FINALS DECK Flashcards by Joan Ravalo

True or false. Small interfering RNA and microRNA have the same mechanism

True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A. Patau Syndrome
B. Marfan Syndrome
C. von Recklinghausen's disease
D. phenylketonuria
E. Fragile X Syndrome

identify type of genetic disorder

A. chromosomal aberration
B. autosomal dominant
C. autosomal dominant
D. autosomal recessive
E. Autosomal recessive

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Differentiate conservative missense mutation from its non-conservative counterpart

Non-conservative : marked change in protein fx

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Differentiate autosomal dominant from autosomal recessive genetic disorder

dominant: only one gene needed to manif
Recessive: two genes needed

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

mutated gene @ achondroplasia; specify type of genetic disorder

Fibroblast growth factor receptor 3;

autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What are neurofibromas?

specify type of genetic disorder

Benign tumors of peripheral nerves of Schwann cell origin

Autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In sickle cell anemia, there is substitution of __ for __

specify type of genetic disorder

Valine for glutamic acid residue

autosomal recessive

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Differentiate hemophilia A from hemophilia B

specify type of genetic disorder

A - defect @ gene encoding for factor VIII (or factor II)
B - defect @ gene encoding for factor IX

sex-linked disorder

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

False about X-linked disorders
A. Females may only be homozygous
B. Lack of transmission from father to son
C. Most X-linked traits are recessive

Females may also be heterozygous

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Give the genome of
A. Klinefelter
B. Turner

A. XXY

B. X

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Cri du chat syndrome has what kind of mutation?and in what part of what chromosome?

specific type of genetic disorder

Deletion of the end of the p arm @ chromosome 5

chromosomal aberration

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Native immunity present before any infection
A.innate
B.adaptive
C.humoral
D.cell-mediated

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Part of humoral immunity
A. CD4 T cell
B. CD8 T cell
C. B cell
D. NK cell

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Where do T cells develop?
A.thyroid gland
B.parathyroid gland
C.thymus
D.parathymus

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Each T cell recognizes specific cellbound Ag c/o __

Clas II MHC molecules at surface of T cells

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TCR genes are present at all cell lines but they are only expressed at lymphocytes. Why is this?

T cells acquire specific mutations in TCR genes @ maturation process

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Mature lymphocytes that have not encountered any Ag are the __ ones

Naïve

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Identify

Monocytes that came out of the circulation to enter tissue

Macrophage

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Location of nucleus at plasma cell
A.center
B.periphery
C.both
D.plasma cell is anucleated

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Gene encoding for MHC is located in \_\_
A.Chromosome 16
B.Chromosome 12
C.Chromosome 6
D.Chromosome 2

C.Chromosome 6

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Cell that is part of both innate and adaptive immunity
A.T cell
B.B cell
C.Macrophage
D.none of the above

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

MHC I is located in
A.all nucleated cells
B.platelets
C.RBCs
D.A and B
E.B and C

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Main deficiency in Graves disease

TSH receptor

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In what autoimmune disease are antinuclear antibodies produced?

Systemic lupus erythematosus

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Xerophthalmia is a key sign of A.Sjogren syndrome B.Rheumatoid arthritis C.Goodpasteur syndrome

Impaired basement membrane of kidney is a key sign of A.Sjogren syndrome B.Rheumatoid arthritis C.Goodpasteur syndrome

Immune complex deposition at joints and blood vessels is a key sign of A.Sjogren syndrome B.Rheumatoid arthritis C.Goodpasteur syndrome

``` Weak GI tract & impaired mucosal defense is a complication of A.Chediak Higashi B.Digeorge Syndrome C.Isolated IgA Deficiency D.Chronic Granulomatous Disease ```

``` Thymic aplasia is a complication of A.Chediak Higashi B.Digeorge Syndrome C.Isolated IgA Deficiency D.Chronic Granulomatous Disease ```

``` Impaired lysosomal trafficking is main effect of A.Chediak Higahi B.Digeorge Syndrome C.Isolated IgA Deficiency D.Chronic Granulomatous Disease ```

