Final study

Question 1

What is the primary goal of adjusting oxygen therapy in a patient with hypoxemia?

Answer 1

To maintain oxyhemoglobin saturation at 90% or greater

Question 2

What are the hemodynamic benefits of morphine in patient with ACS?

Answer 2

Reducing left ventricular afterload by decreasing systematic vascular resistance, and reducing preload by producing Venodilation

Question 3

When should EMS providers administer oxygen to a patient with suspected acute coronary syndrome?

Answer 3

When the patient is hypoxemic or has an oxygen saturation of less than 90%

Question 4

Which diagnostic methods are commonly used to confirm hypoxemia

Answer 4

Pulse oxymetry to measure SPO2 and arterial blood gas analysis

Question 5

What are the primary reasons for administering aspirin during an acute coronary syndrome?

Answer 5

To reduce the risk of coronary occlusion and other recurrence events and to reduce thromboxane A2 production and inhibit platelet aggregation

Question 6

What is the primary hemodynamic effect of nitroglycerin in treating ischemic chest discomfort?

Answer 6

It decreases preload by dilating, peripheral arteries and veins

Question 7

What is the longest acceptable time for door to needle in a STEMI patient receiving fibrinolysis?

Answer 7

30 minutes

Question 8

Which of the drugs are commonly used to relieve ischemic discomfort in acute coronary syndrome?

Answer 8

Opiates and nitroglycerin

Question 9

What are the two ECG categories used to classify myocardial infarction in the acute coronary syndrome algorithm?

Answer 9

STEMI and NST – ACS

Question 10

How does sinus tachycardia generally differ from other types of tachycardia?

Answer 10

It is driven by sinus node discharge which produces visible P waves on the ECG and it begins and ends gradually unlike other tachycardia with abrupt changes

Question 11

If the initial dose of adenosine is ineffective in treating tachycardia, what is the recommended next step?

Answer 11

Administer a second dose of 12mg IV followed by a saline flush

Question 12

In which clinical situations is transcutaneous pacing indicated

Answer 12

Hemodynamically unstable bradycardia with signs of shock and bradycardia with stable, ventricular escape rhythms

Question 13

What are key characteristics of Mobitz type one AV block?

Answer 13

The P wave that corresponds to the non-conducted impulse is not followed by a QRS complex and successive prolongation of the PR interval until an atrial impulse fails to conduct

Question 14

What is the recommended dose of atropine for treating bradycardia in adults and why should doses below a certain threshold be avoided?

Answer 14

1 mg IV every 3 to 5 minutes dose is below 0.5 mg may further slow the heart rate

Question 15

What is a defining characteristic of Mobitz type two second° AV block?

Answer 15

Intermittent non-conduction of P waves with a constant PR interval on conducted beats and occurrence of conduction block below the level of the AV node

Question 16

Which alternative treatments can be considered if atropine is ineffective for treating acute unstable bradycardia

Answer 16

Dopamine or epinephrine as an alternative to transcutaneous pacing

Question 17

What is the purpose of synchronization in cardioversion?

Answer 17

To time the shock with the peak of the R waves avoiding the vulnerable repolarization face, and to prevent delivering a shock during cardiac depolarization , which could lead to VF

Question 18

During the resuscitation of a patient in PEA high quality CPR is initiated which of the following actions should be performed next

Answer 18

Establish intravenous or intraosseous access

Question 19

Extracorporeal CPR is primarily utilized to

Answer 19

Support and organ perfusion while addressing potentially reversible conditions

Question 20

During the EPR procedure, what are the percutaneous catheters typically inserted

Answer 20

Femoral artery and vein

Question 21

Which statement accurately differentiates PEA from asystole

Answer 21

PEA presents with organized electrical activity without a pulse while a cyst shows no electrical activity

Question 22

Which of the following best describes the role of ETCO2 monitoring in assessing a patient’s ventilator status

Answer 22

It evaluates the effectiveness of CO2 elimination from the body

Question 23

A patient with a history of chronic renal failure, presents with muscle weakness, and electrocardiogram changes, including peaked T waves laboratory results reveal elevated potassium levels, which reversible cause of PEA is most likely

Answer 23

Hyperkalemia

Question 24

In the context of cardiac arrest with the non-shockable rhythm when is it recommended to administer epinephrine?

