Gastroenterology Flashcards

(86 cards)

1
Q

Which condition causes dysphagia to both solids and liquids from the start?

A

Achalasia
There is failure of oesophageal peristalsis & of relaxation of lower oesophageal sphincter due to degenerative loss of ganglia from Auerbach’s plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is primary biliary cholangitis?

A

Autoimmune condition that causes small bile duct obliteration and toxin build up leading to cirrhosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Is primary biliary cholangitis more common in men or women?

A

Women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the pathophysiology of primary biliary cholangitis?

A

1) Destruction of interlobular ducts
2) Small duct proliferation
3) Fibrosis
4) Cirrhosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the presenting features of primary biliary cholangitis?

A
  • Can be asymptomatic
  • Pruritus
  • Cholestatic jaundice
  • Xanthelasma
  • Clubbing
  • Portal HTN
  • Diarrhoea
  • Lethargy
  • Shin pigmentation
  • Hepatosplenomegaly
  • Osteoporosis/osteomalacia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How do you diagnose primary biliary cholangitis?

A
  • Antimitochondrial antibodies
  • Raised ALP
  • Raised IgM
  • Liver biopsy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What condition is associated with antimitochondrial antibodies?

A

Primary biliary cholangitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How do you manage primary biliary cholangitis?

A
  • Cholestyramine for pruritus
  • Ursodeoxycholic acid (unclear evidence if slows progression) can be used in combo with obeticholic acid
  • Liver transplant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the indications for transplant in primary biliary cholangitis?

A
  • Intractable pruritus
  • End stage disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What conditions cause liver disease and joint pain?

A

HAIL-G

Haemochromatosis
Autoimmune hepatitis
Infection e.g viral hepatitis
Liver alcohol disease
Gout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which condition causes signet ring cells?

A

Gastric adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which stool test distinguishes between
inflammatory & non-inflammatory bowel
conditions?

A

Faecal Calprotectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How is hereditary haemochromatosis inherited?

A

Autosomal Recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the gene mutation in hereditary haemochromatosis?

A

HFE gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the pathophysiology of hereditary haemochromatosis?

A

Hepatic hepcidin gene expression low which causes ongoing duodenal absorption of iron
In low hepcidin conditions macrophages continuously release iron
High iron levels cause deposition in joints, liver, heart, pancreas, pituitary, adrenals and skin
Iron which is stored as ferritin is deposited in organs as haemosiderin which is toxic to tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How does hereditary haemochromatosis present?

A

Usually asymptomatic until late stage
- Lethargy
- Arthralgia
- Bronzed skin
- Chronic liver disease
- Loss of libido
- Hypogonadism
- Hepatomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How is hereditary haemochromatosis diagnosed?

A
  • Raised transferrin saturations
  • Raised ferritin
  • HFE geneotype
  • Liver biopsy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How do you treat hereditary haemochromatosis?

A
  • Venesection
  • Iron chelation
  • Diet, avoid vitamin c
  • Liver transplant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A 46-year-old man is seen in neurology outpatients after being referred with disinhibited behaviour of 2 months’ duration. His family tells you that he passes urine in public and the police have brought him home on two occasions recently. He has been losing weight for the last year and was previously 110 kg, now weighing 92 kg. He has diarrhoea and his family tell you it smells bad and is difficult to flush. The patient complains of pain in his right knee, left ankle and lower back.

On examination, he looks pale and has angular cheilitis. He has a distended abdomen with some shifting dullness but no palpable organomegaly. His palmo-mental reflex is positive. The right knee and left ankle are both swollen with minimal tenderness and a good range of movement.

Oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy (OGD) is performed and duodenal biopsy demonstrates expanded villi containing macrophages staining positive with periodic acid–Schiff stain.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Whipple’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What causes Whipple’s disease?

A

Infection with gram positive actinobacteria Tropheryma whippelei and abnormal response of cell-mediated immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is Whipple’s disease associated with?

A

HLA-B27

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What would investigation for Whipple’s disease show?

A

Jejunal biopsy shows deposition of macrophages containing PAS +ve granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the management of Whipple’s disease?

A

14 days of ceftriaxone or benxylpenicillin
Year of trimethoprim or sulfamethoxazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A 66-year-old man is under investigation for recurrent fevers and arthralgia. He has had episodes of fevers over the last 4 years associated with seronegative non-destructive arthropathies. Episodes have been characterised by elevated C-reactive protein (CRP) and have responded to antibiotics. Blood cultures have been persistently negative.

On this admission, the patient complains of persistent diarrhoea and weight loss over the last 6 months, as well as myalgia. His wife has noticed that he has become more forgetful of late.

