1
Q
What is the function of a router in a network?
A
Routers connect multiple networks and forward data packets between them.
2
Q
Define what a subnet mask is.
A
A subnet mask is used to divide an IP address into a network and host portion.
3
Q
Explain the purpose of a VLAN.
A
VLANs segment a network into separate broadcast domains to improve performance and security.
4
Q
What is a firewall and what is its primary function?
A
A firewall monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules.
5
Q
Describe the OSI model.
A
The OSI model is a conceptual framework used to understand network interactions in seven layers.
6
Q
What is the difference between TCP and UDP?
A
TCP is connection-oriented and reliable, whereas UDP is connectionless and faster but less reliable.
7
Q
Define what DNS is and its primary function.
A
DNS translates domain names to IP addresses, allowing users to access websites with human-readable names.
8
Q
What is the purpose of a DHCP server?
A
DHCP assigns IP addresses to devices on a network automatically.
9
Q
Explain what NAT is and why it is used.
A
NAT translates private IP addresses to a public one for internet access, conserving IP addresses and adding security.
10
Q
What is the function of a switch in a network?
A
A switch connects devices on a network and uses MAC addresses to forward data to the correct destination.
11
Q
Define what an IP address is.
A
An IP address uniquely identifies a device on a network.
12
Q
What is a MAC address and what is its purpose?
A
A MAC address is a unique identifier assigned to network interfaces for communications on the physical network segment.
13
Q
Explain the purpose and function of a VPN.
A
A VPN creates a secure, encrypted connection over a less secure network, such as the internet.
14
Q
What is the difference between a hub and a switch?
A
A hub broadcasts data to all ports, while a switch sends data only to the intended recipient.
15
Q
Define what ICMP is and its primary use.
A
ICMP is used for error messaging and operational information queries in network communications.
16
Q
Explain the concept of port forwarding.
A
Port forwarding allows remote computers to connect to a specific computer or service within a private local-area network.
17
Q
What is the primary function of a network gateway?
A
A network gateway serves as a point of access between different networks, often with different protocols.
18
Q
Define what SNMP is and its purpose.
A
SNMP is used for managing devices on IP networks and monitoring network-attached devices for conditions that warrant administrative attention.
19
Q
Explain what bandwidth refers to in networking.
A
Bandwidth refers to the maximum rate of data transfer across a given path.
20
Q
What is network latency and what affects it?
A
Network latency is the delay in data communication over a network, influenced by propagation, transmission, and processing delays.
21
Q
Define what a network topology is.
A
A network topology is the arrangement of network elements, including nodes and connecting lines.
22
Q
What is a packet in network terminology?
A
A packet is a formatted unit of data carried by a packet-switched network.
23
Q
Explain the difference between IPv4 and IPv6.
A
IPv4 uses 32-bit addresses, while IPv6 uses 128-bit addresses, offering a larger address space.
24
Q
What is a WAP (Wireless Access Point) and its function?
A
A WAP allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network using Wi-Fi or Bluetooth.
25
Describe what a DMZ (Demilitarized Zone) is in networking.
A DMZ is a physical or logical subnetwork that separates an internal network from untrusted networks.
26
What is a network bridge and how does it function?
A bridge connects multiple network segments, operating at the data link layer.
27
Define what network redundancy is.
Network redundancy is the inclusion of extra or alternate instances of network devices and equipment to improve reliability and availability.
28
Explain the purpose of QoS (Quality of Service) in networking.
QoS prioritizes certain types of network traffic, ensuring optimal performance for critical applications.
29
What is the difference between a managed and unmanaged switch?
Managed switches offer more control over network traffic and features, whereas unmanaged switches are plug-and-play.
30
Define what a network protocol is.
A network protocol is a set of rules that define how data is formatted, transmitted, and received.
31
What is a network's throughput?
Throughput is the rate at which data is successfully transmitted over a network.
32
Explain the function of an IDS (Intrusion Detection System).
An IDS monitors network traffic for suspicious activity and alerts the system or network administrator.
33
What is the role of an IPS (Intrusion Prevention System)?
An IPS is a network security/threat prevention technology that examines network traffic to detect and prevent identified threats.
34
Define what multicast is in networking.
Multicast is the transmission of a packet to multiple destinations in a single send operation.
35
Explain the concept of unicast in networking.
Unicast is a one-to-one transmission from one point in the network to another point.
36
What is broadcast traffic in a network?
Broadcast traffic is network traffic that is sent to all nodes on a network.
37
Define what a network frame is.
A network frame is a digital data transmission unit in computer networking and telecommunication.
38
What is the purpose of an SSL/TLS certificate?
SSL/TLS certificates are used to secure data transfers, verify the identity of websites, and encrypt internet connections.
