Fun Facts Flashcards

(112 cards)

1
Q

Which childhood disease should ibuprofen be avoided in due to increased risk of skin and soft tissue infections?

A

Chicken pox (Varicella infections)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which diuretic has an MHRA alert relating to increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer?

A

Hydrochlorothiazide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which diuretic is first-line in treating hypertension?

A

Indapamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which diuretic can cause increased blood glucose, therefore exacerbating diabetes?

A

Bendroflumethiazide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which three antihypertensives can be used in pregnancy?

A

Labetalol
Nifedipine
Methyldopa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which four beta blockers DO NOT cause sleep disturbances and nightmares? Why?

A
Water soluble:
Celiprolol
Atenolol
Nadolol
Sotalol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which eight beta blockers are cardioselective?

A
Metoprolol
Atenolol
Nebivolol
Celiprolol
Bisoprolol
Acebutolol
Betaxolol
Esmolol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the MHRA alert associated with corticosteroid use?

A

Serous chorioretinopathy - monitor for visual disturbances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are three MHRA alerts associated with SGLT2s?

A

Risk of DKA
Fournier’s gangrene
Risk of lower limb amputation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which SGLT2 can be used for treatment of HF?

A

Dapagliflozin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which two antidiabetic medications are safe in renal impairment?

A

Pioglitazone

Linagliptin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are two conditions that would be closely monitored for with pioglitazone?

A

HF

Bladder cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Why can’t tetracyclines be used in children under 12?

A

Binds to calcium in bones and teeth, can cause dental hyperplasia and tooth discolouration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why can’t aspirin be used in under 16s?

A

Risk of Reye’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What can be used to treat an overdose of benzodiazepines?

A

Flumazenil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the MHRA alert for antipsychotics in dementia patients?

A

Increased risk of death/stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is used to treat methotrexate toxicity?

A

Calcium foliate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which antibiotics have an MHRA alert for causing cholestatic jaundice?

A

Flucloxacillin

Co-Amoxiclav

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When would you stop a LMWH due to a decreasing blood result?

A

Platelets dropping by 30-50% of initial value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What would you do if a warfarin patient had an INR of 5-8 but no signs of active bleed?

A

Withhold 1-2 doses of warfarin until <5 and reduce maintenance dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What would you do if a warfarin patient had INR>8 but no bleeding?

A

Stop warfarin and give PO phytomenadione, the IV solution can be given orally

Repeat dose of phytomenadione after 24 hrs if INR still high

Restart warfarin when INR<5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What would you do if a warfarin patient had INR >8 and active bleeding? What blood result would you look at for a sign of bleed?

A

Hb dropping = sign of bleed

Give IV infusion of phytomenadione, repeat after 24hrs if INR still high

Restart warfarin when INR<5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is done in a warfarin patient with a major bleed?

A

Stop warfarin

Give IV phytomenadione and dried prothrombin complex (if unavailable, can give fresh frozen plasma but this is less effective)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What would you do if a warfarin patient had an INR 5-8 band showed signs of bleeding?