On examination, he is pale and thin, and auscultation reveals a systolic murmur in the aortic area. Central nervous system (CNS) examination shows signs of mild ataxia.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Whipple’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Which skin lesion is most commonly associated with UC?
Pyoderma gangrenosum
26
What would barium enema show in chronic UC?
Hosepipe appearance
27
What is HELLP syndrome?
Haemolysis, Elevated liver enzymes, Low Platelets Associated with pre-eclampsia in pregnancy
28
A 35-year-old Nigerian office worker presents with a 3-month history of epigastric pain and alternating diarrhoea and constipation. There is occasionally a small amount of blood in his stool. He describes nausea and vomiting associated with weight loss and a recurrent urticaric rash across the trunk and abdomen. Past medical history includes a kidney transplant and hay fever. He has become more wheezy recently requiring admissions for nebulisers. Examination is normal. He is eosinophilic. What is the cause?
Strongyloides stercoralis
29
What causes a raised chromogranin A?
VIPoma
30
A patient presents with hypokalaemia, dehydration, watery diarrhoea and achlorhydria, what is the cause?
VIPoma
31
A 32-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a sudden onset of severe central abdominal pain and profuse vomiting. She had also passed several loose stools, but these had not been associated with any blood or mucus. She had no other symptoms. On examination, she was pyrexial and tachycardic with generalised abdominal tenderness. She had eaten in a Chinese buffet restaurant 3 h prior to the onset of symptoms, and remembers that she mainly ate from the rice dishes. Apart from a raised white count with neutrophilia, her full blood count and serum biochemistry were normal. What is the most likely causative organism?
Bacillus cereus
32
A 62-year-old Pakistani man with rheumatoid arthritis presents with a 2-month history of diarrhoea, upper abdominal pain and weight loss. He reports two episodes of dark red blood per rectum. He has a 7-year history of rheumatoid arthritis, which was refractory to high doses of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. Over the last 2 years, his symptoms of joint pain have progressed and he has been switched to methotrexate. He also has a past history of anal cancer and received chemoradiation in Pakistan. His last hospital admission was for pneumonia. He is a non-smoker and consumes fewer than two units of alcohol per week. On examination, he looks unwell with a temperature of 37.8 °C. Examination of the oral cavity reveals buccal ulcers. Cardiovascular and respiratory examinations are unremarkable. The abdomen is soft and non-tender with normal bowel sounds. A colonoscopy is performed. Histological analysis of rectal biopsy shows round intranuclear inclusion bodies within some of the epithelial cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?
CMV associated colitis
33
What would you see on biopsy in CMV colitis?
Inclusion bodies
34
What is the treatment of acute porphyria?
IV haem arginate
35
What are the risk factors for eosinophilic oesophagitis?
Allergies/asthma Male Autoimmune conditions FH Caucasian Age 30-50
36
What does investigation show in eosinophilic oesophagititis?
>15 eosinophils per high power microscopy field Reduced vasculature Thick mucosa Mucosal furrows Oedema
37
What is the treatment of eosinophilic oesophagitis?
3Ds Drugs: PPI and topical corticosteroids swallowed (budesonide or fluticasone) Diet: 6 food elimination diet Dilatation: If stricture
38
How do you manage anaphylactoid reactions to NAC?
Stop the infusion and restart at a slower rate
39
What type of virus is hepatitis B?
DNA
40
A patient has the following hepatitis serology: HbsAg -ve anti-HBs +ve anti-HBc -ve What is their status?
Vaccinated and immune
41
What does surface antigens in hepatitis B mean?
+ve = current infection -ve = no active infection
42
What do surface antibodies in hepatitis B mean?
+ve = immunity (prev. infection or vaccination)
43
What do core antibodies in hepatitis B mean?
+ve = natural infection
44
What does a positive IgM core antibody in hepatitis B mean?
Acute infection
45
What serology would suggest chronic hepatitis B infection?
Surface antigen positive for >6 months
46
What does a positive HBeAg mean?
High infectivity and replication
47
What does a pre-core mutant mean in hepatitis B?
Unable to produce HBeAg so will appear negative but still be positive. HBV DNA will be positive
48
What is the first line treatment of gastroparesis?
Domperidone
49
What causes a SAAG >11?
Portal HTN
50
What are the causes of raised SAAG?
Cirrhosis Alcoholic hepatitis Schistomiasis Fulminant hepatic failure Budd-Chiari Portal vein obstruction Cardiac disease SBP
51
What are the causes of low/normal SAAG?
Nephrotic syndrome Protein-losing enteropathy Peritoneal carcinomatosis TB peritonitis Pancreatic duct leak Biliary ascites
52
