flashcards (1)

(87 cards)

1
Q

According to the labor theory of property, what is the primary purpose of intellectual property rights?

A

To create an incentive for creative work that benefits the public.

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2
Q

What legal mechanism does IP law grant to promote creative activity, and what is the purpose of the limits on this mechanism?

A

It grants limited monopolies; the limits serve to advance competition.

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3
Q

What two fundamental categories of information are not protected by intellectual property rights?

A

Ideas and facts.

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4
Q

A resource is considered _____ when its use by one person does not interfere with its use by others.

A

nonrivalrous

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5
Q

What legal protection is available for original works of authorship like literary, musical, or dramatic works?

A

Copyright.

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6
Q

What form of IP protection applies to a process, machine, manufacture, or composition of matter?

A

Patent.

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7
Q

A commercially distinctive word, name, symbol, or device is protected by _____ law.

A

trademark

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8
Q

What is the term for the copyright protection period for works created on or after January 1, 1978?

A

The life of the author plus 70 years.

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9
Q

What are the three federal requirements for copyright protection?

A

Originality, Work of Authorship, and Fixation.

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10
Q

What is the standard for originality in copyright law?

A

The work must be an independent creation of the author and show a minimal degree of creativity.

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11
Q

To prove copyright infringement, what two elements must be established?

A

Ownership of a valid copyright and copying of original constituent elements of the work.

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12
Q

What is the term for the defense that prevents a copyright holder from suing for infringement over false information they presented as factual?

A

Copyright estoppel.

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13
Q

What is the most important defense in a copyright infringement action, permitting unauthorized copying in some circumstances?

A

The doctrine of fair use.

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14
Q

In a fair use analysis, what is the key question regarding the first factor, ‘the purpose and character of the use’?

A

Whether the new work is transformative, adding something new or expanding the original’s utility.

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15
Q

What type of use, such as providing commentary, criticism, or parody, is often considered a transformative and fair use?

A

Copying a work to provide comment on it, criticism of it, or to create a parody.

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16
Q

Under the fourth fair use factor, what must be shown regarding the effect on the potential market for the copyrighted work?

A

A meaningful or significant effect, not just the possibility of some lost sales.

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17
Q

The _____ doctrine in copyright law exhausts the copyright holder’s right to control the distribution of a copy after its first lawful sale or transfer.

A

first sale

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18
Q

What are the five requirements for an invention to be granted a patent?

A

Patentability, Novelty, Utility, Non-obviousness, and Enablement.

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19
Q

What categories of things are explicitly held to be not patentable?

A

The laws of nature, physical phenomena, and abstract ideas.

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20
Q

What is the most important requirement for obtaining a patent, concerning whether the invention is a sufficient technical advance?

A

Non-obviousness.

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21
Q

What is the standard for the ‘enablement’ requirement in a patent application?

A

The application must describe the invention in enough detail for one of ordinary skill in the art to use it.

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22
Q

The _____ doctrine states that once a patentee sells a product, they can no longer control that specific item through patent laws.

A

patent exhaustion

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23
Q

What are the three requirements for trademark protection?

A

Distinctiveness, Non-functionality, and First Use in commerce.

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24
Q

A product feature is considered _____ if it is essential to the use or purpose of the article or affects its cost or quality.

