Formative B 2017

Question 1

2. Which one of the following passes through the diaphragm along with
   the oesophagus?
3. Azygos vein
4. Phrenic nerves
5. Right vagus
6. Sympathetic trunks
7. Thoracic duct

Answer 1

3. Right vagus

Question 2

3. The apex of the lungs is covered by which pleura?
4. Bronchopulmonary
5. Cervical
6. Costal
7. Diaphragmatic
8. Mediastinal

Answer 2

2. Cervical

Question 3

4. Which of the following muscles are involved in quiet inspiration?
5. Abdominal muscles
6. Diaphragm
7. Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles
8. Internal and external intercostal muscles
9. Trapezius

Answer 3

3. Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles

Question 4

6. Which one of the following is the epithelium that lines the trachea?
7. Pseudostratified
8. Simple squamous
9. Stratified columnar
10. Stratified cuboidal
11. Transitional

Answer 4

1. Pseudostratified

Question 5

8. The main reason why smooth muscle contraction makes it difficult
   for asthma patients to breath is that the contraction results in
   significant narrowing of the lumen of which one of the following?
9. Alveolar ducts
10. Bronchi
11. Bronchioles
12. Laryngeal inlet
13. Mouth of each individual alveolus

Answer 5

3. Bronchioles

Question 6

9. A patient has a forced vital capacity (FVC) of 4 L (80% of normal) and
   forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) of 2 L.
   Which one of the following best describes the type of respiratory
   deficit?
10. Combined restrictive and obstructive deficits
11. Neither restrictive nor obstructive
12. Obstructive deficit alone
13. Restrictive deficit alone
14. There is no deficit, the values are within the normal range

Answer 6

3. Obstructive deficit alone

Question 7

10. Which one of the following is responsible for the greatest
    proportion of carbon dioxide carried the blood?
11. Bicarbonate in erythrocytes
12. Bicarbonate in plasma
13. Carbamino albumin
14. Carbamino haemoglobin
15. Dissolved in plasma

Answer 7

2. Bicarbonate in plasma

Question 8

11. Ventilation may be increased by which one of the following?
12. Breathing O2-enriched air
13. Decreasing plasma pH (acidosis)
14. Increasing blood perfusion of the lungs
15. Stimulation of the carotid sinus by hypercapnia
16. Stimulation of the intracranial chemoreceptors by hypoxia

Answer 8

2. Decreasing plasma pH (acidosis)

Question 9

13. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) can be managed
with which one of the following class of drugs?

1. β-adrenoceptor agonists
2. β-adrenoceptor antagonists
3. Calcium channel blockers
4. Muscarinic receptor agonists
5. Muscarinic receptor antagonists

Answer 9

5. Muscarinic receptor antagonists

Question 10

15. The wall of the urinary bladder is best described by which one of
    the following?
16. Has a lining of simple squamous epithelium
17. Has a muscularis externa partially composed of skeletal muscle
18. Has a prominent muscularis mucosae
19. Has epithelial cells containing many membrane-shuttling vesicles in their apical cytoplasm
20. Has epithelial cells that are highly permeable to water

Answer 10

4. Has epithelial cells containing many membrane-shuttling vesicles in their apical cytoplasm

Question 11

17. Fluid entering the loop of Henle is normally ______ with plasma,
    and that entering the distal tubule is normally ______ with plasma
18. Hypertonic, hypotonic
19. Hypotonic, hypertonic
20. Hypotonic, isotonic
21. Isotonic, hypertonic
22. Isotonic, hypotonic

Answer 11

5. Isotonic, hypotonic

Question 12

18. Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) has which one of the following
    actions?
19. Inhibits Na+ reabsorption in the DCT
20. Is a renal vasoconstrictor
21. Stimulates ADH release
22. Stimulates renin release
23. Suppresses the production of renin and aldosterone but not ADH

Answer 12

1. Inhibits Na+ reabsorption in the DCT

Question 13

20. The release of renin results in the synthesis of which one of the
    following?
21. ADH
22. Aquaporins in the basal membranes of proximal convoluted tubule cells
23. Na+ channels in the apical membranes of distal convoluted tubule cells
24. Na+/K+/2Cl− transporters in the loop of Henle
25. Renin