``` Impaired NADPH Oxidase activity is effect of A.Chediak Higahi B.Digeorge Syndrome C.Isolated IgA Deficiency D.Chronic Granulomatous Disease ```

``` Intact in Bruton Agammaglobulinemia A. Humoral immunity B. CMI C. Both D. None of the above ```

Most common complement defect

Main defect of X-linked SCID

Gamma chain of interleukin receptor

Enumerate main patho manif of Ataxia-Telangiectasia

Abnormal gait | Vascular malformation

``` Mutation of adenosine deaminase is present in A. X-linked SCID B. Autosomal recessive SCID C. DiGeorge syndrome D. Chediak-Higashi syndrome ```

Immunodeficiency where there is class switching problem of Ig, leading to low IgA,G and E

Hyper IgM syndrome

What is point mutation?

Substitution of single N-base @ gene

What is aneuploid?

Chromosomal abnormality where number of chromosomes is not multiple of haploid

``` A child fed with am is most likely to get what nutritional disorder? A.marasmus B.kwashiorkor C.cachexia D.anorexia ```

# Choose the best answer ``` Vitamin C is crucial to the formation of __. A.keratin B.collagen C.hyaluronan D.chondroitin ```

Identify likely deficient vitamin for each condition A.beri beri B.gum bleeding

A.Vit B | B.Vit C

Identify likely deficient vitamin for each condition A.night blindness B.osteomalacia

A.Vit C | B.Vit D

``` Which is not an oncogenic virus? A.HTLV B.EBV C.HPV D.HSV ```

D | Herpes Simplex

``` Which is not malignant? A.leiomyosarcoma B.lymphoma C.hemangioma D.melanoma ```

Most common route of metastasis for carcinomas

Lymphatic

Most important prognosis factor for malignancy

Stage

Which is a blastoma? A. Struma ovarii B. Dermoid cyst C. Wilms tumor

C Wilms tumor is nephroblastoma

``` Most likely etiologic agent of septic shock coupled with purulent material A.Staph aureus B.Vibrio cholerae C.Mycobacterium leprae D.Clostridium difficile ```

``` Catalase and coagulase positive, yellow colonies at BAP,bunch of grapes at Gram stain A.Staph aureus B.Vibrio cholerae C.Mycobacterium leprae D.Clostridium difficile ```

Why do Gram positive organisms give violet color

Peptidoglycan cell membrane retains crystal violet

``` Organism that causes Ritter syndrome A.Chlamydia trachomatis B.Staph aureus C.Mycobacterium leprae D.Clostridium difficile ```

``` Organism that causes Reiter syndrome A.Chlamydia trachomatis B.Staph aureus C.Mycobacterium leprae D.Clostridium difficile ```

``` Organism/s that cause/s Toxic shock syndrome A.Chlamydia trachomatis B.Staph aureus C.Strep pyogenes D.Clostridium difficile ```

B and C

Virulence factor in Strep pyogenes that causes cross-antigenicity, leading to rheumatic heart disease

M Protein

``` May cause neonatal meningitis. Present at lower female GUT A.Chlamydia trachomatis B.Staph aureus C.Strep agalactiae D.Clostridium difficile ```

``` May cause dental caries A.Shigella sonnei B.Treponema pallium C.Escherichia coli D.Strep mutans ```

``` May cause endocarditis A.Shigella sonnei B.Strep viridans C.Escherichia coli D.Staph aureus ```

``` Pseudomembranous colitis A.Chlamydia trachomatis B.Staph aureus C.Strep agalactiae D.Clostridium difficile ```

``` Gas gangrene A.Clostridium perfringens B.Staph aureus C.Strep agalactiae D.Clostridium difficile ```

``` Blocks GABA, may cause lock jaw A.Chlamydia trachomatis B.Clostridium tetani C.Strep agalactiae D.Staph aureus ```

``` May cause flaccid paralysis & may be obtained from canned goods A.Campylobacter jejuni B.Staph aureus C.Strep agalactiae D.Clostridium botulinum ```

