bowel movement for 3 days

Risk for injury related to impaired mobility

Which of the following is an example of an etiology statement? a. signs of b. AEB c. symptoms of d. related to

related to

What stage of the 5 part nursing process is Diagnosing? a. 2 b. 5 c. 1 d. 3

2 think "AD PIE"

A patient's lab results come back with abnormally high CK and Troponin levels. What does this indicate? (SATA): a. Inflammation b. Cardiac muscle damage c. Skeletal muscle damage d. Cardiac stretch

Cardiac muscle damage Skeletal muscle damage Creatine Kinase CK: blood test that measures an enzyme released from muscle damage Troponin: blood test that measures heart muscle damage

An Electrocardiogram (EKG) is a diagnostic test for cardiac rhythms. True False

True

What are some nursing considerations for your cardiac cath patient? (SATA): a. early ambulation b. assess the 6 P's c. massage cath site d. lie flat for at least 2 hours

b. assess the 6 P's d. lie flat for at least 2 hours

What could JVD indicate? a. Tracheal displacement b. Thyroid cancer c. Cardiopulmonary disease d. Parkinson's disease

c. Cardiopulmonary disease

Which auscultation point provides the loudest heart sounds? a. Aortic b. Erb's point c. Tricuspid

b. Erb's point

Avoid _______ whenever possible. a. confronting others b. conflict c. apologizing d. assertiveness

c. apologizing

What could cause a false high blood pressure? (SATA): a. cuff too wide b. arm above heart c. arm below heart d. cuff too narrow

arm below heart cuff too narrow

When would you take your pts vital signs? (SATA): a. per agency routine b. before and after surgery c. every time they come back from the bathroom d. distress symptoms

Per agency routine Before and after surgery Distress symptoms

You take your pts temperature at 0400, would the temp be at the coldest or warmest part of the day? a. Warmest b. Coldest

Coldest

Your pt is in a hypertensive crisis, what would you expect their blood pressure to be? a. 120/80 b. 210/130 c. 160/100 d. 90/60

210/80 Hypertensive crisis: Systolic = higher than 180 and/or Diastolic = higher than 120

Pt has an Apical pulse of 130 Radial pulse of 100 BP of 120/100 What is their pulse pressure? a. 29.5 b. 20 c. 30 d. 10

20 pulse pressure is the difference between systolic and diastolic readings (120-100 = 20)

Which assessment takes two people? a. Blood Pressure b. Pulse Pressure c. Pulse Deficit

Pulse Deficit one counts Apical pulse while the other counts Radial pulse

What information would a capnography reading give? a. CO2 levels measured on inspiration b. CO2 levels measured on expiration c. a device placed on pts head to measure brain d. measures Bronchovesicular dilation

CO2 levels measured on expiration

What are the possible causes of increased tactile fremitus? (SATA): a. Pneumonia b. Pneumothorax c. Pleural Effusion d. Congestive Heart Failure

Pneumonia Congestive Heart Failure

When listening, you hear blowing sounds moving through larger airways, which breath sounds are you hearing? a. Bronchovesicular b. Vesicular c. Bronchial d. Rubs

Bronchovesicular

What expected abnormal breath sound would you hear in a patient with COPD and Pneumonia? a. Stridor b. Wheezing c. Rhonchi d. Rales

Rhonchi

Identify signs and symptoms of COPD (SATA): a. Rhonchi b. Barrel chest 1:1 ratio c. Barrel chest 1:2 ratio d. Wheezing

Rhonchi Barrel Chest 1:1 ratio

What are the possible causes of decreased tactile fremitus? (SATA): a. Congestive Heart Failure b. Pleural Effusion c. Pneumothorax d. Pneumonia

Pneumothorax Pleural Effusion

What is the normal respiratory percussive sound? a. Dullness b. Tympanic c. Hyperresonance d. Resonance

Resonance

What abnormal breath sound would you find with fluid filled / collapsed small airways? a. stridor b. crackles c. wheezes d. rhonchi

Crackles high pitched crackling sounds (rice crispies) fluid in the air sacs snapping open on inspiration

Your patient needs an ABG, what test will you do? a. Allen's test b. Homan's test c. Guaiac test d. Romberg test

Allen's test

Signs & Symptoms vs. Objective & Subjective

Signs: Objective and measurable, such as fever, rash, BP Symptoms: Subjective and reported by the patient, such as pain, nausea, or fatigue

define Platypnea and Orthopnea...

Platypnea - SOB relieved by laying flat Orthopnea - SOB relieved by sitting or standing

a drop in blood pressure within 3 minutes of changing positions is called...