Answer 13

3. Na+ channels in the apical membranes of distal convoluted tubule cells

Question 14

21. Which one of the following best describes the mechanism of
    diuretic action for loop diuretics?
22. Block Na+ channels
23. Inhibit the 3Na+/2K+ ATPase
24. Inhibit the Na+/K+/2Cl− transporter
25. Stimulate the 3Na+/2K+ ATPase
26. Stimulate synthesis of aquaporins

Answer 14

3. Inhibit the Na+/K+/2Cl− transporter

Question 15

22. A mix of skeletal and smooth muscle tissue is found in which part
    of the GI tract?
23. Internal anal sphincter
24. Muscularis externa of the middle third of the oesophagus
25. Muscularis externa of the upper third of the oesophagus
26. Taenium coli of the colon
27. Tongue

Answer 15

2. Muscularis externa of the middle third of the oesophagus

Question 16

24. By comparison with the small intestine, the large intestine has a
    greater percentage of which cells in its epithelium?
25. Absorptive columnar cells
26. APUD cells
27. Goblet cells
28. M cells
29. Paneth cells

Answer 16

3. Goblet cells

Question 17

25. Salivation is stimulated by which one of the following?
26. Acetylcholine
27. Atropine
28. Cholecystokinin
29. Gastrin
30. Histamine

Answer 17

1. Acetylcholine

Question 18

26. Which one of the following best describes the intestinal phase of
    gastric juice secretion?
27. Controls gastric emptying
28. Is activated by the release of secretin and cholecystokinin
29. Is brought about by both distension of the duodenum and the release of secretin
30. Is due to activation of G-cells in the intestinal mucosa
31. Is regulated by somatostatin release by ECL cells

Answer 18

4. Is due to activation of G-cells in the intestinal mucosa

Question 19

28. The TATA box fulfils which one of the following roles?
29. It codes for introns
30. It initiates binding to ribosomes to mRNA
31. It is a site for DNA synthesis to occur
32. It is found adjacent to the translation start site in prokaryotic mRNAs
33. It is found in promoter regions

Answer 19

5. It is found in promoter regions

Question 20

29. The enzyme responsible for forming the final phosphodiester bond
    between two DNA fragments during DNA replication is which one of
    the following?
30. DNA-directed RNA polymerase
31. DNA ligase
32. DNA polymerase I
33. DNA polymerase III
34. Reverse transcriptase

Answer 20

2. DNA ligase

Question 21

30. To which site on the ribosome does the next aminoacyl tRNA bind
    during the elongation phase of translation?
31. The 5’ site
32. The 3’ site
33. The A site
34. The E site
35. The P site

Answer 21

3. The A site

Question 22

32. If cells in the process of dividing are subjected to colchicine, a drug
    that interferes with the functioning of the spindle apparatus, at which
    stage will mitosis be arrested?
33. Anaphase
34. Metaphase
35. Prometaphase
36. Prophase
37. Telophase

Answer 22

2. Metaphase

Question 23

33. A mutation results in a cell that no longer produces a normal
    protein kinase for the M phase checkpoint. Which one of the following
    would likely be the immediate result of this mutation?
34. The cell would prematurely enter anaphase.
35. The cell would never leave metaphase.
36. The cell would never enter metaphase.
37. The cell would never enter prophase.
38. The cell would undergo normal mitosis, but fail to enter the next G1 phase.

Answer 23

5. The cell would undergo normal mitosis, but fail to enter the next G1 phase.

Question 24

35. The glenoid (mandibular fossa) is an anatomical part of which one
    of the following bones?
36. Mandible
37. Maxilla
38. Occipital Bone
39. Parietal bone
40. Temporal bone

Answer 24

5. Temporal bone

Question 25

40. At the end of gastrulation stage of embryonic development, ectoderm is the outermost layer of the embryo and endoderm is the innermost layer, with mesoderm sandwiched between them. Which one of the following systems originates from the ECTODERM? 1. Blood 2. Circulatory system 3. Gastrointestinal tract 4. Nervous system 5. Skeleton

Answer 25

4. Nervous system