A

functional

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25
What happens to a registered trademark if it becomes a generic term for a category of goods or services?
It may be canceled at any time on the grounds that it has become generic.
26
What is the default form of co-ownership when property is conveyed to two or more people without specifying the type of tenancy?
Tenancy in Common.
27
Which form of co-ownership does NOT include a right of survivorship, allowing a co-tenant to convey their interest by will?
Tenancy in Common.
28
What defining feature of a joint tenancy means that a deceased tenant's interest automatically passes to the surviving joint tenants?
The right of survivorship.
29
What are the four unities required to create a joint tenancy?
Time, Title, Interest, and Possession.
30
What happens to a joint tenancy if one of the four unities is lost or destroyed?
The joint tenancy is severed and becomes a tenancy in common.
31
If A, B, and C are joint tenants, and C transfers their interest to D, what is the resulting co-ownership structure?
A and B remain joint tenants with each other, but they are tenants in common with respect to D.
32
In a 'lien theory' jurisdiction, does a mortgage taken out by one joint tenant on their interest sever the joint tenancy?
No, because a mortgage is considered a lien, not a conveyance, and severance requires a conveyance.
33
What form of co-ownership is a special joint tenancy available only to married couples?
Tenancy by the Entirety.
34
What is the fifth unity required for a Tenancy by the Entirety, in addition to the four unities of a joint tenancy?
Marriage.
35
How can a Tenancy by the Entirety be severed?
Only by divorce or death; partition is not available.
36
In a majority of states, can a creditor of one spouse reach property held in a tenancy by the entirety?
No, the interest of one spouse is not subject to the claims of his or her individual creditors.
37
What is the legal term for when a co-tenant in possession refuses to allow other co-tenants to enter the property?
Ouster.
38
Under the majority rule, when is a co-tenant in possession liable to other co-tenants for the rental value of the property?
Only if there has been an ouster, meaning they have denied the other co-tenants the right to enter.
39
A co-tenant who pays more than their share of taxes or mortgage payments generally has a right of _____ from the other co-owners.
contribution
40
What remedy is available to tenants in common and joint tenants to transform their concurrent ownership into separate ownership?
Partition.
41
Which form of partition is generally favored by courts because it does not force an owner to sell their property against their will?
Partition in kind.
42
Partition by _____ is used when physical division is impractical and the owners' interests would be better served by selling the property and dividing the proceeds.
sale
43
What is the term for a monetary payment ordered by a court to equalize the value received by co-tenants in a partition action?
Owelty.
44
Which type of leasehold estate is for a fixed period of time and terminates automatically at the end of that period?
Term of years.
45
A lease that continues for successive periods until one party gives proper notice to terminate is called a _____.
periodic tenancy
46
A tenancy that can be terminated by either the landlord or tenant at any time is known as a _____.
tenancy at will
47
When a tenant wrongfully remains in possession after the lease has expired, what type of tenancy is created?
Tenancy at sufferance (or holdover tenancy).
48
Under the _____ Rule for delivering possession, a landlord must provide the new tenant with both the legal right to and physical custody of the premises.
English
49
What is it called when a tenant transfers their entire interest in the lease to another party?
An assignment.
50
When a tenant transfers less than their entire interest in a lease, retaining a reversionary interest, it is known as a _____.
sublease
51
In an assignment, the landlord and the new transferee (assignee) are in _____.
privity of estate
52
After an assignment, the original tenant remains liable to the landlord for rent based on what legal relationship?
Privity of contract.
53
In a sublease, what legal relationship, if any, exists between the landlord and the sublessee?
None; there is no privity of contract or privity of estate between them.
54
Under the modern majority rule for commercial leases, a landlord can only withhold consent to an assignment or sublease for a _____ reason.
commercially reasonable
55
What is the modern majority rule regarding a landlord's use of self-help to dispossess a tenant who has not abandoned the premises?
Self-help is never available; the landlord must use judicial summary proceedings.
56
Under the modern majority rule, what duty does a landlord have when a tenant abandons the property before the lease term ends?
A duty to make reasonable efforts to re-let the premises to mitigate damages.
57
The implied promise in every lease that the landlord will not disrupt the tenant's possession is the covenant of _____.
quiet enjoyment
58
What remedy is available to a tenant when conditions caused by the landlord substantially interfere with the tenant's use of the premises, making it akin to an eviction?
Constructive eviction.
59
To claim constructive eviction, what three steps must the tenant take?
Give notice to the landlord, allow a reasonable time to fix the problem, and then vacate the premises.
60
The _____ applies only to residential leases and requires the landlord to provide and maintain premises that are safe, clean, and fit for human habitation.
implied warranty of habitability
61
What is the term for a landlord taking reprisals against a tenant for reporting housing code violations in good faith?
Retaliatory eviction.
62
What law requires that a contract for the sale of land must be in writing to be enforceable?
The Statute of Frauds.
63
What is an exception to the Statute of Frauds in land sales, often evidenced by payment, possession, or buyer improvements?
Part performance.
64
Every land sale contract includes an implied covenant that the seller will provide _____, which is title free from an unreasonable risk of litigation.
marketable title
65
Which type of deed makes no warranties about the title and conveys only whatever interest the grantor has, if any?
A quitclaim deed.
66
A _____ deed contains warranties only against the grantor's own acts, not the acts of others.
special warranty
67
Which type of deed provides the greatest protection to the buyer by warranting against all defects in title, regardless of who caused them?
A general warranty deed.
68
What are the three present covenants in a general warranty deed?
The covenant of seisin, the covenant of right to convey, and the covenant against encumbrances.
69
What are the three future covenants in a general warranty deed?
The covenant of quiet enjoyment, the covenant of warranty, and the covenant of further assurances.
70
To be valid, a deed must be delivered with the grantor's intent to make the transfer _____ at the time of delivery.
irrevocable
71
Under a _____ recording statute, the first person to record their deed wins, regardless of whether they had notice of prior unrecorded conveyances.
race
72
Under a _____ recording statute, a subsequent bona fide purchaser wins if they acquire the property without notice of a prior unrecorded conveyance.
notice
73
What are the three types of notice that can defeat a subsequent purchaser's claim under a notice or race-notice statute?
Actual, constructive, or inquiry notice.
74
A subsequent purchaser is protected under a _____ statute only if they are without notice of a prior instrument AND they record their deed first.
race-notice
75
What is a non-possessory right to use the land of another for a limited purpose?
An easement.
76
In an easement appurtenant, the land that is burdened by the easement is called the _____.
servient tenement
77
An easement that benefits the holder personally, rather than a particular piece of land, is known as an _____.
easement in gross
78
What are the four primary ways an easement can be created (summarized by the mnemonic PINE)?
Prescription, Implication (prior use), Necessity, and Express Grant.
79
An easement created by open, notorious, continuous, and adverse use for the statutory period is an easement by _____.
prescription
80
What type of easement arises when a landowner severs a parcel, leaving one part landlocked?
An easement by necessity.
81
A revocable permission to enter another's land for a specific purpose is called a _____.
license
82
A license can become irrevocable through _____, which occurs when the licensee reasonably and detrimentally relies on the licensor's representation that the license will not be revoked.
estoppel
83
A promise about the use of land that is enforceable at law against successors in interest is called a _____.
real covenant
84
For the burden of a real covenant to run with the land, traditional law requires _____ privity between the original covenanting parties and _____ privity between the original party and their successor.
horizontal; vertical
85
What is the requirement for a covenant that it must have a close relationship to the ownership of the land itself, rather than being a personal promise?
It must 'touch and concern' the land.
86
A covenant that is enforceable in equity, does not require privity, and is based on notice is known as an _____.
equitable servitude
87
Under what doctrine can a covenant be terminated if conditions in the neighborhood have changed so drastically that the original purpose of the covenant can no longer be achieved?
The changed conditions doctrine.