GEN - Operating Procedures

Question 1

Which airfields make up the Brize Group?

Answer 1

Gloucester (EGBJ)
Fairford (EGVA)
Brize Norton (EGVN)

Question 2

Which airfields make up the Brussels Group? (5)

Answer 2

Antwerp (EBAW)
Brussels (EBBR)
Charleroi (EBCI)
Chievres (EBCV)
Brussels Melsbroek (EBMB)

Question 3

Which airfields make up the Farnborough Group? (6)

Answer 3

Dunsfold (EGTD)
Lasham (EGHL)
Farnborough (EGLF)
Blackbushe (EGLK)
Fairoaks (EGTF)
Odiham (EGVO)

Question 4

Which airfields make up the German Group? (17)

Answer 4

Munster (EDDG)
Dusseldorf (EDDL)
Siegerland (EDGS)
Koln/Cologne (EDDK)
Arnsberg (EDLA)
Essen (EDLE)
Bielefeld (EDLI)
Monchengladbach (EDLN)
Paderborn (EDLP)
Stadtlohn (EDLS)
Niederrhein (EDLV)
Dortmund (EDLW)
Geilenkirchen (ETNG)
Norvenich (ETNN)
Gutersloh (ETUO)
Bonn Hangelar (EDKB)
Allendorf Eder (EDFQ)

Question 5

Which airfields make up the HSD Group? (8)

Answer 5

Weert (EHBD)
Eindhoven (EHEH)
Breda (EHGR)
Middelburg (EHMZ)
Rotterdam (EHRD)
Hoeven (EHSE)
Uden (EHVK)
Bergen Op Zoom (EHWO)

Question 6

Which airfields make up the Paris Group? (8)

Answer 6

Beauvais (LFOB)
Paris Le Bourget (LFPB)
Creil (LFPC)
Charles de Gaulle (LFPG)
Toussus-le-Noble (LFPN)
Orly (LFPO)
Pontoise (LFPT)
Vaillacoublay (LFPV)

Question 7

Which airfields make up the Scottish TMA? (6)

Answer 7

Glasgow (EGPF)
Edinburgh (EGPH)
Prestwick (EGPK)
Dundee (EGPN)
Leuchars (EGQL)
Cumbernauld (EGPG)

Question 8

Which airlines and for which destinations are the pilots expected to report their STAR on first contact to a London sector?

Answer 8

• All British Airways LL, KK inbounds
• All Lufthansa LL inbounds
• All Flybe (Jersey) LTMA and HI inbounds
• All TUI (Tomjet) GW, SS and KK inbounds

Question 9

What do LTMA airports require before accepting a diversion?

Answer 9

Prior notification and confirmation of a handling agent.

Question 10

Within Swanwick (AC to AC, and AC to TC), satisfactory two-way speech communication to provide silent radar handover exists when one or more of which things are available?

With other units, this only exists when what function is available?

Answer 10

Within Swanwick:

1) Direct Access telephone lines
2) Short code dial via telephone number pad
3) ATOTN (Air Traffic Operational Telephone Network) dial via telephone number pad
4) SIS auto-dial
5) Face-to-face

Other units: Direct Access Telephone lines must be available

Question 11

What is the minimum RoC/RoD that a pilot must adhere to and inform a tactical if they cannot comply with it?

Answer 11

500ft per minute

Question 12

For civil operations, to which aircraft does the 8,000ft per minute RoC/RoD restriction not apply?

Answer 12

• Aircraft in an emergency
• Aircraft in receipt of avoiding action instructions to resolve an impending loss of standard separation or to avert a potential collision

Question 13

For Military operations, to which aircraft does the 8,000ft per minute RoC/RoD restriction not apply?

Answer 13

• Aircraft in an emergency
• Aircraft in receipt of avoiding action instructions to resolve an impending loss of standard separation or to avert a potential collision
• MOD aircraft responding to Operation ADANA or an ADFP where a high RoC/RoD is essential to the successful outcome of the mission
• Research or test flying in accordance with notified procedures
• Exercise activity notified and co-ordinated via an ACN

Question 14

For Military day-to-day operations, the 8,000ft per minute RoC/RoD restriction may be lifted under which circumstances?