39
Explain what MTU (Maximum Transmission Unit) is.
MTU refers to the size in bytes of the largest protocol data unit that can be communicated in a single network layer transaction.
40
What is the purpose of a network load balancer?
A network load balancer distributes network traffic across several servers to improve responsiveness and availability.
41
Define the term Network Segmentation.
Network segmentation divides a network into smaller parts or segments, often to improve performance and security.
42
What is the primary function of a network repeater?
A repeater receives a signal and retransmits it at a higher level or higher power.
43
Explain what a proxy server does.
A proxy server acts as an intermediary for requests from clients seeking resources from other servers.
44
What is the difference between a static and dynamic IP address?
A static IP address is manually assigned and remains constant, while a dynamic IP address is assigned by a network to a device automatically.
45
Define what an APIPA address is.
APIPA addresses are automatically self-assigned by a device when DHCP fails to obtain an IP address and are in the 169.254.0.0/16 range.
46
What is the function of a network choke point?
A network choke point is a point of congestion or bottleneck in a network.
47
Explain the concept of link aggregation.
Link aggregation combines multiple network connections in parallel to increase throughput and provide redundancy.
48
What is a network collision domain?
A collision domain is a network segment where data packets can collide with one another when being sent on a shared medium.
49
Define what a broadcast domain is.
A broadcast domain is a logical division of a computer network, within which a broadcast packet is forwarded to all nodes.
50
What is the primary purpose of a network patch panel?
A network patch panel is a mounted hardware unit containing ports to interconnect and manage incoming and outgoing LAN cables.
51
What is a wireless repeater and how is it used in networking?
A wireless repeater extends the coverage area of a wireless network by receiving and retransmitting signals.
52
Define what a routing table is.
A routing table stores routes to various network destinations and is used by routers to determine the best path for forwarding packets.
53
What is the primary function of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?
STP prevents network loops in a local area network (LAN).
54
Explain what a broadcast storm is and how it affects a network.
A broadcast storm occurs when a network is overwhelmed with continuous broadcast or multicast traffic.
55
What are the differences between baseband and broadband?
Baseband transmits a single signal at a time on the medium, while broadband can transmit multiple signals simultaneously.
56
Define what an SSID is in the context of wireless networking.
SSID (Service Set Identifier) is the name assigned to a wireless network.
57
What is a fiber optic cable and how does it differ from a coaxial cable?
Fiber optic cables use light to transmit data and offer higher bandwidth and longer distance transmission than coaxial cables.
58
Explain the role of an NTP server in a network.
NTP (Network Time Protocol) servers synchronize the clocks of computers over a network.
59
What is PoE (Power over Ethernet) and its primary use?
PoE allows network cables to carry electrical power to devices like IP cameras and wireless access points.
60
Define what a UTP cable is and where it is used.
UTP (Unshielded Twisted Pair) cables are used in networking for Ethernet connections and are characterized by twisted pairs of wires within the cable.
61
What is the difference between a public IP address and a private IP address?
Public IP addresses are used on the internet and must be unique worldwide, while private IP addresses are used within a private network and don't need to be globally unique.
62
Explain what a network sniffer (or packet analyzer) does.
A network sniffer captures and analyzes packets of data being transmitted over a network.
63
What is the purpose of a network protocol analyzer?
A protocol analyzer examines and reports on the traffic, protocols, and communications over a network.
64
Define what Layer 2 and Layer 3 switches are.
Layer 2 switches operate at the data link layer, while Layer 3 switches have routing capabilities at the network layer.
65
What is a network backbone?
A network backbone is the principal data route between interconnected networks and core routers.
66
Explain the concept of network peering.
Network peering is the exchange of data directly between ISPs, bypassing third-party networks.
67
What are the primary functions of a content filter in a network?
Content filters screen and block access to web content that does not meet the established security or productivity standards.
68
Define what a site-to-site VPN is.
A site-to-site VPN connects and secures traffic between two or more fixed locations over the internet.
69
What is the purpose of a failover in network systems?
Failover is a backup operational mode that automatically switches to a standby database, server, or network if the primary system fails.
70
Explain the difference between symmetric and asymmetric encryption.
Symmetric encryption uses the same key for encryption and decryption, whereas asymmetric encryption uses a pair of public and private keys.
71
What is a digital certificate and how is it used in networking?
A digital certificate is a digital form of identification, similar to a passport, used in networking to authenticate the identity of a website.
72
Define what the term PING means in networking.
PING is a utility used to test the reachability of a host on an IP network and measures the round-trip time for messages sent to the destination computer.
73
What is the role of a network KPI (Key Performance Indicator)?
Network KPIs are used to measure and manage the performance of a network, including its efficiency, reliability, and speed.
74
Explain the concept of a network loop and how it can be prevented.
