SDSU ENS 304 > Final Study Guide > Flashcards

Final Study Guide Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the two main divisions of the nervous system?

A
  • Central Nervous System (CNS)
  • Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)

The CNS includes the brain and spinal cord, while the PNS connects the CNS to the rest of the body.

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2
Q

What does the Somatic Nervous System control?

A
  • Voluntary movements
  • Skeletal muscle control

It is a part of the Peripheral Nervous System responsible for conscious control of body movements.

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3
Q

What are the two branches of the Autonomic Nervous System?

A
  • Sympathetic
  • Parasympathetic

These branches regulate involuntary body functions, including heart rate and digestion.

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4
Q

Define resting membrane potential.

A

The electrical potential difference across the membrane of a resting neuron

It is typically around -70 mV and is maintained by ion gradients.

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5
Q

What is the all or nothing principle in action potentials?

A

Once the threshold is reached, an action potential is generated fully or not at all

This principle ensures that action potentials are uniform in strength.

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6
Q

What are the steps involved in an action potential?

A
  • Opening of voltage-gated Na+ channels
  • Depolarization
  • Repolarization
  • Hyperpolarization
  • Return to resting potential

These steps describe the rapid changes in membrane potential during an action potential.

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7
Q

What is saltatory conduction?

A

The process by which action potentials jump from one node of Ranvier to another

This increases the speed of neural conduction along myelinated fibers.

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8
Q

What is the effect of demyelination in Multiple Sclerosis?

A

Slowed or disrupted neural conduction

Demyelination affects the ability of neurons to transmit signals effectively.

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9
Q

What are the components of a motor unit?

A
  • Motor neuron
  • Muscle fibers it innervates

Motor units are essential for muscle contraction and force generation.

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10
Q

What is the sliding filament theory?

A

The mechanism explaining muscle contraction through the sliding of actin and myosin filaments

This theory describes how muscle fibers shorten during contraction.

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11
Q

What are the characteristics of skeletal muscle fiber types?

A
  • Type I: Slow-twitch, endurance
  • Type IIa: Fast-twitch, moderate endurance
  • Type IIb: Fast-twitch, high power

Each type has distinct properties suited for different physical activities.

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12
Q

What is hypertrophy?

A

Increase in muscle size due to resistance training

It can be transient or chronic, depending on the training stimulus.

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13
Q

What is the central governor theory?

A

A model suggesting that the brain regulates exercise performance to prevent injury

This theory emphasizes the role of the central nervous system in fatigue.

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14
Q

What is delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS)?

A

Muscle pain and stiffness that occurs after intense exercise

It typically arises 24-72 hours post-exercise and is linked to muscle damage.

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15
Q

What are the four processes that maintain blood glucose during exercise?

A
  • Glycogenolysis
  • Gluconeogenesis
  • Increased glucose uptake
  • Hormonal regulation

These processes ensure a stable supply of glucose for energy during physical activity.

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16
Q

What is the role of ATPase?

A

Enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP to ADP

This reaction releases energy for cellular processes.

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17
Q

What is the rate-limiting enzyme in glycolysis?

A

Phosphofructokinase (PFK)

PFK controls the speed of the glycolytic pathway and is influenced by energy levels in the cell.

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18
Q

What happens to pyruvate when oxygen is not present?

A

It is converted to lactate

This process occurs during anaerobic metabolism and can lead to lactic acid accumulation.

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19
Q

What is the function of anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)?

A

Regulates water balance in the body by promoting water reabsorption in the kidneys

ADH is released in response to increased plasma osmolarity.

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20
Q

What stimulates the release of aldosterone?

A

Low blood sodium levels or high potassium levels

Aldosterone helps regulate electrolyte balance and blood pressure.

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21
Q

What are the three components of a system of circulation?

A
  • A pump (the heart)
  • A system of channels (the blood vessels)
  • A fluid medium (the blood)

These components work together to facilitate circulation throughout the body.

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22
Q

What is the primary purpose of the cardiovascular system?

A

To transport O2 and nutrients to tissues, remove CO2 and waste from tissues, and regulate body temperature

These functions are essential for maintaining homeostasis.

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23
Q

Name the components of the cardiovascular system.

A
  • The heart
  • Arteries and arterioles
  • Capillaries
  • Veins and venules

Each component plays a specific role in circulation and blood flow.

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24
Q

What are intercalated discs?

A

Structures in cardiac myocytes that facilitate communication and contraction

They contain desmosomes and gap junctions, which are crucial for synchronized heart contractions.