Answer 14

• When MOD controllers (either ATC/ASACS) determine that there will be no, or no likelihood of, interaction between the aircraft under their control and with GAT inside controlled airspace. In this situation, MOD controllers are aware that aircraft under their control are operating outside the normal requirements and that safety nets may not operate
• Above FL195 within an allocated/tactical block of airspace and where co-ordination has been effected with the appropriate civil controlling agency to provide at least 2,000ft vertical separation between the top/bottom of the block and any ATS route above/below. (Under these circumstances, manoeuvring pilots will be explicitly reminded of the vertical limit of the block in which they are operating when other traffic is likely to come into confliction. Controllers shall actively monitor the situation in order to assist in preventing a vertical level bust)
• Aircraft operating in active TRAs, MTAs and MDAs

Question 15

Under what circumstances may the Mode A label ‘0000’ appear on line 0 of the TDB?

Answer 15

• A Mode S or Mode A/C aircraft suffers a transponder fault resulting in no Mode A code being received
• The pilot has selected a discrete Mode A code ‘0000’ to indicate a transponder problem
• Mode S radar detects an issue with the Mode S information downlinked from an aircraft operating within its area of coverage, even if Mode A/C are operating correctly

Question 16

If there is a failure to provide SSR data and/or the displaying of a primary only radar plot, what does this suggest and what would be a controller’s actions?

Answer 16

This may indicate an aircraft transponder issue. The controller is to:
1) Request the crew to recycle the transponder;
And if this does not resolve the issue:
2) Request the crew to select their alternative transponder equipment

Question 17

What are the actions in the event of a transponder failure before departure?

Answer 17

If the failure cannot be fixed at the departure aerodrome, then the aircraft operator should re-file to transit as directly as possible to a suitable aerodrome where repair can be made. Prior to issuing a clearance to such aircraft, the OS should consider the expected traffic situation and may modify time of departure or flight levels accordingly.

Question 18

What are the actions in the event of a transponder failure whilst en-route that is already within, or that has planned to enter LAC airspace?

Answer 18

If a flight is already en-route and within LAC airspace, and the failure cannot be rectified, or is planned to enter LAC airspace, controllers, in conjunction with the GS and OS, shall assess whether the flight may continue.

If considered safe to do so, LAC will endeavour to provide for the continuation of the flight in accordance with the original flight plan.

In certain traffic situations this may not be possible, and if safety would be compromised by accepting such an aircraft then either:

• Entry to LAC airspace may be refused; or
• Onward clearance can be cancelled

The aircraft may then be required to return to the departure aerodrome or land at another aerodrome acceptable to the operator and to ATC.

Question 19

What are the Tac/Planner actions if a primary only track is observed that is anticipated to enter LAC airspace?

Answer 19

Planner:

• Endeavour to ascertain the identity of the track well in advance of transfer of communication
• If it cannot be identified on radar, the adjacent ANSP are to be contacted to request a radar ident
• If the ident provided corresponds to the location of the primary return, the adjacent ANSP should be requested to ask the aircraft to switch to the alternative transponder
• If this fails to solve the issue, controllers (in conjunction with GS/OS), should consider whether to allow entry to LAC airspace

Tac - if an aircraft calls on frequency that cannot be seen:

• Do not issue any executive instructions to aircraft in the vicinity of the reported position
• Ask the aircraft to recycle their transponder or switch to their second transponder immediately

Question 20

How can controllers maintain the accuracy of iFACTS trajectories for aircraft with transponder failure?

Answer 20

• Ensure that flight plan timings and estimates are correct and updated accordingly
• Where practicable, the aircraft should not be vectored away from the flight plan route
• Consider use of custom route blocker to provide protection for vertical clearances (NFL should be input as the reported level of the aircraft, XFL should be the cleared level) and lateral clearances for aircraft where either a HDG/direct route instruction results in a deviation away from the flight plan route

Question 21

If a track that has already been paired by the LAC system subsequently displays “0000”, will the track become unpaired?
How does this affect iFACTS trajectory prediction?