A network loop is a situation where a packet is continually transmitted within a series of network switches, routers, or other network nodes. It can be prevented using STP.
75
What is a network collision and how is it handled?
Network collision occurs when two or more devices attempt to send a packet on a network segment at the same time.
76
Define what a network frame collision is.
A network frame collision is a specific type of collision that occurs at the data link layer in Ethernet networks.
77
What is the purpose of a network emulator?
A network emulator is used to test the performance of applications over a simulated network environment.
78
Explain the concept of network convergence.
Network convergence refers to the provision of telephone, video, and data communication services within a single network.
79
What is the difference between a network tap and a switch port analyzer (SPAN)?
A network tap is a hardware device that allows monitoring of network traffic, while SPAN copies network packets from specific switch ports to another port for analysis.
80
Define what network telemetry is.
Network telemetry involves the collection and analysis of data about a network's performance and health.
81
What are the advantages of using cloud-based network management?
Cloud-based network management provides scalability, flexibility, and easy access to network resources and data.
82
Explain the concept of virtual networking.
Virtual networking allows virtual machines to communicate within a hypervisor environment in a computer network.
83
What is the purpose of a network access control (NAC) system?
NAC systems control access to a network by not allowing devices to access network resources until they meet certain predefined security criteria.
84
Define what network jitters are and their impact on network performance.
Network jitter refers to the variation in the time delay between packets arriving, caused by network congestion, timing drift, or route changes.
85
What is the difference between a unicast, multicast, and broadcast address?
Unicast addresses a single recipient, multicast addresses a group of recipients, and broadcast addresses all nodes on the network.
86
Explain the concept of a virtual LAN (VLAN) trunking.
VLAN trunking allows multiple VLANs to pass over a single network link between switches or routers.
87
What is the function of a session border controller (SBC) in a network?
An SBC facilitates and controls VoIP communication sessions across a network boundary.
88
Define what a network overlay is.
A network overlay is a virtual network built on top of existing hardware, typically used in software-defined networking.
89
What is the purpose of a network fabric?
Network fabric is an interconnection of multiple network elements such as switches and routers, often in a data center.
90
Explain the concept of network slicing in 5G technology.
Network slicing in 5G technology is the process of creating multiple unique logical and self-contained networks on top of a common physical infrastructure.
91
What is the role of SDN (Software-Defined Networking) in modern networks?
SDN separates the network's control (brains) and forwarding (muscle) planes, allowing more efficient network management and configuration.
92
Define what a mesh network topology is.
A mesh network topology is a network where each node is connected to multiple other nodes, allowing for high redundancy and reliability.
93
What is the function of a network protocol stack?
A network protocol stack is a set of network protocol layers that work together to manage network communications.
94
Explain the purpose of an MPLS (Multiprotocol Label Switching) network.
MPLS is a technique for routing network packets more efficiently and flexibly, using labels to make data forwarding decisions.
95
What is the difference between analog and digital signaling in networking?
Analog signaling uses continuous signals, while digital signaling uses discrete values (bits) for transmitting information.
96
Define what network throughput capacity is.
Network throughput capacity is the maximum rate of successful message delivery over a communication channel.
97
What is the purpose of a network service level agreement (SLA)?
A network SLA is a contract between a service provider and a customer that specifies the expected performance and availability of the service.
98
Explain the role of an MDM (Mobile Device Management) in a network.
MDM software secures, manages, and supports mobile devices deployed across mobile operators, service providers, and enterprises.
99
What is the purpose of an SIP (Session Initiation Protocol) in networking?
SIP is a protocol used for initiating, maintaining, and terminating real-time sessions that include voice, video, and messaging applications.
100
Define what network fault tolerance is.
Network fault tolerance is the ability of a network to continue operating properly in the event of the failure of some of its components.
101
In SYSLOG, what does a value of 3 mean?
3 is "Error" (3rror) meaning a Error conditions.
102
In SYSLOG, what does a value of 2 mean?
2 is "Critical" (Crit2cal) meaning a Critical conditions.
103
In SYSLOG, what does a value of 1 mean?
1 is "Alert" meaning Action must be taken immediately.
104
In SYSLOG, what does a value of 0 mean?
0 is "Emergency" meaning the System is unstable.
105
In SYSLOG, what does a value of 4 mean?
4 is "Warning" (W4rning) meaning a Warning conditions.
106
In SYSLOG, what does a value of 5 mean?
5 is "Notice" (Noti5e) meaning Normal but significant conditions.
107
In SYSLOG, what does a value of 6 mean?
6 is "Informational" meaning a Informational messages.
108
In SYSLOG, what does a value of 7 mean?
7 is "Debug" meaning Debugging-level messages.
109
What are the 3 types of SNMP messages?