``` May cause volcanic eruption @ crypts A.Clostridium perfringens B.Staph aureus C.Strep agalactiae D.Clostridium difficile ```

Most frightening mode of transmission for B.anthracis

Inhalational

``` Tap water, non invasive, rice watery stool A. Salmonella typhi B. Vibrio cholera C. Campylobacter jejuni D. Shigella sonnei ```

Toxin of cholera affects this molecule

CFTR

Enterocolitis of __ may mimic cholera

C.jejuni

``` Which enteropathogenic bacteria has extreme resistance to gastric acidity? A.Salmonella B.Shigella C.E.coli D.V.cholera ```

Main mechanism of Shiga toxin

Inhibits eukaryotic protein synthesis --> death

Causative agents of typhoid fever

Salmonella paratyphi | Salmonella typhi

``` False about Salmonella A.Rose spots B.Dysentery C.Mimic appendicitis D.Gall bladder colonization ```

``` Shiga like toxin A.EIEC B.ETEC C.EHEC D.EAEC ```

``` Invasive but no toxin A.EIEC B.ETEC C.EHEC D.EAEC ```

``` Cholera like toxin A.EIEC B.ETEC C.EHEC D.EAEC ```

``` Unique attachment pattern A.EIEC B.ETEC C.EHEC D.EAEC ```

Enteropathogenic bacteria that makes macrophages foamy. Usually seen post mortem

Tropheryma whippeli

This mycobacterium is usually found in unpasteurized milk.

Mycobacterium bovis

Langhans type giant cell has what nuclei shape?

Horseshoe-shaped

Cervical lymphadenopathy seen at TB patients

Scrofula

``` Fungus balls A.Aspergillus B.Cryptococcus C.Candida D.Histoplasma ```

``` Causes meningoencephalitis and may come from bird droppings A.Cryptococcus neoformans B.Candida albicans C.Histoplasma capsulatun D.Exophiala werneckii ```

``` Septated hypha @ acute angles A.Cryptococcus neoformans B.Candida albicans C.Histoplasma capsulatun D.Aspergillus fumigatus ```

``` Non-Septated hypha @ right angles A.Cryptococcus B.Zygomycosis C.Histoplasmosis D.Aspergillosis ```

``` Causes oral thrush A.Cryptococcus neoformans B.Candida albicans C.Histoplasma capsulatun D.Aspergillus fumigatus ```

``` Lymphocyte type at fungal infections A.CD4+ Tcell B.CD8+ Tcell C.B cell D.NK cell ```

``` Histoplasmosis is __ mycoses A.Subcutaneous B.Systemic C.Opportunistic D.Superficial ```

``` Tinea cruris is __ mycoses A.Subcutaneous B.Systemic C.Cutaneous D.Superficial ```

``` Aspergillosis is __ mycoses A.Subcutaneous B.Systemic C.Cutaneous D.Opportunistic ```

``` Sporotrichosis is __ mycoses A.Subcutaneous B.Systemic C.Cutaneous D.Opportunistic ```

``` chancre is sign of __ A.Trichomonas vaginalis B.Treponema pallidum C.Chlamydia trachomatis D.All of the above ```

Differentiate hyperplasia fr hypertrophy. Can these happen together?

Hyperplasia - increase in cell number Hypertrophy - increase in cell size. Yes.