Answer 21

No.

iFACTS will continue to use the track as the start point for all trajectory prediction and the accuracy of iFACTS tools will be unaffected.

Question 22

If a track that has never been paired with the LAC system subsequently displays “0000”, how does this affect iFACTS trajectory prediction?

Answer 22

iFACTS will use flight plan route, timings and aircraft type (BADA) information for trajectory prediction. It is not possible to manually pair a track displaying the “0000” code with a flight plan, and the aircraft is to be considered “primary only” and transponder failure procedures should be followed.

Question 23

What are a controller’s actions following loss of Mode C data only?

Answer 23

The controller shall inform the pilot and ask them to confirm the aircraft’s level.

If the missing Mode C data cannot be rectified then procedures regarding loss of MASPS compliance and Mode C readout discrepancy during flight are to be followed.

Question 24

Describe the procedures regarding loss of MASPS compliance and Mode C readout discrepancy during flight.

Answer 24

If the Mode C readout of an aircraft in level flight deviates from the CFL by 300ft or more, or if it is lost, the controller shall inform the pilot and request a check of the pressure setting and confirmation of the aircraft’s level.

If the aircraft is in conflict with another, the priority is to resolve the confliction using avoiding action if necessary.

If selecting an alternative transponder fails to rectify the issue, the flight is to be treated as having no serviceable Mode C and the aircraft’s systems are treated as having fallen below the minimum specification required for MASPS complaince and the pilot should declare “unable RVSM due equipment”.

Controllers shall either:

• Provide the appropriate lateral radar separation or 2,000ft vertical separation within RVSM airspace; or
• Clear the aircraft out of RVSM airspace

Controllers, in conjunction with GS/OS, shall assess whether to allow the flight to continue within RVSM airspace.

Question 25

What are the Tac/Planner actions if an aircraft becomes non-MASPS compliant during flight?

Answer 25

Planner: - Amend flight plan within NAS to reflect the apprioriate RVSM status (RVN), to ensure the correct 'attention getter' is displayed and that accurate data is conveyed via OLDI - Confirm verbally between other sectors/ACCs the failure by supplementing the co-ordination/estimate with "unable RVSM due equipment" Tac: - Provide approriate lateral or 2,000ft vertical separation - Where this is not possible, avoiding action should always be issued

Question 26

How does a loss of Mode C/MASPS compliance affect iFACTS trajectory prediction?

Answer 26

- Issuing a new CFL instruction will result in trajectory building from the last known AFL, and if no AFL has been received, the current CFL/NFL will be used as the start point - Actual ROC/ROD cannot be observed, so BADA derived climb/descent rates will be used to predict level occupancy, therefore additional interactions may be observed within the SM

Question 27

What are the rules/considerations regarding an aircraft that has an ACAS failure?

Answer 27

- ATC will be notified by the operator but the aircraft may continue flight, and operate for up to 10 days with unserviceable ACAS equipment - ATC must note that there is a loss of ACAS functionality between the faulty aircraft and other aircraft

Question 28

If an aircraft suffers a failure with both its SSR and also ACAS before departure, is it allowed to take off?

Answer 28

Yes, but only if it remains below FL100 and flies VFR. It may fly within RVSM airspace only with specific CAA exemption.

Question 29

If an aircraft suffers a failure with both its SSR and also ACAS whilst airborne, what are the controller's actions?

Answer 29

Treat the flight as an emergency.

Question 30

What are the RVSM separation minima and the levels between which they apply?

Answer 30

1,000ft separation may be applied between RVSM approved aircraft between FL290 and FL410. 2,000ft separation must be applied between all aircraft above FL410.

Question 31

When would the "hamburger" symbol appear on an EFS?

Answer 31

If the flight is not RVSM approved and the RFL/assigned level is FL270 or greater, and will be dynamically updated should the RVSM status or RFL/AFL changes.

Question 32

When would the "hamburger" symbol appear on a TDB and why are the criteria different to that of the EFS?

Answer 32

The symbol appears for non-compliant flights if the AFL is FL245+ and the RFL/assigned FL is FL285+; or AFL is FL265+ The symbol triggers at lower levels for the TDB to provide earlier warning to the TAC.