GET - Read information SET - Write information TRAP - Sends alerts and notifications.
110
What are the 3 major components of SNMP?
NMS - Network Management System, MIB - Management Information Base, OID - Organizational ID
111
What version of SNMP is secure?
SNMPv3. SNMPv1 & SNMPv2 both use default Community names and transmit data in plaintext.
112
What NTP Stratums can be used for time keeping? Stratum 1 through 14 can be used where the lowest available Stratum is preferred. Stratum 0 is for reference to the source and Stratum 15 is too far from the source.
113
What does NetFlow do?
NetFlow monitors network traffic and identifies all protocols, byte counts, flow data (ports, source IP, destination IP, etc.) and bandwidth to establish Network Traffic Logs.
114
Which of the listed protocols is a secure protocol for the management of network devices? a)SSH b)SNMPv2 c)Telnet d)SSL e)SFTP
Of the listed protocols only a) SSH is used for the secure management of network devices. SNMPv2 & Telnet are unsecure, SSL is used to secure protocols, and SFTP is primarily used for secure file transfers.
115
TCP is a protocol that operates at which layer of the OSI model?
Both TCP and UDP operate at the Transport Layer. (L4)
116
IP telephony uses which ports?
RTMP (Real-Time Message Protocol) is used for VoIP voice audio and uses TCP 1935 while SIP (Session Initiation Protocol) is used for VoIP call signaling on TCP 5060 (and 5061 for UDP). Both RTMP (TCP 1935) and SIP (TCP 5060/UDP 5061) are needed for IP telephony.
117
You are noticing your firewall is denying port 23. What protocol is being blocked?
Telnet uses TCP 23.
118
If you are preparing a new Windows machine via remote session, what port would you be using? a)22 b)445 c)1433 d)1935 e)3389
Port 3389 (RDP - Remote Desktop Protocol.) 22 is SSH (Secure Shell) 445 is HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) 1433 is SQL and 1935 is RTMP (Real-Time Message Protocol)
119
What NTP stratum level would you choose when peering your device to establish a timestamp for your SYSLOG messages? a)0 b)1 c)15 d)16
Stratum Level 1. Stratum level 0 is used only for reference and can't be used for NTP and Stratums levels 15 and 16 are too far away from the source to be used for NTP.
120
What are the two ways you can be alerted with a triggered message of status changes on your battery backups? a)SNMP Traps b)SNMP MIBs c)NetFlow Exports d)Syslog Messages
SNMP Traps and Syslog Messages. SNMP MIBs are Management Information Databases and NetFlow Exports show patterns about traffic moving through your network.
121
What is a powerful security correlation solution that aggregates data from various sources? a)Syslog b)SNMP c)SIEM d)NetFlow
SIEM (Security Information Event Monitoring.) SIEM gathers event information from various sources like SYSLOG, SNMP and NetFlow to a central service that aggregates and analyzes the event data to generate alerts based on patterns.
122
What are the types of Duplex?
Full - Send & Receive simultaneously, Half - Send or Receive, but not simultaneously, Auto - Automatically negotiates the Duplex type and the Speed.
123
What does CSMA/CD stand for and what is it used for?
Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection. It is used to handle collisions when running in Half Duplex, typically when connected to a hub or repeater.
124
What does MTU stand for and what is it used for?
MTU Maximum Transmission Unit is used to set the maximum size of the payload in a frame.
125
What are the different types of MTU frames and their sizes?
Default MTU - 1500 bytes Jumbo - up to 9000 bytes, Runts - less than 64 bytes, Giant - Frames greater than the set MTU size.
126
What can cause Runt frames?
Runt frames can be caused by collisions or more often a malfunctioning NIC. Runts indicate a hardware malfunction and not a MTU issue.
127
What can cause Giant frames?
Giant frames can be caused by mismatched MTU settings or by unexpected headers added to frames.
128
What are some use cases for Jumbo Frames?
HDMI over IP, SAN traffic over ethernet, Backups and replications.
129
What does CRC in a frame do?
Cyclical Redundancy Check is used to mathematically validate/invalidate frames.
130
What are the causes for CRC to fail or drop a frame?
CRC errors are caused by noise (bad wiring, interference, general cabling issues) and late collisions (when in half duplex)
131
What causes Late Collisions?
Late collisions occur after 512 bits of a frame have been transmitted and are caused by either mismatched duplex settings or excessive cable length. Late collisions are an indication of a actual problem. Late collisions generally occur when one device is in Full Duplex and another is in half duplex.
132
What is PoE?
Power over Ethernet delivers a devices power through a PoE enabled switch and the connected ethernet cable. It's used to power Access Points, VoIP Phones, Cameras, etc.
133
What are the 2 standards of PoE?