A

Stop warfarin

Give IV phyto

Restart warfarin when INR<5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
INR target and range for AF/1st episode DVT and PE/cardioversion
2. 0-3.0 | 2. 5 - target INR
26
INR target and range for recurrent DVT/PE despite anticoagulation and INR>2
3. 0-4.0 | 3. 5 - target INR
27
Can EllaOne be used as EHC whilst breastfeeding?
Yes, but advise the mother not to breastfeed for the next 7 days
28
In what pre-existing conditions would you avoid using mefloquine for malaria prophylaxis?
History of depression
29
What is the reaction when sildenafil is given alongside alpha blockers?
Can cause significant hypotension
30
What is the hypertension target in pregnancy?
135/85
31
What is the hypertension target in patients over 80?
150/90
32
What is the hypertension target in patients with renal disease/diabetes?
130/80
33
What drug is 1st line for scarlet fever and what is the alternative if the patient has a penicillin allergy?
Phenoxymethylpenicillin 1st line Azithromycin if penicillin allergic
34
Which PPI should not be used alongside clopidogrel and why?
Omeprazole - reduces efficacy of clopidogrel
35
Can sodium valproate be used in pregnancy for epilepsy or bipolar?
Epilepsy - contraindicated unless no other option Bipolar - do not use
36
What colour can urine turn when taking nitrofurantoin?
Yellow/brown
37
What colour can urine turn when taking rifampicin/rifabutin?
Orange/red
38
What colour can urine turn when taking sulfasalazine?
Yellow/orange
39
What colour can urine turn when taking entacapone?
Red/brown
40
What colour can urine turn when taking levodopa preparations?
Reddish/darker
41
What colour can your urine turn when taking senna?
Red/yellow
42
What tests should be included in 6-monthly monitoring with lithium?
Renal function Thyroid function Bodyweight/BMI Serum electrolytes
43
What are the signs of methotrexate toxicity?
``` Yellowing of eyes Stomach pain Fatigue N&V Reduced appetite ```
44
What is the interaction between omeprazole and methotrexate?
Omeprazole decreases clearance of methotrexate
45
What is the MHRA alert regarding PPIs?
Subacute cutaneous lupus erythematosus - presents as lesions on the skin
46
What conditions can PPI use increase the risk of?
C. diff Osteoporosis/fractures Gastric cancer
47
What electrolyte disturbance can be caused by PPI use?
Hypomagnesaemia
48
What are the typical tetrad of symptoms in neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
Altered mental state Muscle rigidity Hyperthermia Tachycardia
49
If presenting with disabling ischaemic stroke and new AF, when should anticoagulation be started?
Start in 2 weeks after high dose aspirin
50
What is the pre-contemplation stage of behaviour change?
No intention of changing behaviour, denial of a problem
51
What is the contemplation stage of behaviour change?
Knows they have a problem, not yet ready to make changes
52
What is the most appropriate type of diuretic to use alongside digoxin and why?
Potassium-sparing, hypoK+ can lead to digoxin toxicity
53
How should vinca alkaloids be administered?
Intravenously - intrathecal administration can cause severe neurotoxicity
54
What are the four Cs for causing C. diff?
Clindamycin Co-amoxiclav Cephalosporin Ciprofloxacin (quinolones)
55
What are the recommended weekly units for alcohol intake?
14 units a week
56
What is the recommended intake of salt daily for adults?
6g
57
Give two examples of food that are purine rich
Red meat | Seafood
58
What is the serum uric level target for maintenance treatment of gout?
<300micromol/L
59
Rank the topical corticosteroids from most potent to least potent: - Hydrocortisone - Betamethasone - Clobetasone butyrate - Clobetasol propionate
Most potent Clobetasol propionate Betamethasone Clobetasone butyrate Hydrocortisone Least potent
60
What should be monitored annually in children using long-term ICS?
Height and weight
61
What can be used in community for a patient experiencing hypoglycaemia?
15-20g glucose or sucrose | 150-200ml pure fruit juice
62
What effect can antipsychotics have on blood sugars?
Hyperglycaemia
63
What schedule CD is temazepam?
Schedule 3
64
What is the interaction between sumatriptan and tramadol?
Increased risk of serotonin syndrome
65
What schedule CDs are amphetamines?
Schedule 2
66
What are the most common symptoms of otitis media in children?
Irritability, crying, pain, fever
67
What effect can long-term topical steroid use have on hair?
Hypertrichosis - overgrowth of hair
68
What are 4 side effects of long-term topical steroid use?
Skin depigmentation Skin atrophy Telangiectasia (spider veins) Adrenal suppression
69
What is kaolin used for?
Mild-moderate diarrhoea Mouth sores Can cause blood to clot quicker
70
Is kaolin commonly misused?