Question 33

What rules does the STCA apply in regards to RVSM compliance?

Answer 33

If RVA/RVU: a 1,000ft paramater is applied in RVSM airspace | If RVX/RVN: a 2,000ft parameter is applied in RVSM airspace

Question 34

Which aircraft are permitted to operate within RVSM airspace without the need for RVSM approval? What are the requirements for operators of such aircraft in regards to the flight plan?

Answer 34

- State aircraft, i.e. military, customs or police aircraft; which are considered to be RVSM exempt - The operator is required to file "STS/NONRVSM" in Field 18 of the ICAO flight plan if they are planning to operate within or above RVSM airspace. (In addition, military flights are required to insert 'M' in Field 8)

Question 35

When are the only times a status of 'RVU' should be displayed?

Answer 35

- When an AU (activation update) strip is produced (first AC sector is to ask the transferring sector the RVSM status of the flight so that accurate RVSM information can be entered into NAS) - if an AFIL plan has been entered into NAS without the RVSM qualifier - RVSM status of a flight is ambiguous to flight planning staff

Question 36

What details on an RVX aircraft should an adjacent ACC pass to the first AC sector, and how long before the transfer of control point should these details be passed? How should this information be relayed to subsequent AC sectors/ACCs?

Answer 36

At least 10 minutes before transfer of control, the adjacent ACC should pass: - Callsign - RVSM status - Boundary fix - ETA for boundary fix - FL These details should be passed to the planner of the next AC sector on receipt. For the next ACC, the planner of the last AC sector should pass the details on as soon as possible before the ACT time. It is the responsibility of the receiving sector/ACC on/before receipt of the ACT if a flight that is non-RVSM compliant cannot be accepted at the level passed.

Question 37

What considerations/actions should be taken regarding non-RVSM compliant aircraft operating at a level above/below a division flight level (DFL) within RVSM airspace?

Answer 37

- Wherever possible these aircraft should not be planned at a level immediately above/below a DFL - Should this be necessary, the sector controlling the aircraft shall be responsible for notifying the sector above/below to ensure lateral/2,000ft vertical separation is applied - Planner of this sector advises the sector above/below of callsign, level and track and annotate the SCC with the appropriate sector number (consider using point out), and the planner of the affected sector shall advise of any traffic operating at a level next to the DFL so that conflicting traffic can be identified and a course of action to ensure separation can be agreed, and details added to the SCC - Planner of the sector affected shall inform the tactical, and should consider creating an electronic blocking strip

Question 38

What are the military's responsibilities regarding separation against GAT tracks within RVSM airspace?

Answer 38

Unless otherwise co-ordinated, military controllers shall apply at least 5,000ft vertical or 5nm lateral separation. (Taking 5)

Question 39

If the military make a non-electronic CFP request, what are the requirements of the military controller in regards to RVSM status?

Answer 39

During the co-ordination request, the controller is to verbally confirm the RVSM status, either "Negative RVSM" or "RVSM compliant".

Question 40

What are the RVSM considerations/planner actions for formation flights?

Answer 40

- Formation flights by state aircraft are approved within RVSM airspace but 2,000ft separation must be applied irrespective of the RVSM status of the aircraft within the formation - There is no highlight within the iFACTS tools to show the requirement for increased separation - When a formation flight is present, the RVSM status shall be changed to RVN in order to produce correct indications - Field 11 message shall be input stating the correct RVSM status

Question 41

What are the controller's actions/considerations when an pilot declares "unable RVSM due turbulence"?

Answer 41

The controller shall: - Provide the appropriate lateral separation/2,000ft vertical separation within RVSM airspace; or - Clear the aircraft out of RVSM airspace The continued provision of an ATC service within RVSM airspace for such occurrences is to be discouraged due to the increased workload in ensuring the appropriate separation is applied between other aircraft. The flight plan is to be modified within NAS if the aircraft is unable to continue with RVSM operations, with verbal confirmation required between sectors/ACCs to highlight the weather related contingency, by supplementing the co-ordination/estimate with "unable RVSM due turbulence"

Question 42

If there are continued reports of severe turbulence within RVSM airspace which are rendering aircraft unable to comply with RVSM operations, what are the controllers actions/considerations?