Type 1 802.3af (PoE) max 15.4W Type 2 802.3at (PoE+) max 30W
134
What are the 2 primary ways of sending binary data at the physical layer?
Electrical impulses over Copper cables and Photons over Fiber optic cables.
135
Name the 4 types of copper cables.
UTP - Unshielded Twisted Pair. STP - Shielded Twisted Pair. Plenum. Riser.
136
What are UTP Cables?
UTP - Unshielded Twisted Pair. Regular use copper ethernet cable.
137
What are STP cables?
STP - Shielded Twisted Pair. Added EMI shielding to prevent interference from electrical devices as well as grounding.
138
What are Plenum Rated Cables?
Plenum rated cables are used in air ducts and plenum spaces to reduce the cables toxicity during a fire.
139
What are Riser Rated Cables?
Riser rated cables are used between floors and are less strict then Plenum.
140
Which fiber optic technology can carry a signal the farthest distance?
Single-mode fiber is used for more demanding, longer runs. Fewer "modes" is better for long distances.
141
What is the difference between Single-mode and Multi-mode fiber?
Single-mode uses 1 wavelength, Multi-mode can send multiple wavelengths sent inside the core.
142
What does the S mean in terms of IEEE Ethernet standards?
The S refers to Short.
143
What does the L mean in terms of IEEE Ethernet Standards?
The L refers to Long.
144
What is fiber optic often used for?
MANs, WANs, building to building runs, ISP infrastructure. When you need to get large amounts of data to travel long distances.
145
What is the max speed of SFP transceivers?
4.25 Gbps
146
What is the max speed for SFP+ transceivers?
10 Gbps
147
What is the max speed for QSFP transceivers?
4 Gbps
148
What is the max speed for QSFP+ transceivers?
40 Gbps
149
What does SFP and QSFP stand for?
Small Form Factor Pluggables. The Q stands for Quad.
150
What is the correct wiring order for T-568A?
1=g, 2=G, 3=o, 4=B, 5=b, 6=O, 7=br, 8=BR
151
What is the correct wiring order for T-568B?
1=o, 2=O, 3=g, 4=B, 5=b, 6=G, 7=br, 8=BR
152
What is the difference between T-568A and T-568B wiring?
In T-568B, the positions of the Green and Orange wires are switched.
153
With RJ-45 wiring, what does a lowercase and uppercase letter mean?
Lowercase mans the wire has a stripe, Uppercase means its solid.
154
What is consistent between the T-568A and T-568B wiring standards?
The order is always Stripe then Solid. 4 & 5 are always Blue then Striped Blue. 7 & 8 are always Striped Brown then Solid Brown.
155
What is a Crossover cable?
A crossover cable has one end wired as T-568A and the other wired as T-568B. It is used to connect like devices together.
156
What is a Straight Through Cable?
A Straight Through cable is a standard patch cable with either T-568A or T-568B wired on both ends. It is used to connect unlike devices together.
157
What is MDI?
Medium-Dependent Interface. These are typically Edge devices.
158
What is MDIX?
Medium-Dependent Interface Crossover devices are typically L2 or L3 switches. They are capable of performing Crossovers.
159
What is a Cross Connect Cable used for?
It is used to connect 2 different patch panels together. It's a bundle of patch cables.
160
What is the max speed of a CAT3 cable?
10Mbps
161
What is the max speed of a CAT5 cable?
100Mbps
162
What is the max speed of a CAT5e cable?
1000Mbps
163
What is the max speed of a CAT6 cable?
1000Mbps
164
What is the max speed of a CAT6a cable?
10Gbps
165
What is the max speed of a CAT8 cable?
40Gbps
166
What is the max speed of a CAT6a certified patch panel?
10Gbps.
167
What are the mail causes of No Link?
Bad wiring. TX/RX reversed, Poorly terminated
168
What can possibly cause slower network speeds?
Wrong configurations, wrong cabling.
169
What can possibly cause a large number of CRC errors on both sides?
CRC errors are commonly associated with signal degradation. EMI noise, faulty cabling, Over distance transmissions, poor signal quality.
170
What can possibly cause a large amount of late collisions on one side, but not the other?
Late collisions on one side are caused by mismatched duplex settings. Other causes could be faulty NIC.
171
What can possibly cause a large number of errors on both sides including runts?
Many errors on both ends including runts indicates a malfunctioning NIC.
172
What can possibly cause a large number of Giants on one side?
Mismatched MTU. One side has changed the MTU from the default, this would be the side without Giants reporting.
173
What can possibly cause a down/down (no connection) state when using Fiber connection?
Polarity mismatched (TX/RX are swapped) Wrong SFP, broken cable.
174
What is the main purpose of a L2 LAN switch?