No, it is sometimes in a preparation with morphine as an anti-diarrhoeal but alone it is rarely misused
71
What lifestyle advice should be given to patients using clioquinol preparations?
The cream can stain clothing
72
Which drugs are inducers of CYP enzymes? (CRAP GPS)
``` Carbamazepines Rifampicin/rifabutin Alcohol Phenytoin Griseofulvin Phenobarbitone Sulfonylureas ```
73
Which drugs are inhibitors of CYP enzymes? (SICK FACES.COM)
``` Sodium valproate Isoniazid Cimetidine Ketoconazole Fluconazole Alcohol and grapefruit juice Chloramphenicol Erythromycin Sulfonamides Ciprofloxacin Omeprazole Metronidazole ```
74
What is the dose of tamoxifen in breast cancer?
20mg daily
75
Which antibiotic is commonly used in dental infections due to its activity against anaerobic bacteria?
Metronidazole
76
Which antibiotic can cause severe optic neuropathy?
Linezolid
77
Which drug use for DVT is a direct thrombin inhibitor and has a rapid onset of action?
Dabigatran
78
Which international patients would be eligible for emergency supply at patient's request?
EEA and Swiss
79
Which drug can be used in the treatment of alcohol dependency and works by causing acute sensitivity to alcohol?
Disulfiram
80
Can standard NHS prescriptions be repeated?
No, in England there is the repeat dispensing service
81
Can private prescriptions be repeated?
Yes, they can be repeated as many times as the prescriber has written (e.g. repeat x3 = repeat dispense 3 times) If the prescription just says "repeat" it can only be repeat dispensed once
82
What are symptoms of alcohol overdose?
Ataxia Nystagmus Dysarthria (difficulty speaking)
83
What are the symptoms of TCA overdose?
Dry mouth Urinary retention Dilated pupils
84
What drug is indicated for maintaining abstinence in alcohol-dependent patients and works by reducing cravings?
Acamprosate
85
What are the symptoms of thiamine deficiency?
Acute confusion, leg tremors, droopy eyelids
86
Which anti-hypertensive can cause menstrual disturbance?
Spironolactone
87
Which antihypertensives can cause sleep disturbances?
ACEi
88
What are the signs of carbamazepine toxicity?
Blurred vision Ataxia Dizziness N&V
89
What are the signs of theophylline toxicity?
``` Haematemesis/vomiting Hyperglycaemia Dilated pupils Tachycardia Arrythmias Agitation Restlessness Convulsions ```
90
What conditions is pseudoephedrine cautioned in?
Diabetes | Hypertension
91
When can aspirin be used in under 16s?
Treatment of Kawasaki disease
92
What are the BNF recommendations for avoiding methotrexate dosing errors?
Use one strength of tablet Ensure the label clearly states the dose and regimen Advise the patient to report any signs of blood/liver/pulmonary disorders (sore throat, bleeding, bruising Advise the patient of the dose and reason for taking
93
What is the age license for hydrocortisone 1% cream?
10 years
94
Which beta blocker usually has to be given more than once daily?
Propranolol
95
What is the shelf-life of GTN s/l tablets after opening?
8 weeks
96
What are the symptoms of seborrhoeic dermatitis?
Red rash affecting central regions of the face
97
Symptoms of sinus headaches?
Dull, throbbing headache in upper half of face | Made worse by bending down
98
How should CD3 private prescriptions be processed?
Submit to relevant NHS agency
99
How should CD3 requisitions from a prescriber be processed?
Submit to relevant NHS agency
100
How does tax affect processing of CD3 invoices?
Should be kept for 6 years
101
How long should you wait for before giving blood after stopping isotretinoin and why?
4 weeks, risk of teratogenicity to pregnant women receiving transfusion
102
Which diuretic has little effect in patients with CrCL <30ml/min?
Bendroflumethiazide
103
What are the five MHRA recommended check points for reducing prescribing errors?
``` Right patient Right medicine Right route Right dose Right time ```
104
Which anticoagulant should be dose reduced when used concomitantly with verapamil?
Dabigatran
105
What are the symptoms of glandular fever and what is the causative virus?
Swollen neck glands Sore throat Tiredness Fever Epstein Barr
106
Which age group does glandular fever affect the most?
Teenagers and young adults
107
Which drug class interacts with quinolones, increasing the risk of convulsions?
NSAIDs
108
Which antisecretory medication can cause severe diarrhoea that may require withdrawal of the medication?
Misoprostol
109
Why is phenytoin prescribed more commonly as oral preparations instead of IV?
More error-prone, increasing risk of death
110
What schedule CD is buprenorphine?
CD3
111
How long should hygiene measures be continued for with threadworm infections in pregnancy?
6 weeks
112
MHRA alert regarding finasteride?
Risk of depression, stop finasteride and seek medical attention