Differentiate necrosis from apoptosis

Necrosis:cell death that does not req energy Apoptosis: cell death that does req energy

Differentiate hypoxia fr ischemia

Hypoxia-with blood supply but decreased oxygen Ischemia-no blood, therefore no oxygen and nutrient supply

``` Which is not a consequence of ischemia? A.lower ATP B.ER shrinking C.lipid deposition D.clumping of nuclear chromatin ```

B Swelling dapat

A decrease in __ may lead to mitochodrial damage A.cytosolic Calcium B.reactive oxygen species C.oxygen

Which is a consequence of mitochondrial permeability transition pore? A.loss of MM potential B.oxidative phosphorylation failure C.apoptosis

C Necrosis dapat

When cytochrome c is leaked, what could be released?

Caspases

T or F. Caspases' release lead to activated apoptotic pathways

List three main consequences of loss of Ca homeostasis

Membrane damage Nuclear damage Lower ATP

Which converts superoxide to hydrogen peroxide? A.superoxide dismutase B.glutathione peroxidase C.catalase

Which converts hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen? A.superoxide dismutase B.glutathione peroxidase C.catalase

Hydrogen peroxide --> Hydroxyl radical This is called what reaction?

Fenton reaction

When macromolecules of the cell are exposed to ROS, __ ensues

Oxidation

A decrease in __ and increase in ___ and __ lead to membrane damage

Oxygen then cytosolic Ca& ROS

Reversible cell injury has what 2 patterns?

Cellular swelling | Fatty damage

What is karyorrhexis?

Nuclear fragmentation

What is karyolysis?

Nucleus dissolved

What is pyknosis?

Nuclear shrinkage

Differentiate intrinsic apoptosis fr extrinisic apoptosis

Intrinsic: c/o mitochondria's ptoteins & done in those that have DNA damage and misfolded protein Extrinsic: c/o TNF Receptor family, elim of self-reactive lymphocytes

What is steatosis?

Lipid accum in cells near those that are necrotic

What is anthracosis?

Carbon accum may blacken lymph and parencyhma

Lipofuscin granules increase with __ A.age B.weight C.height

Hemosiderin granules have __ A.Ca B.Fe C.Mg

Differentiate dystrophic calcification fr metastatic calcification

Metastatic: with derangement in Ca metab Dystrophic: no Ca derangement

``` Strawberry cervix is sign of __ A.Trichomonas vaginalis B.Treponema pallidum C.Chlamydia trachomatis D.All of the above ```

``` Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome is a complication of __ A.Trichomonas vaginalis B.Treponema pallidum C.Chlamydia trachomatis D.All of the above ```

Differentiate genital warts from genital ulcers.

Genital warts: HPV | Genital ulcers: Herpes

Histopathology of lymphogranuloma venereum

stellate abscess

main compliacation of pelvic inflammatory disease

infertility

Differentiate exudate fr transudate

Exudate - high protein | Transudate - low protein

Hallmark of acute inflammation

Increased vascular permeability

Vasodilation Increased microvasc permeability Increased blood viscosity These are Major changes of __ inflammation

Acute

Cellular events in acute inflammation: enumerate

Leukocyte adhesion Transmigration Chemotaxis

Most common cause of leukocyte function defect

Bone marrow suppression

Phagocytosis stimulates oxygen consumption and ROS formation. T or F?

Differentiate histamine fr serotonin

Serotonin- vasoconstrictor | Histamine- vasodilator

Eicosanoids come from __

Arachidonic acid

Prostaglandin and thromboxane are part of __ pathway A.cyclooxygenase B.lipoxygenase C.both What is their main difference?

Prostaglandin: vasodilator Thromboxane: vasoconstrictor.

How are measles and mumps transmitted?

Respiratory droplets

Why does a patient with measles have rashes?

Vasculitis of small blood vessels

Pathognomonic sign of measles. Whitr spots in gingiva --> ulcerated near Stenson's duct

Koplik's spots

The body produces Antibody-mediated immunity to measles in order to prevent reinfection. T or F?

In measles, these are lymphoid organs with eosinophilic nuclear and cytoplasmic inclusion bodies

Warthin-Finkeldey Cells

Most common extrasalivary gland complication of mumps

Aseptic meningitis

``` Mumps affects the ff organs except A.testes and ovary B.salivary gland C.pancreas D.heart ```

Another name for killed vaccine of polio

Salk formalin-fixed

Another name for live attenuated vaccine of polio

Sabin oral

Poliovirus only affects humans by binding to this epithelial adhesion molecule. Identify the molecule

CD155

In poliomyelitis infection, what part/s of the body get denervated usually?