To learn MAC addresses are by observing Frames and create a MAC address table with MACs and their source ports so it can forward Frames to their destination port.
175
What is Broadcast Flooding request used for?
ARP Request and DHCP discovers. A destination MAC of FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF will flood frames out all ports except the ingress.
176
What is Forwarding on a Switch?
Forwarding sends frames out a single port based on the destination MAC address in the frames.
177
What are the 3 methods a frame is transferred?
Unicast-between 2 individual nodes. Multicast-One node to multiple nodes (Specific group of devices). Broadcast-transmitting to all nodes except the ingress. (All devices on a subnet)
178
What causes a L2 Switching Loop?
A L2 switching loop is caused when you have 2 active links between 2 switches. You can have multiple links between switches for redundancy, but only 1 should be active.
179
Why are unmanaged switches not used in a enterprise environment?
The can produce Layer 2 loops if incorrectly setup and lack the Spanning Tree Protocols needed to prevent L2 Loops.
180
What does Spanning Tree Protocol do?
STP identifies ports to block so that loops will be eliminated. 2 Switches with redundant connections only need 1 active. STP prevents the redundant connection from being active until it needed.
181
What is a VLAN?
A Virtual Local Area Network is a L2 switches mechanism for subnetting. Its a way to group devices together such as departments, printers, VoIP phones and so on.
182
How many bits are available for Class A, B, and C Network IDs?
Class A is 8 bits (1 octet) Class B is 16 bits (2 octets) Class C is 24 bits (3 octets)
183
What is a Trunk Link (or Trunking)?
A Trunk Link (or Trunking) is a physical link between 2 switches or a switch and a router (or firewall) that can carry the traffic of multiple VLANS.
184
How does Trunking work?
Trunking uses the 802.1Q Trunking protocol to insert 802.1Q VLAN Tags into frames. The added 4 bytes of data contain all the needed info to forward the frames to the correct VLAN.
185
What are Private VLANs?
Private VLANs are a way to carve up a single VLAN into multiple VLANs or subsets to control communications by designating them as Isolated (isolates clients in the same VLAN) or Community (allows a subset of a VLAN to communicate)
186
Your network is experiencing broadcast storms causing extreme latency. BPDUs sent by the root bridge of what protocol eliminate the loops in the topology that cause broadcast storms?
STP-Spanning Tree Protocol.
187
You have learned the layer 2 address (MAC) for a host, and now need to determine the port it connects to on a switch. What command would you use?
show mac-address table dynamic
188
Which switch would become the root bridge for the STP instance for VLAN?
The switch with the lowest bridge ID (BID)
189
What are the capabilities of 802.11b?
2.4GHz on channels 1-11 (or 14) at 11Mbps
190
What are the capabilities of 802.11a?
5GHz on channels 36-64 (and other U-NII) at 54Mbps
191
What are the capabilities of 802.11g?
2.4GHz on channels 1-11 (or 14) at 54Mbps
192
What are the capabilities of 802.11n?
2.4GHz & 5GHz on channels 1-11 (or 14) at 600Mbps
193
What are the capabilities of 802.11ac? (WiFi 5)
5GHz on channels 36-64 (and other U-NII) at 6.9Gbps
194
What are the capabilities of 802.11ax? (WiFi 6)
2.4GHz on channels 1-11 (or 14) at 9.6Gbps, 5GHz on channels 36-64 (and other U-NII) at 9.6Gbps, 6GHz on channels 1,5,9,13 ... 229, 223 at 9.6 Gbps
195
What 802.11 standards only support 2.4GHz?
802.11b & g
196
What 802.11 standards only support 5GHz?
802.11a & ac
197
What 802.11 standard supports 2.4GHz and 5GHz?
802.11n
198
What 802.11 standard supports 6GHz?
802.11ax supports 2.4GHz, 5GHz and 6GHz
199
Is 802.11 a full duplex or half duplex network environment?
802.11 is a half duplex environment. It uses CSMA(CA) to avoid collisions.
200
What is the minimum threshold for a WiFi signal (dBm)?
-70dBm
201
What channels are available to use on the 2.4GHz band?
In the USA, 1-11, In Europe, 1-13 and in Asia, 1-14.
202
What wireless tool disables direct communications between clients connected to the same WAN?
Wireless Client Isolation
203
What is the difference between BSS & ESS?
Basic Service Sets are 1 AP broadcasting 1 or more SSIDs. Extended Service Sets link 2 or more BSS all broadcasting the same SSID in order to increase the coverage range and allow for device roaming.
204
What is EiRP and RSSI in WiFi Signaling?
Effective Isotropic Radiated Power refers to the absolute power at the source. (transmit power + antenna) Received Signal Strength Indicator is the measure of signal strength in dBm on the client.