Orthostatic Hypotension

Know Blood Pressure ranges for: Normal : Elevated: HTN stage 1: HTN stage 2: HTN crisis:

Normal: <120 AND <80 Elevated: 120-129 AND <80 HTN S1: 130-139 OR 80-89 HTN S2: >140 OR >90 HTN Crisis: >180 AND/OR >120

The MAIN reason for documentation is: a. Legal b. Communication c. Education d. None of the above

b. Communication

During the evaluation phase, the nurse may reach which the following conclusions? SATA a. the goals were met but the actual problem still exists b. the problem was solved, or the risks were eliminated c. the risk is being prevented but risk factors are still present d. the problem was partially resolved, revision to the care plan are needed

All answers are correct

"Goal Met: The patient consumed 75-100% of meal tray today" belongs in which phase of the nursing process? a. Evaluation b. Planning c. Diagnosis d. Implementation

a. Evaluation

Which statement belongs in the evaluation phase of the nursing process? a. Risk for infection RT indwelling urinary catheter. b. Lungs clear to auscultation bilaterally c. Goal met: patient maintained O2 sat >92% on RA consistently

c. Goal met: patient maintained O2 sat >92% on RA consistently

The evaluation phase of nursing process includes which of the following: a. determining the patient's progress towards goals b. establishing SMART goals collaboratively with the patient c. administering medications ordered by the doctor

a. determining the patient's progress towards goals

In the evaluation phase of the nursing process, the nurse may do which of the following: a. continue the plan of care b. modify the plan of care c. terminate the plan of care d. describe the human response to an illness

a. continue the plan of care b. modify the plan of care c. terminate the plan of care

When establishing goals, collaboratively with a patient, it provides direction and selecting interventions. True or False

True

A goal will always start with? a. patient must b. patient won't c. patient will d. patient should

c. patient will

Which of the following is likely indicated by elevated levels of BUN and creatinine? a. kidney dysfunction b. liver cirrhosis c. hyperthyroidism d. kidneys functioning properly

a. kidney dysfunction

What disease causes excess hair growth in women? a. Hirsutism b. Winter c. Alopecia

a. Hirsutism

EBP studies are always quantitative. True or False

False

Informed consent includes: (SATA): a. terms of payment for participation b. study purpose, length, procedures, risks and benefits c. may be withdrawn at any time d. usually is in writing

b. study purpose, length, procedures, risks and benefits c. may be withdrawn at any time d. usually is in writing

Order the value of data from most to least: - Randomized controlled trial - Case report - Cohort study - Case study

1. Randomized controlled trial 2. Cohort study 3. Case study 4. Case report

an ethical theory that determines the morality of an action based on a set of rules and principles. a. contractualism b. utilitarianism c. deontology d. consequentialism

c. deontology

Which principles are used for a decision that is in pt's best interest while preserving integrity of all involved. a. beneficence b. autonomy c. justice d. veracity

a. beneficence b. autonomy c. justice d. veracity

Implementation is the "_______" phase of the nursing process. a. action b. last c. investigation d. education

a. action

Which of these are direct interventions? SATA: a. restocking supplies b. calling a provider c. ADL's d. medication administration

c. ADL's d. medication administration

The nurse completes the implementation phase by charting: True or False

True

Nursing interventions focus on? SATA: a. improving health via health promotion b. assessing to observe change in condition c. teaching, treating & providing physical care d. preventing complications & reducing risk factors

a. improving health via health promotion b. assessing to observe change in condition c. teaching, treating & providing physical care d. preventing complications & reducing risk factors

What are the three different types of interventions? SATA: a. dependent b. independent c. combine d. collaborative

a. dependent b. independent d. collaborative

Which of these is not part of the "5 Rights of Delegation"? a. circumstance b. supervision c. person d. medication

d. medication

When reporting SHARE, the S stands for "Standardize all content" True or False

False

What tasks are delegable to a UAP? SATA: a. post mortem care b. suction chronic trachs c. vitals d. gastrostomy feeding

a. post mortem care c. vitals

Over-delegation is a form of ineffective delegation? True or False

True

When can a UAP complete blood glucose checks? a. never b. always c. only on patients who are diabetic d. when trained and allowed by the facility

d. when trained and allowed by the facility

Which of the following is NOT a proper NANDA nursing diagnosis label? a. hyperthermia b. pneumonia c. situational low self esteem d. impaired oral mucous membrane

b. pneumonia

"I wish I could afford a new care like yours, but all my money goes to my student loans" is what type of communication: a. passive b. aggressive c. assertive d. passive-aggressive

d. passive-aggressive

Which of the following could describe the following vitals? SATA BP: 88/54 Pulse: 145 RR: 14 O2: 98% a. eupnea b. tachycardia c. hypotension d. hypertension

a. eupnea b. tachycardia c. hypotension

Your patient has SOB that is relieved by lying down, they have: a. dyspnea b. orthopnea c. bradypnea d. platypnea

d. platypnea

Final Kahoot Flashcards

(92 cards)