Answer 42

Obtain as much information as possible so that the OS may determine whether RVSM operations should be suspended entirely or within a specific level band/area In such circumstances ATC shall, as far as possible: - Provide lateral separation/2,000ft vertical separation - Give traffic information where the provision of an increased vertical separation is not possible - Determine whether RVSM operations are to be suspended and in which areas - Co-ordinate with adjacent sectors/ACCs to agree transfer of traffic applying 2,000ft separation as required - Consider the application of reduced MVs with the OS/ and Airspace Capacity Manager

Question 43

For a flight squawking A7600, what level should they establish and what separation should be applied against such aircraft?

Answer 43

The radio fail aircraft will establish at the FPL requested level for the appropriate portion of flight, i.e. a single alternate level within RVSM airspace or at a semi-circular level within conventional airspace. 1,000ft vertical separation shall be provided within RVSM airspace, except for flights between LAC and Maastricht where conventional 2,000ft vertical separation shall be provided.

Question 44

What do the CPDLC attention getters DLN, DLA, DLA ATN and DLA FANS indicate?

Answer 44

DLN - not equipped DLA - equipped but not logged on DLA ATN - equipped and ATN logged on DLA FANS - equipped and FANS logged on

Question 45

What do the CPDLC acronyms ATN and FANS stand for?

Answer 45

ATN - Aeronautical Telecommunications Network | FANS - Future Air Navigation Systems

Question 46

What must an 83X aircraft carry in order to penetrate 8.33 mandated airspace?

Answer 46

UHF radio

Question 47

What are the requirements in regards to 83N, 83U and 83X aircraft and standing agreements/silent handover procedures?

Answer 47

These are excluded from standing agreement/silent handover procedures and shall be individually co-ordinated.

Question 48

Describe the procedure for handling an 83X state UHF-equipped aircraft.

Answer 48

- Unless notified by a GS, the relevant T/P is to inform the appropriate GS when notification is received via OLDI/telephone estimate on a state exempt UHF aircraft - GS will determine most appropriate method of handling and inform the affected sector(s) - Planner of offering sector to inform receiving sector of the VHF/UHF frequency to be used for controlling the aircraft - Receiving planner ensures this frequency is selected on the VCS panel - Offering tactical gives a 'frequency handover' to the receiving tactical at an appropriate time prior to the sector boundary - receiving sector must have both Tx and Rx selected and ensure that 2-way speech communication has been achieved with the aircraft - Following confirmation from the receiving tactical that 2-way communication has been achieved, the offering tactical deselects the VHF/UHF frequency from the VCS panel

Question 49

Which aircraft are exempt from the carriage of R-NAV 5?

Answer 49

State aircraft (i.e. military, customs and police aircraft). The flight plans will have the phrase "STS/NONRNAV"

Question 50

What does the Field 11 comment "ACH" indicate?

Answer 50

ATC Flight plan change initiated by an ATC unit for an airborne flight; the aircraft expected route differs (potentially significantly) from the route entered into NAS.

Question 51

What does the Field 11 comment "APL" indicate?

Answer 51

ATC flight plan received for a flight that has not originally flight planned through Swanwick airspace.

Question 52

What does the Field 11 comment "CHK RTE" indicate?

Answer 52

Manually processed flight plan where the route filed differs from the route entered into NAS.

Question 53

Where would you find a SIGMET message that had been distributed to your sector, and how would you become aware of the message?

Answer 53

The SIGMET would be displayed on the SIS, and the WAS will have issued a text message to inform the sector of the message.

Question 54

What are the three types of CDR?

Answer 54

CDR 1: A route which is permanently plannable during the times published in the UK AIP ENR 3. CDR 2: A route which is only plannable in accordance with the conditions stated in the daily CDR Availability Message (CRAM) issued by the Directorate of Network Management (DNM). CDR3 3: A route which is not plannable per se, but may be used tactically at the discretion of ATC. (A CDR may have more than one category)