Answer 24

As soon as intravenous or intraosseous access are available

Question 25

In the management of a patient presenting with a cyst, which of the following interventions is appropriate

Answer 25

Administration of epinephrine

Question 26

What is a primary advantage of intraosseous access in emergency situations?

Answer 26

It can be established quickly often within seconds

Question 27

In the management of PEA, what is the primary therapeutic approach?

Answer 27

Addressing the underlying cause of the arrest

Question 28

During CPR when should the administration of epinephrine occur?

Answer 28

During ongoing chest compressions

Question 29

Which of the following best describes the role of epinephrine and cardiac arrest management

Answer 29

It acts as a vasopressor to improve coronary and cerebral perfusion

Question 30

What is the main advantage of using ECPR over conventional CPR in certain cases of cardiac arrest arrest arrest

Answer 30

It ensures continuous perfusion of vital organs while addressing the underlying cause of arrest

Question 31

What accurately describes the mechanism of action of amiodarone in treating VF/PVT

Answer 31

It block sodium channels at rapid pacing frequencies and exerts a non-competitive anti-sympathetic action

Question 32

Which of the following cardiac rhythms is classified as shockable during a cardiac arrest

Answer 32

Ventricular fibrillation

Question 33

What is the recommended dosage and timing for administering up an effort during CPR according to the provided guidelines

Answer 33

1 mg IV/I owe during CPR during the second shock then every 3 to 5 minutes

Question 34

During ACLS protocol for a patient in V fib what is the immediate next step after identifying the V fib?

Answer 34

Deliver an unsynchronized defibrillation shock

Question 35

A patient in cardiac arrest is found to be in V fib after two unsuccessful defibrillator attempts what is the next appropriate medication to administer as per the ACLS guideline

Answer 35

Amiodarone

Question 36

Ionizing radiation is characterized by its ability to

Answer 36

Remove electrons from atomic orbits

Question 38

What are the units used to measure radiation exposure?

Answer 38

Roentgen R

Question 39

What unit is used to express the absorbed dose of ionic radiation in the international system of units?

Answer 39

Grey

Question 40

What does the term absorbed dose specifically refer to in the field of radiology?

Answer 40

The energy imported to matter by ionizing radiation per unit mass of radiated material

Question 41

What does do equivalent specifically measure in the context of radiation exposure?

Answer 41

The biological damage to living tissue from radiation

Question 42

Which unit is used to express effective dose and radiation measurement

Answer 42

Millisievert

Question 43

How does the timeline of acute radiation effects compared to that of late radiation effects?

Answer 43

Acute radiation effects appeared shortly after exposure while the late radiation effects were made hidden for many years

Question 44

What statement correctly describes the threshold for stochastic effects

Answer 44

Stochastic effects or seem to have no threshold dose and can occur at any dose level

Question 45

Which characteristic best defines non-stochastic or deterministic radiation effect

Answer 45

The increase in severity with dose and usually have a threshold

Question 46

What statement correctly describes the relationship between distance and radiation dose

Answer 46

The dose decreases as the distance from the source increases according to the inverse square law

Question 47

Which federal agencies are responsible for overseeing radiation, safety programs, and radiology departments

Answer 47

CDRH and NRC

Question 48

Which criteria indicate that a worker must be monitored for occupational radiation exposure according to the NCRP

Answer 48

Likely to receive a whole body dose in excess of 25 MR in a given week and workers who could receive 10% or more of the maximum annual dose limit

Question 49

How can the annual occupational affect those limit be expressed

Answer 49

50 mSv and five REM