A patient with a PMH of coeliac presents with abdominal pain, weight loss, distension and tinkling bowel sounds. What's the cause?
Enteropathy-Associated T Cell Lymphoma
53
A patient with ulcerative colitis presents with RUQ and pruritus. They are jaundiced. Bili and ALP are raised. pANCA is positive. What's the cause?
Primary Sclerosing Colangitis
54
What is the gold standard investigation for PSC?
MRCP
55
What are the complications of PSC?
Cholangiocarcinoma Colorectal cancer
56
What is characteristic of immune-mediated drug induced liver injury?
Positive ANA Eosinophilia Raised IgG
57
What medication can be used to treat malabsorption in small bowel syndrome?
Teduglutide
58
Which drugs commonly cause lymphocytic colitis?
NSAIDs PPI (especially lansoprazole) SSRI Beta blockers Statins
59
A patient presents after several episodes of vomiting. They have sudden onset chest pain, dyspnea and significant epigastric pain. There is a left sided pleural effusion. What is the cause?
Boerhaave's syndrome - oesophageal rupture
60
A 27 year old presents with jaundice. Bloods show a raised conjugated bilirubin level and liver biopsy shows dark granules in the hepatocytes. What's the cause?
Dubin-Johnson Syndrome
61
How is Dubin-Johnson Syndrome inherited?
Autosomal recessive
62
What are the symptoms of nicotinic acid (niacin) deficiency and what is the condition called?
Diarrhoea, dementia, dermatitis Pellagra
63
What is the first line treatment of MALT lymphoma?
Eradication of H Pylori with triple therapy: amoxicillin, clarithromycin and omeprazole
64
What antibodies are found in autoimmune hepatitis type 1?
ASMA ANA ANTI-actin
65
What antibodies are found in autoimmune hepatitis type 2?
Anti-KLM PD 450 IID6
66
What antibodies are found in autoimmune hepatitis type 3?
Anti soluble liver antibody
67
What does a low faecal elastase indicate?
Pancreatic insufficiency
68
A patient with a background of alcoholism presents with SOB. He is anaemic, jaundiced and has a raised bilirubin. They have a high cholesterol. What is the cause and management?
Zieve syndrome Stop drinking
69
Which antiepileptic is commonly associated with acute pancreatitis?
Valproate
70
What is the most sensitive measure for lithium induced hepatotoxicity?
ALT
71
What is the treatment of hepatitis B?
1st line: Interferon Alpha 2nd line (or if decompensated): Tenofovir
72
What is the treatment of hepatitis C?
Interferon and ribavirin
73
What is the first line investigation for unexplained IDA in someone over 60?
FIT
74
A patient with a history of chronic alcoholism presents with abdominal swelling. There is evidence of ascites and signs of chronic liver disease. Their Ca 125 is raised. What is the likely cause and why?
Cirrhosis Can cause falsely elevated CA125
75
What immunoglobulin effects can alcoholic liver disease and alcoholic hepatitis cause?
Markedly raised IgA Mildly raised IgG and IgM
76
A patient has an OGD that shows subtotal villous atrophy. What is the cause?
Coeliac
77
A patient undergoes colonoscopy for investigation of diarrhoea and fresh PR bleeding. The results show indeterminate colitis. How can you differentiate between Crohn's and UC?
UC - pANCA positive Crohn's - Anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies positive (ASCA)
78
What is the best treatment option for a patient with steroid-resistant Crohn's with fistulating disease?
Infliximab
79
What would you want to avoid in a patient with Crohn's with low TMPT activity?
Azathioprine
80
What would you use to manage a patient with steroid-resistant Crohn's without fistulating disease and with low TMPT activity?
Methotrexate
81
A 46 year old man presents with a 3 month history of sweating, palpitations and light-headedness 1-2 hours after meals. He has a history of previous UGI surgery for peptic ulcer disease. His symptoms usually improve rapidly after consuming a sugary snack. Physical examination is unremarkable. During a mixed meal tolerance test, his plasma glucose drops to 2.4 one hour post meal, with appropriately elevated insulin and c-peptide levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Dumping syndrome
82
What is the treatment of hepatorenal syndrome?
Terlipressin and IV albumin
83
What test is used to look for small bowel bacterial overgrowth syndrome?
Hydrogen breath test
84
What test is used to look for H. Pylori?
Urea breath test
85
A 14 year old girl presents to ED with fever, abdominal pain and diarrhoea for the last 2 days. On examination, her BP is 110/60 and HR is 104. Temp is 38.2. Abdominal exam reveals tenderness in the RIF. The patient is taken for an appendectomy. Intraoperatively, the appendix is noted to be normal and the area surrounding the appendix, including the terminal ileum and mesenteric nodes is found to be inflamed. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Yersinia Enterocolitica
86
What are the features of hereditary haemochromatosis?
- Bronzed skin - Arthritis - Diabetes mellitus - Chronic liver disease - Dilated cardiomyopathy - Hypogonadism