205
What are 3 kinds of omnidirectional antennas?
Short dipole, articulating dipole, ceiling mounted.
206
What are 3 kinds of directional antennas?
Yagi, wall mounted, parabolic.
207
What are 3 common causes of WiFi Client Disassociation?
High channel utilization, Excessive interference, poor signal.
208
What are site surveys and heat maps used for?
Site Surveys are used to build Heat Maps. Heat Maps are used to visualize a APs effectiveness in an environment and can help determine signal strength, dead spots, (additional APs), antenna type, and power settings of APs.
209
What is Seamless Roaming a byproduct of?
Extended Service Set (ESS) and optimal AP coverage.
210
What is MIMO?
MIMO or SU-MIMO is Multiple Input Multiple Output. It increases throughput by taking advantage of multiple antennas on a AP.
211
How does MU-MIMO differ from SU-MIMI?
MU-MIMO uses beamforming that allows multiple users to communicate with the AP, which SU-MIMO does not.
212
What is Channel Bonding?
Channel Bonding combines 2 adjacent 20 MHz channels into on 40MHz channel to increase throughput and speeds.
213
What security does WPA provide?
Encryption is TKIP. Personal Authentication is PSK, Enterprise authentication is 802.1x (EAP-TLS + RADIUS)
214
What security does WPA2 provide?
Encryption is AES (128 bit key). Personal Authentication is PSK, Enterprise authentication is 802.1x (EAP-TLS + RADIUS)
215
What security does WPA3 provide?
Encryption is GCMP (256 bit key). Personal Authentication is SAE, Enterprise authentication is 802.1x (EAP-TLS + RADIUS)
216
Users are reporting intermittent connectivity in certain areas of your WiFi 6 deployment. What are the first 3 things you should do to better understand the issue?
Do a site survey, build a heat map, check AP placement.
217
Users are reporting poor performance, Upon investigating you find a new SSID from a near by business. What would you change so both SSIDs can coexist?
Channel Value.
218
Users in your WLAN are unable to wirelessly roam between APs. What 2 changes would enable seamless roaming?
Configure the WLAN as an ESA (ESS) and place APs in the same SSID
219
What solution would help you enforce AUP in your WLAN?
Captive Portal
220
What could be affected to alter the coverage extended by a single AP when interference is not a concern?
Change the AP placement, Change the antenna, Change the antenna power.
221
WiFi users that access the WLAN via a web portal find themselves disconnecting frequently. How would you resolve this?
Review the captive portal time out settings.
222
You discover that users near a AP are more likely to connect to a AP across the room. What should you change?
Change the antenna power on the closest AP.
223
What is a reason to use Channel Bonding in WiFi 6?
You have bandwidth hungry clients.
224
If you used channel 6, what other channels can you use?
1 and 11
225
You need an authentication protocol that encrypts passwords and uses digital certificates. What should you use?
EAP-TLS
226
What WiFi security standard uses TKIP as the primary encryption?
WPA1
227
What is the best layer 2 access protocol possible on WiFi 5 and WiFi 6 on WLANs?
CSMA/CA
228
What type of connection does DSL use?
DSL uses a phoneline with a RJ11 connecter.
229
What type of connection does Cable Broadband use?
Cable broadband uses RG-6 cables with F-type connection. (coaxial)
230
What would be a good choice for internet if Cable and DSL are not available?
Satellite
231
The broadband router of a business stopped working overnight. It's now sending out a completely different WLAN. What would have prevented this?
Changing the default credentials.
232
Your upgrading the firmware of a network device (router, switch, or firewall) What important step will ensure you wont brick it?
Checking the hash (MD5/SHA)
233
What is the first octet range for a Class A IP and its default subnet mask?
1-126 - /8 (255.0.0.0)
234
What is the first octet range for a Class B IP and its default subnet mask?
128-191 - /16 (255.255.0.0)
235
What is the first octet range for a Class C IP and its default subnet mask?
192-223 - /24 (255.255.255.0)
236
How do you find the number of available subnets for a IP?
Take the Class Mask of the IPs first octet, subtract that from the subnet mask = x. 2^x = Available Subnets Example: 10.32.9.100/24 (/24-/8=16) 2^16= 65,536 subnets.
237
In a prefix notation, what does the numeric value following the / represent?
The number after the / represents the number of ones when converted to binary. (/24 = 24 1's)
238
What is the prefix notation for the subnet mask 255.255.255.192?
/26
239
What is the prefix notation for the subnet mask 128.0.0.0?
/1 (10000000)
240
How many ones are in the binary of 128?
1
241
What is the prefix notation for the subnet mask 192.0.0.0?
/2 (11000000)
242
How many ones are in the binary of 192?
2
243
What is the prefix notation for the subnet mask 224.0.0.0?