Muscles of lower limbs

In viral hemorrhagic fever, humans are definitive host. T or F?

F.incidental hosts lang tayo

``` Which does not happen in vascular dilatation? A.increased blood pressure B.petechiae C.disseminated intravascular coagulation D.shock ```

A Decreased dapat

Reactivation of VZV in ___ is called herpes zoster

Dorsal root ganglia

Transmission route of Varicella

Respiratory aerosols

Complication of Varicella where half of the face sags

Ramsay-Hunt syndrome

When Varicella infects __, dermatomal pain ensues

Trigeminal ganglia

What infection of VZV is notably seen in immunocompromised?

Hemorrhagic or atypical measles

CMV: enlargement of cells, esp __ & __

Monocytes | Dendritic cells

Congenital CMV: similar to __

Erythroblastosis fetalis

What do cells infected with CMV look like?

OWL'S EYE Enlarged wiith large purple intranuclear inclusions surrounded by clear halo and basophilic inclusions.

Transmission route of EBV

Kissing/saliva

Possible malignant neoplasias obtained from EBV

Burkitt lymphoma | Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

Causatie agent (viral) of infectious mononucleosis

Epstein Barr Virus

Monospot test is used to diagnose EBV. What is this test?

Positive heterophil antibody reaction

Two GI accessory organs affected by EBV

Liver and spleen

Leukotrienes and lipoxins are part of lipoxygenase pathway. What is their main diff?

Leukotrienes: promote WBC recruitment Lipoxins: inhibit WBC recruitment

main role of C3b

facilitate phagocytosis

Which is false? A.Bradykinin decreases vascular permeability B.Factor XII activates a proteolytic cascade leading to thrombin activation C.Thrombin cleaves soluble fibrinogen to insoluble clot

A increases dapat

``` inflammation where there is outpouring of thin fluid fr plasma/mesothelial cells A.ulcer B.serous C.purulent D.fibrinous ```

``` inflammation where there is PUS. usually caused by pyogenic bacteria A.ulcer B.serous C.purulent D.fibrinous ```

``` inflammation where there is eosinophilic meshwork of threads A.ulcer B.serous C.purulent D.fibrinous ```

``` inflammation where there is local defect of excavation @ surface, due to shedding of necrotic tissue A.ulcer B.serous C.purulent D.fibrinous ```

hallmark of chronic inflammation

tissue destruction

dominant cell @ chronic inflammation; activaed ones responsible for tissue injury

macrophages

steps by which macrophages accumulate in tissues

recruitment proliferation immobilization

What cells release mediators of inflammation?

mast cells

focal accumulation of activated macrophages hat develop an epitheloid appearance

granuloma

What does acute phase protein do?

help clear necrotic cell nucei | with role in synthesizing hepatocytes

define leukemoid reaction

increase in number of immmature lymphocytes

differentiate issue repair from tissue regeneration from tissue replacement

tissue repair: requires BM presence tissue regeneration: replace with same cell types tissue replacement: replace with connective tissue

this growth factor inhibits collage degradation

transforming beta growth factor

type of genes involved in tissue repair.

oncogenes

two components needed for extracellular membrane formation

interstitial matrix & basal membrane

``` provides tensile strength for ECM A.elastin B.fibrillin C.laminin D.collagen ```

``` alignment of endothelial cells A.elastin B.fibrillin C.laminin D.collagen ```

differentiate proteoglycan fr hyaluronan

hyaluronan: in-charge of turgor and lubrication of CT proteoglycan: in-charge of structure of CT

Hallmark of tissue healing

granulation tissue

phases of wound healing: enumerate

``` injury coagulation early inflamm late inflamm proliferation remodeling ```

which has less injury? A.healng by 1st intention B.healing by 2nd inteNtion

Enumerate pathologic aspects of healing

deficient scar formation excessive repair components Granulation is exuberant contractures

wound strength after healing

70-80%

FINALS DECK Flashcards

(180 cards)