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25
What is **calcium induced calcium release**?
A mechanism in cardiac myocytes that triggers contraction ## Footnote This process is essential for the heart's pumping action.
26
What are the components of the **conduction system of the heart**?
* SA node * AV node * AV bundle * Left and right bundle branches * Purkinje fibers ## Footnote These components coordinate the heartbeat and ensure efficient blood flow.
27
What does an **Electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG)** measure?
The electrical activity of the heart, including P Wave, QRS Complex, and T Wave ## Footnote It helps in diagnosing various heart conditions.
28
What happens during **systole** and **diastole**?
* Systole: Heart muscle contracts * Diastole: Heart muscle relaxes ## Footnote These phases are critical for the cardiac cycle and blood circulation.
29
What is the **mean arterial pressure (MAP)** formula?
MAP = (1/3) SBP + (2/3) DBP ## Footnote This formula helps in assessing overall blood pressure and perfusion.
30
What are the **American Heart Association (AHA)** blood pressure categories?
* Normal * Elevated * Stage 1 hypertension * Stage 2 hypertension * Hypertensive crisis ## Footnote These categories help in diagnosing and managing hypertension.
31
What is the formula for **cardiac output (Q)**?
Q = Stroke Volume (SV) X Heart Rate (HR) ## Footnote This formula is essential for understanding heart function.
32
What is the **Frank-Starling law of the heart**?
The relationship between end-diastolic volume (EDV) and stroke volume (SV) ## Footnote It explains how the heart adjusts its output based on the volume of blood filling it.
33
What is **ejection fraction**?
The percentage of blood ejected from the heart during contraction ## Footnote It is a key indicator of heart function and health.
34
What is **Poiseuille’s Law**?
An equation that describes the flow of fluid through a pipe ## Footnote It relates pressure, resistance, and flow in the circulatory system.
35
What is the **Bohr effect**?
The effect of pH on the oxygen dissociation curve ## Footnote It describes how increased CO2 and decreased pH enhance oxygen release from hemoglobin.
36
What is the function of the **pleurae**?
To provide lubrication and reduce friction during lung expansion and contraction ## Footnote A pneumothorax occurs when air enters the pleural space, causing lung collapse.
37
What is the difference between **internal** and **external respiration**?
* Internal respiration: Gas exchange at the cellular level * External respiration: Gas exchange between the lungs and the environment ## Footnote Both processes are crucial for oxygen delivery and carbon dioxide removal.
38
What is the role of **myoglobin** in oxygen transport?
To store and transport oxygen in muscle tissues ## Footnote Myoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than hemoglobin, facilitating oxygen delivery during muscle activity.
39
What regulates **pulmonary ventilation**?
Peripheral mechanisms of regulation ## Footnote These mechanisms include chemoreceptors that respond to changes in blood gases.
40
What are the **three systems** of ATP production?
* ATP-PC * Glycolysis * Aerobic metabolism ## Footnote Each system is most active under different exercise conditions.
41
What does **direct calorimetry** measure?
Energy expenditure ## Footnote It measures heat production and energy production efficiency.
42
List the **pros of direct calorimetry**.
* Accurate measurement of energy expenditure * Direct measurement of heat production ## Footnote It provides a clear understanding of metabolic processes.
43
List the **cons of direct calorimetry**.
* Expensive equipment * Time-consuming * Limited to specific conditions ## Footnote These limitations can hinder practical applications.
44
What does **indirect calorimetry** measure?
Energy expenditure (V̇O2, V̇CO2) ## Footnote It assesses the respiratory gases to estimate energy expenditure.
45
What is the **Haldane Transformation** used for?
Calculating energy expenditure ## Footnote It helps in converting gas volumes to energy equivalents.
46
What does the **Respiratory Exchange Ratio (RER)** indicate?
Substrate utilization ## Footnote It reflects the ratio of carbon dioxide produced to oxygen consumed.
47
What is the RER for **fat (palmitic acid)**?
0.7 ## Footnote This indicates a higher reliance on fat as a fuel source.
48
What is the RER for **carbohydrate (glucose)**?
1.0 ## Footnote This indicates a higher reliance on carbohydrates as a fuel source.
49
What is the **Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR)**?
Minimum energy requirement for living ## Footnote It is influenced by factors such as fat-free mass (FFM).
50
What is the difference between **RMR** and **BMR**?
RMR is measured under less strict conditions than BMR ## Footnote RMR can vary based on recent activity and food intake.
51
What is the **normal caloric range** for adults?
* 1800-2200 calories/day (varies by activity level) ## Footnote Athletes may require a higher caloric intake.
52
What is **V̇O2 max**?
Maximum oxygen uptake during intense exercise ## Footnote It is a key indicator of aerobic fitness.
53
What happens to **V̇O2 max** with training?
Plateaus after a certain period ## Footnote Athletes may improve performance through other means after reaching this plateau.
54
What is the **slow component of O2 uptake kinetics**?
Gradual increase in oxygen uptake during prolonged exercise ## Footnote It is influenced by muscle fiber recruitment.
55
What tissues can use **lactate** as a fuel source?
* Heart * Brain * Skeletal muscle ## Footnote Lactate can be converted back to glucose via the Cori Cycle.
56
What is **EPOC**?
Excess post-exercise oxygen consumption ## Footnote It reflects the oxygen needed to restore the body to its resting state.
57
What happens to blood pH if lactate is not cleared?
Blood pH decreases (becomes more acidic) ## Footnote This occurs due to the accumulation of lactic acid.
58
What are the **heat exchange mechanisms**?
* Radiation * Conduction * Convection * Evaporation ## Footnote These mechanisms help regulate body temperature during exercise.
59
What is the role of the **anterior hypothalamus**?
Thermoregulation ## Footnote It integrates signals to maintain body temperature.
60
What happens to **core temperature** during exercise?
Increases with exercise intensity ## Footnote The body must manage heat production and loss effectively.
61
What is **heat acclimation**?
Physiological adaptations to repeated heat exposure ## Footnote It improves performance in hot environments.
62
What is the effect of **altitude** on VO2max?
Decreases as altitude increases ## Footnote This is due to lower oxygen availability.
63
What is **hypoxia**?
Low oxygen availability ## Footnote It can occur at high altitudes.
64
What is the **partial pressure of oxygen** at sea level?
Approximately 21% of atmospheric pressure ## Footnote This percentage does not change with altitude.
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