/3 (11100000)
244
How many ones are in the binary of 224?
3
245
What is the prefix notation for the subnet mask 240.0.0.0?
/4 (11110000)
246
How many ones are in the binary of 240?
4
247
What is the prefix notation for the subnet mask 248.0.0.0?
/5 (11111000)
248
How many ones are in the binary of 248?
5
249
What is the prefix notation for the subnet mask 252.0.0.0?
/6 (11111100)
250
How many ones are in the binary of 252?
6
251
What is the prefix notation for the subnet mask 254.0.0.0?
/7 (11111110)
252
How many ones are in the binary of 254?
7
253
What is the prefix notation for the subnet mask 255.0.0.0?
/8 (11111111)
254
How many ones are in the binary of 255?
8
255
What is a easy way to find the prefix notation for a subnet mask?
Memorize the prefix values for /1 - /8. Then add the octet value to the mask value. Example. 255.255.224.0 (2 full masks [8+8] = a mask value of 16) + (224 = a prefix value of /3) 16+3 = /19.
256
How do you find out how many available subnets you have? Take the subnet mask, subtract that from the Class mask (1-126 = /8, 128-191 = /16, 192-223 = /24) (Subnet mask - Class mask = x) 2 ^ x = available subnets. Example: 172.16.0.0/16 - Subnet mask /24 (24-16=8) (2^8=256)
257
How do you find out how many Hosts can you have on each subnet?
2^h-2. h = host bits (the number of zeros in a 32-bit IP binary notation) Example /24 (32 bits - 24 network bits = 8 hosts) 2^8 = 256 - 2 = 254
258
What is the subnet mask for a network that needs to support 80 hosts?(in dotted decimal and slash)
255.255.255.128 or /25. Host per subnet = 2^h-2 (32-25=7) 2^7=128-2 = 126.
259
What subnet mask is required for a network with 28 hosts?(in dotted decimal and slash)
255.255.255.224 or /27. Hosts per subnet = 2^h-2 (32-27=5) 2^5=32-2=30
260
What is the subnet mask for a network that needs to support 120 hosts?(in dotted decimal and slash)
255.255.255.128 or /25. Host per subnet = 2^h-2 (32-25=7) 2^7=128-2 = 126.
261
What subnet mask is required for a network with 14 hosts?(in dotted decimal and slash)
255.255.255.240 or /28. Host per subnet = 2^h-2 (32-28=4) 2^4=16-2=14
262
What subnet mask is required for a network with 62 hosts?(in dotted decimal and slash)
255.255.255.192 or /26. Host per subnet = 2^h-2 (32-26=6) 2^6=64-2=62
263
What dotted decimal mask provides support for 25 hosts?
255.255.255.224
264
What prefix notation mask provides support for 90 host?
/25
265
How many hosts are possible with a mask of 255.255.255.240?
14 host.
266
What dotted decimal mask provides support for 50 hosts?
255.255.255.192
267
What prefix notation ask provides support for 6 host?
/29
268
How do you quickly find the usable hosts on a mask with all 4 octets? (ie. 255.255.255.192)
Subtract 254 from the 4th octet (192) 254-192=62 host.
269
What is 2^0?
1
270
What is 2^1?
2
271
What is 2^2?
4
272
What is 2^3?
8
273
What is 2^4?
16
274
What is 2^5?
32
275
What is 2^6?
64
276
What is 2^7?
128
277
You have a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. Are Device A: 10.241.18.30 and Device B: 10.241.19.30 on the same subnet?
No
278
You have 2 devices, 10.241.19.5 and 10.241.19.45. They have a subnet mask of /26. Are both devices on the same subnet?
Yes. They fall between the subnet range of 10.241.19.1-10.241.19.62
279
You have 2 devices, 10.241.19.2 and 10.241.19.14. They have a subnet mask of /28. Are both devices on the same subnet?
Yes They both fall within the range of 10.241.19.1-10.241.19.14.
280
Your router has a IP of 10.0.1.1/28. Host A has a IP of 10.0.1.30/28, Is host A addressed correctly?
No. 10.0.1.1/28 only covers 10.0.1.1-10.0.1.14.
281
What are the Class A, B, and C private IP ranges?
Class A: 10.0.0.0-10.255.255.254, Class B: 172.16.0.1-172.31.255.254, Class C: 192.168.0.1-192.168.255.254. (Private IPs are 10.x.x.x, 172.16.x.x-172.31.x.x, and 192.168.x.x)
282
What is the class and type of the IP 172.21.90.114?
That is a Class B RFC1918 or private IPv4 address.
283
What is the class and type of the IP 127.0.0.0?
That is a Class A reserved IP for loopback.
284
What are the private IP addresses?
10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/12, 192.168.0.0/16
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